Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'case'.

Page 720/906 | < Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >

  • Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

    - by damix911
    I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

    Read the article

  • Routing in Php and decorator pattern

    - by Joey Salac Hipolito
    I do not know if I am using the term 'routing' correctly, but here is the situation: I created an .htaccess file to 'process' (dunno if my term is right) the url of my application, like this : RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)$ index.php?url=$1 [QSA,L] Now I have this : http://appname/controller/method/parameter http://appname/$url[0]/$url[1]/$url[2] What I did is: setup a default controller, in case it is not specified in the url setup a Controller wrapper I did it like this $target = new $url[0]() $controller = new Controller($target) The problem with that one is that I can't use the methods in the object I passed in the constructor of the Controller: I resolved it like this : class Controller { protected $target; protected $view; public function __construct($target, $view) { $this->target = $target; $this->view = $view; } public function __call($method, $arguments) { if (method_exists($this->target, $method)) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->target, $method), $arguments); } } } This is working fine, the problem occurs in the index where I did the routing, here it is if(isset($url[2])){ if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]($url[2]) } } else { if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]() } } where $controller = new Controller($target) The problem is that the method doesn't exist, although I can use it directly without checking if method exist, how can I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Django sitemap intermittent www

    - by Jen Z
    The automatic sitemap for my Django site fluctuates between including the www on urls and leaving it out (I'm aiming to have it in all the time). This has ramifications in google not indexing my pages properly so I'm trying to narrow down what would be causing this issue. I have set PREPEND_WWW = True and my site record in the sites framework is set to include the www e.g. it's set to www.example.com as opposed to example.com. I'm using memcached but pages should expire from the cache after 48 hours so I wouldn't have thought that would be causing the issue? You can see the problem in effect at http://www.livingspaceltd.co.uk/sitemap.xml (refresh the page a few times). My sitemaps setup is fairly prosaic so I'm doubtful that that is the issue, but in case it's something obvious I'm missing here's the code: ***urls.py*** sitemaps = { 'subpages': Subpages_Sitemap, 'standalone_pages': Standalone_Sitemap, 'categories': Categories_Sitemap, } urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^sitemap\.xml$', 'django.contrib.sitemaps.views.sitemap', {'sitemaps': sitemaps}), ... ***sitemaps.py*** # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django_ls.livingspace.models import Page, Category, Standalone_Page, Subpage from django.contrib.sitemaps import Sitemap class Subpages_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "monthly" priority = 0.4 def items(self): return Subpage.objects.filter(restricted_to__isnull=True) class Standalone_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 1 def items(self): return Standalone_Page.objects.all() class Categories_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 0.7 def items(self): return Category.objects.all()

    Read the article

  • Can a C# method chain be "too long"?

    - by ccornet
    Not in terms of readability, naturally, since you can always arrange the separate methods into separate lines. Rather, is it dangerous, for any reason, to chain an excessively large number of methods together? I use method chaining primarily to save space on declaring individual one-use variables, and traditionally using return methods instead of methods that modify the caller. Except for string methods, those I kinda chain mercilessly. In any case, I worry sometimes about the impact of using exceptionally long method chains all in one line. Let's say I need to update the value of one item based on someone's username. Unfortunately, the shortest method to retrieve the correct user looks something like the following. SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); SPList list2 = web.Lists["Wars"]; SPListItem item2 = list2.GetItemById(3); SPListItem item3 = item2.GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army"); SPUser user2 = item2.GetSPUser("Commander"); SPUser user3 = user2.GetAssociate("Spouse"); string username2 = user3.Name; item1["Contact"] = username2; Everything with a 2 or 3 lasts for only one call, so I might condense it as the following (which also lets me get rid of a would-be-superfluous 1): SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); item["Contact"] = web.Lists["Armies"] .GetItemById(3) .GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army") .GetSPUser("Commander") .GetAssociate("Spouse") .Name; Admittedly, it looks a lot longer when it is all in one line and when you have int.Parse(ddlArmy.SelectedValue.CutBefore(";#", false)) instead of 3. Nevertheless, this is one of the average lengths of these chains, and I can easily foresee some of exceptionally longer counts. Excluding readability, is there anything I should be worried about for these 10+ method chains? Or is there no harm in using really really long method chains?

    Read the article

  • Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

    Read the article

  • IE event callback object JavaScript

    - by Randy Hall
    I may be WAY off on my terminology, so please feel free to correct me. Perhaps this is why I cannot seem to find anything relevant. No libraries, please. I have an event handler, which invokes a callback function. Fancy, right? In IE<9 the this object in the handler is the window. I don't know why, or how to access the correct object. if (document.addEventListener){ element.addEventListener(event, callback, false); } else { element.attachEvent('on' +event, callback); } This part DOES WORK. This part doesn't: function callback(event){ console.log(this); } this in IE is returning [object Window], whereas it returns the element that called the callback function in every other browser. This is cut down significantly from my full script, but this should be everything that's relevant. EDIT This link provided by @metadings How to reference the caller object ("this") using attachEvent is very close. However, there are still two issues. 1) I need to get both the event object and the DOM element calling this function. 2) This event is handled delegation style: there may be child DOM elements firing the event, meaning event.target is not necessarily (and in my case, not typically) the element with the listener.

    Read the article

  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

    Read the article

  • How can I superimpose modified loess lines on a ggplot2 qplot?

    - by briandk
    Background Right now, I'm creating a multiple-predictor linear model and generating diagnostic plots to assess regression assumptions. (It's for a multiple regression analysis stats class that I'm loving at the moment :-) My textbook (Cohen, Cohen, West, and Aiken 2003) recommends plotting each predictor against the residuals to make sure that: The residuals don't systematically covary with the predictor The residuals are homoscedastic with respect to each predictor in the model On point (2), my textbook has this to say: Some statistical packages allow the analyst to plot lowess fit lines at the mean of the residuals (0-line), 1 standard deviation above the mean, and 1 standard deviation below the mean of the residuals....In the present case {their example}, the two lines {mean + 1sd and mean - 1sd} remain roughly parallel to the lowess {0} line, consistent with the interpretation that the variance of the residuals does not change as a function of X. (p. 131) How can I modify loess lines? I know how to generate a scatterplot with a "0-line,": # First, I'll make a simple linear model and get its diagnostic stats library(ggplot2) data(cars) mod <- fortify(lm(speed ~ dist, data = cars)) attach(mod) str(mod) # Now I want to make sure the residuals are homoscedastic qplot (x = dist, y = .resid, data = mod) + geom_smooth(se = FALSE) # "se = FALSE" Removes the standard error bands But does anyone know how I can use ggplot2 and qplot to generate plots where the 0-line, "mean + 1sd" AND "mean - 1sd" lines would be superimposed? Is that a weird/complex question to be asking?

    Read the article

  • BeginInvoke on ObservableCollection not immediate.

    - by Padu Merloti
    In my code I subscribe to an event that happens on a different thread. Every time this event happens, I receive an string that is posted to the observable collection: Dispatcher currentDispatcher = Dispatcher.CurrentDispatcher; var SerialLog = new ObservableCollection<string>(); private void hitStation_RawCommandSent(object sender, StringEventArgs e) { string command = e.Value.Replace("\r\n", ""); Action dispatchAction = () => SerialLog.Add(command); currentDispatcher.BeginInvoke(dispatchAction, DispatcherPriority.Render); } The code below is in my view model (could be in the code behind, it doesn't matter in this case). When I call "hitstation.PrepareHit", the event above gets called a couple times, then I wait and call "hitStation.HitBall", and the event above gets called a couple more times. private void HitBall() { try { try { Mouse.OverrideCursor = Cursors.Wait; //prepare hit hitStation.PrepareHit(hitSpeed); Thread.Wait(1000); PlayWarning(); //hit hitStation.HitBall(hitSpeed); } catch (TimeoutException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Timeout hitting ball: " + ex.Message); } } finally { Mouse.OverrideCursor = null; } } The problem I'm having is that the ListBox that is bound to my SerialLog gets updated only when the HitBall method finishes. I was expecting seeing a bunch of updates from the PrepareHit, a pause and then a bunch more updates from the HitBall. I've tried a couple of DispatcherPriority arguments, but they don't seem to have any effect.

    Read the article

  • Is there a language with native pass-by-reference/pass-by-name semantics, which could be used in mod

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! This is a reopened question. I look for a language and supporting platform for it, where the language could have pass-by-reference or pass-by-name semantics by default. I know the history a little, that there were Algol, Fortran and there still is C++ which could make it possible; but, basically, what I look for is something more modern and where the mentioned value pass methodology is preferred and by default (implicitly assumed). I ask this question, because, to my mind, some of the advantages of pass-by-ref/name seem kind of obvious. For example when it is used in a standalone agent, where copyiong of values is not necessary (to some extent) and performance wouldn't be downgraded much in that case. So, I could employ it in e.g. rich client app or some game-style or standalone service-kind application. The main advantage to me is the clear separation between identity of a symbol, and its current value. I mean when there is no reduntant copying, you know that you're working with the exact symbol/path you have queried/received. And intristing boxing of values will not interfere with the actual logic of program. I know that there is C# ref keyword, but it's something not so intristic, though acceptable. Equally, I realize that pass-by-reference semantics could be simulated in virtually any language (Java as an instant example) and so on.. not sure about pass by name :) What would you recommend - create a something like DSL for such needs wherever it be appropriate; or use some languages that I already know? Maybe, there is something that I'm missing? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

    - by zoopzoop
    I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

    Read the article

  • should the builder reset its build environment after delivering the product

    - by Sudhi
    I am implementing a builder where in the deliverable is retrieved by calling Builder::getProduct() . The director asks various parts to build Builder::buildPartA() , Builder::buildPartB() etc. in order to completely build the product. My question is, once the product is delivered by the Builder by calling Builder::getProduct(), should it reset its environment (Builder::partA = NULL;, Builder::partB = NULL;) so that it is ready to build another product? (with same or different configuration?) I ask this as I am using PHP wherein the objects are by default passed by reference (nope, I don't want to clone them, as one of their field is a Resource) . However, even if you think from a language agnostic point of view, should the Builder reset its build environment ? If your answer is 'it depends on the case' what use cases would justify reseting the environment (and other way round) ? For the sake of providing code sample here's my Builder::gerProcessor() which shows what I mean by reseting the environment /** * @see IBuilder::getProessor() */ public function getProcessor() { if($this->_processor == NULL) { throw new LogicException('Processor not yet built!'); } else { $retval = $this->_processor; $this->_product = NULL, $this->_processor = NULL; } return $retval; }

    Read the article

  • Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

    - by romkyns
    I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

    Read the article

  • With NHibernate and Transaction do I rollback on commit failure or does it auto rollback on single c

    - by mattcodes
    I've built the following Dispose method for my Unit Of Work which essentially wraps the active NH session & transaction (transaction set as variable after opening session as to not be replaced if NH session gets new transaction after error) public void Dispose() { Func<ITransaction,bool> transactionStateOkayFunc = trans => trans != null && trans.IsActive && !trans.WasRolledBack; try { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(this.transaction)) { if (HasErrored) { transaction.Rollback(); } else { try { transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception) { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(transaction)) transaction.Rollback(); throw; } } } } finally { if(transaction != null) transaction.Dispose(); if(session.IsOpen) session.Close(); } I can't help feeling that code is a little bloated, will a transaction automatically rollback is a discrete Commit fails in the case of non-nested transactions? Will Commit or Rollback automatically Dipose the transaction? If not will Session.Close() automatically dispose the associated transaction?

    Read the article

  • inserting a form to session raises picklingerror - django

    - by shanyu
    I receive an exception when I add a form to the session: PicklingError: Can't pickle <class 'django.utils.functional.__proxy__'>: attribute lookup django.utils.functional.__proxy__ failed The form includes a few simple fields and has some javascript attached to a widget. It might be that Django forms cannot be pickled at all, but the exception seems to point to unicode lazy translation. To test further, I have also tried to insert only the form errors (an errordict) to the session and received the same error. I appreciate some help here, thanks in advance. EDIT: Here's why I insert a form into the session: I have an app that has a form. This form is rendered by a template tag in another app. When posted, if the form is valid, no problem, I do stuff and redirect to "next". However if it is not valid, I want to go back to the posting page to show errors. Recall that the comments app in this case redirects to an intermediate "hey, please fix the errors" page. I am trying to avoid this, and hence redirect back to the posting page with the form and its errors in the session that the template tag will render.

    Read the article

  • My android tests don't get internet access!

    - by Malachii
    The subject says it all. My application gets internet access thanks to the android.permission.INTERNET permission, but my test cases don't while using the instrumentation test runner. This means I can't test my server IO routines in my test cases. What's up? Here's my manifest in case it helps you. Thanks! Sorry about the lack of indents - could not get it working on short notice with this site. Thanks! <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.example.helloandroid" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <uses-library android:name="android.test.runner" /> <activity android:name=".HelloAndroid" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="2" /> <instrumentation android:name="android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner" android:targetPackage="qnext.mobile.redirect" android:label="Qnext Redirect Tests" /> </manifest>

    Read the article

  • SPWorkflowCollection on SPListItem is always empty

    - by armannvg
    Hi I'm having a problem relating to Sharepoint workflows and the associated task list. I have 2 custom workflows that we created for our product. They both use the same Task list that has a custom content type that inherits from the Task content type. Now I have a case where a running workflow has been deleted via the list has been deleted or the document, this results in orphaned tasks. I want to overwrite the Task lists OnDeleting event, so that users can cleanup their tasks so that it won't contain unneccessary orphaned tasks. So my item deleting looks like this public override void ItemDeleting(SPItemEventProperties properties) { SPListItem currentListItem = properties.ListItem; } The problem is that when I go into debug mode and check the currentListItem.Workflows.Count field then it's always 0. It doesn't matter which workflow I initiate or what task i look at, the SPWorkflowCollection returned is always empty :( I was wondering if this might be related to a bug in our custom workflow where it's not wired up properly (but it finishes correctly and tasks are deleted when a workflow is terminated) or am I looking at this the wrong way ?

    Read the article

  • Strategy for locale sensitive sort with pagination

    - by Thom Birkeland
    Hi, I work on an application that is deployed on the web. Part of the app is search functions where the result is presented in a sorted list. The application targets users in several countries using different locales (= sorting rules). I need to find a solution for sorting correctly for all users. I currently sort with ORDER BY in my SQL query, so the sorting is done according to the locale (or LC_LOCATE) set for the database. These rules are incorrect for those users with a locale different than the one set for the database. Also, to further complicate the issue, I use pagination in the application, so when I query the database I ask for rows 1 - 15, 16 - 30, etc. depending on the page I need. However, since the sorting is wrong, each page contains entries that are incorrectly sorted. In a worst case scenario, the entire result set for a given page could be out of order, depending on the locale/sorting rules of the current user. If I were to sort in (server side) code, I need to retrieve all rows from the database and then sort. This results in a tremendous performance hit given the amount of data. Thus I would like to avoid this. Does anyone have a strategy (or even technical solution) for attacking this problem that will result in correctly sorted lists without having to take the performance hit of loading all data? Tech details: The database is PostgreSQL 8.3, the application an EJB3 app using EJB QL for data query, running on JBoss 4.5.

    Read the article

  • Testing for interface implementation in WCF/SOA

    - by rabidpebble
    I have a reporting service that implements a number of reports. Each report requires certain parameters. Groups of logically related parameters are placed in an interface, which the report then implements: [ServiceContract] [ServiceKnownType(typeof(ExampleReport))] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] void Process(IReport report); } public interface IReport { string PrintedBy { get; set; } } public interface IApplicableDateRangeParameter { DateTime StartDate { get; set; } DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } [DataContract] public abstract class Report : IReport { [DataMember] public string PrintedBy { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class ExampleReport : Report, IApplicableDateRangeParameter { [DataMember] public DateTime StartDate { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } The problem is that the WCF DataContractSerializer does not expose these interfaces in my client library, thus I can't write the generic report generating front-end that I plan to. Can WCF expose these interfaces, or is this a limitation of the serializer? If the latter case, then what is the canonical approach to this OO pattern? I've looked into NetDataContractSerializer but it doesn't seem to be an officially supported implementation (which means it's not an option in my project). Currently I've resigned myself to including the interfaces in a library that is common between the service and the client application, but this seems like an unnecessary extra dependency to me. Surely there is a more straightforward way to do this? I was under the impression that WCF was supposed to replace .NET remoting; checking if an object implements an interface seems to be one of the most basic features required of a remoting interface?

    Read the article

  • "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" error in Windows 7 (ASP.NET & Web Service)

    - by Tony_Henrich
    I have an asp.net web app which works fine in Windows XP machine in a domain. I am porting it to a Windows 7 stand alone machine. The app uses a web service which makes a call to sql server. The web server (IIS 7.5) and SQL Server are on the same stand alone machine. I enabled Windows authentication for the website and web service. The web service uses a trusted connection connection string. The web service credentials uses System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials. I noticed username, password and domainname are blank after the call! The webservice and web site use an application pool with identity "Network Service". I am getting an exception "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" in the database call in the web service. I am assuming it's related to the blank credentials. I am expecting ASPNET user to be the security token to the database. Why is this not happening? (Usually this happens when sql server and web server are on two different machines in a domain, delegation & double hopping, but in my case everything is on a dev box)

    Read the article

  • Java enums in generic type

    - by Marcin Cylke
    Hi, I'd like to create a generic enum-based mapper for IBatis. I'm doing this with the below code. This does have compile time errors, which I don't know how to fix. Maybe my solution is just plain wrong (keep in mind the use of IBatis), in such case please suggest something better. Any help appreciated. What I want to achieve is to define subsequent mappers as: public class XEnumTypeHandler extends CommonEnumTypeHandler<X> { } The current code: public class CommonEnumTypeHandler<T extends Enum> implements TypeHandlerCallback { public void setParameter(ParameterSetter ps, Object o) throws SQLException { if (o.getClass().isAssignableFrom(**T**)) { ps.setString(((**T**) o).value().toUpperCase()); } else throw new SQLException("Excpected ParameterType object than: " + o); } public Object getResult(ResultGetter rs) throws SQLException { Object o = valueOf(rs.getString()); if (o == null) throw new SQLException("Unknown parameter type: " + rs.getString()); return o; } public Object valueOf(String s) { for (T pt : T.**values()**) { if (pt.**value()**.equalsIgnoreCase(s)) return pt; } return null; } } I've added error markings to the above code, the error messages are in order: T cannot be resolved The method value() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T

    Read the article

  • On-Demand thumbnail creation with django and nginx

    - by sharjeel
    I want to generate thumbnails of images on the fly. My site is built with django and deployed using nginx which serves all the static content and communicates with django/apache using reverse proxy. Right now, for every image in my site, I generate all required sizes of thumbnails on-hand and deliver them when required. The problem is that whenever I change the size of a thumbnail, I have to regenerate all of them (and they are tons). However now I'd like to generate the thumbnail the first time it is accessed and later on nginx would deliver the same file over n over. If I delete that thumbnail file because of lesser accesses, it should get generated automatically the next time. Thumbnails in my case also have watermarks which require some computation logic of my application so a webserver thumbnail module might not work very well. The size of the thumbnail can be embedded in the URL. So http://www.example.com/thumbnail/abc_320x240.jpg gets the 320x240 size of the thumbnail. The approach I'm looking right now is to let nginx lookup the file and if it doesn't exist, forward the query to my django application which would create the thumbnail and send either the response or a redirect string. However I'm not sure about the concurrency issues and any other issues which might pop up later. What is the appropriate way to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Testing Broadcasting and receiving messages

    - by Avik
    Guys am having some difficulty figuring this out: I am trying to test whether the code(in c#) to broadcast a message and receiving the message works: The code to send the datagram(in this case its the hostname) is: public partial class Form1 : Form { String hostName; byte[] hostBuffer = new byte[1024]; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); StartNotification(); } public void StartNotification() { IPEndPoint notifyIP = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Broadcast, 6000); hostName = Dns.GetHostName(); hostBuffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(hostName); UdpClient newUdpClient = new UdpClient(); newUdpClient.Send(hostBuffer, hostBuffer.Length, notifyIP); } } And the code to receive the datagram is: public partial class Form1 : Form { byte[] receivedNotification = new byte[1024]; String notificationReceived; StringBuilder listBox; UdpClient udpServer; IPEndPoint remoteEndPoint; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); udpServer = new UdpClient(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 1234)); remoteEndPoint=null; startUdpListener1(); } public void startUdpListener1() { receivedNotification = udpServer.Receive(ref remoteEndPoint); notificationReceived = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(receivedNotification); listBox = new StringBuilder(this.listBox1.Text); listBox.AppendLine(notificationReceived); this.listBox1.Items.Add(listBox.ToString()); } } For the reception of the code I have a form that has only a listbox(listBox1). The problem here is that when i execute the code to receive, the program runs but the form isnt visible. However when I comment the function call( startUdpListener1() ), the purpose isnt served but the form is visible. Whats going wrong?

    Read the article

  • How do I join three tables with SQLalchemy and keeping all of the columns in one of the tables?

    - by jimka
    So, I have three tables: The class defenitions: engine = create_engine('sqlite://test.db', echo=False) SQLSession = sessionmaker(bind=engine) Base = declarative_base() class Channel(Base): __tablename__ = 'channel' id = Column(Integer, primary_key = True) title = Column(String) description = Column(String) link = Column(String) pubDate = Column(DateTime) class User(Base): __tablename__ = 'user' id = Column(Integer, primary_key = True) username = Column(String) password = Column(String) sessionId = Column(String) class Subscription(Base): __tablename__ = 'subscription' userId = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('user.id'), primary_key=True) channelId = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('channel.id'), primary_key=True) And the SQL commands that are executed to create them: CREATE TABLE subscription ( "userId" INTEGER NOT NULL, "channelId" INTEGER NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ("userId", "channelId"), FOREIGN KEY("userId") REFERENCES user (id), FOREIGN KEY("channelId") REFERENCES channel (id) ); CREATE TABLE user ( id INTEGER NOT NULL, username VARCHAR, password VARCHAR, "sessionId" VARCHAR, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); CREATE TABLE channel ( id INTEGER NOT NULL, title VARCHAR, description VARCHAR, link VARCHAR, "pubDate" TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); NOTE: I know user.username should be unique, need to fix that, and I'm not sure why SQLalchemy creates some row names with the double-quotes. And I'm trying to come up with a way to retrieve all of the channels, as well as an indication on what channels one particular user (identified by user.sessionId together with user.id) has a subscription on. For example, say we have four channels: channel1, channel2, channel3, channel4; a user: user1; who has a subscription on channel1 and channel4. The query for user1 would return something like: channel.id | channel.title | subscribed --------------------------------------- 1 channel1 True 2 channel2 False 3 channel3 False 4 channel4 True This is a best-case result, but since I have absolutely no clue as how to accomplish the subscribed column, I've been instead trying to get the particular users id in the rows where the user has a subscription and where a subscription is missing, just leave it blank. The database engine that I'm using together with SQLalchemy atm. is sqlite3 I've been scratching my head over this for two days now, I've no problem joining together all three by way of the subscription table but then all of the channels where the user does not have a subscription gets omitted. I hope I've managed to describe my problem sufficiently, thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why this code generates different numbers?

    - by frbry
    Hello, I have this function that creates a unique number for hard-disk and CPU combination. DWORD hw_hash() { char drv[4]; char szNameBuffer[256]; DWORD dwHddUnique; DWORD dwProcessorUnique; DWORD dwUniqueKey; char *sysDrive = getenv ("SystemDrive"); strcpy(drv, sysDrive); drv[2] = '\\'; drv[3] = 0; GetVolumeInformation(drv, szNameBuffer, 256, &dwHddUnique, NULL, NULL, NULL, NULL); SYSTEM_INFO si; GetSystemInfo(&si); dwProcessorUnique = si.dwProcessorType + si.wProcessorArchitecture + si.wProcessorRevision; dwUniqueKey = dwProcessorUnique + dwHddUnique; return dwUniqueKey; } It returns different numbers if I format my hard-disk and install a new Windows. Any ideas, why? Thank you. Edit: OK, Got it: This function returns the volume serial number that the operating system assigns when a hard disk is formatted. To programmatically obtain the hard disk's serial number that the manufacturer assigns, use the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) Win32_PhysicalMedia property SerialNumber. I should do more research before posting my problems online. Sorry to bother you, let's keep this here in case anybody else can need it.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >