Search Results

Search found 21356 results on 855 pages for 'check digit'.

Page 723/855 | < Previous Page | 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730  | Next Page >

  • My project is no longer used - how should I feel?

    - by flybywire
    For the last two years I have been developing and supporting an important project for a big customer. The project included mining data from the customer's existing systems, processing, and displaying and updating in the customer's public home page. The project was defined as crucial by the customer and I was payed good money and flown at the customer's expense to meet key employees. Some months ago, when the project was finished and in maintainance mode, I informed the customer that I am no longer interested in doing it as I had a new opportunity that would not be compatible with my existing customer. I was payed to train one of their employees, flown to meet him, make sure everything works and that he can be safely left in charge of the project. We finished in good terms after I complied with all my obligations and they payed me all they owed me. Some days ago, just out of curiosity, I entered to their website to see how the data continues to be updated and much to my dismay I discovered that the day after my contract was finished my system was "turned off" and it ceased to feed data to the public website. Let's put it clear, there is no issue of money or broken contract here. They are in they full right to do whatever they want with my software. But it is an issue of broken "programmer's ego". Should I feel bad about it (I do). Should I care and check out with my customer if they need some help? Or is it none of my matters?

    Read the article

  • Best way to sign data in web form with user certificate

    - by salgiza
    We have a C# web app where users will connect using a digital certificate stored in their browsers. From the examples that we have seen, verifying their identity will be easy once we enable SSL, as we can access the fields in the certificate, using Request.ClientCertificate, to check the user's name. We have also been requested, however, to sign the data sent by the user (a few simple fields and a binary file) so that we can prove, without doubt, which user entered each record in our database. Our first thought was creating a small text signature including the fields (and, if possible, the md5 of the file) and encrypt it with the private key of the certificate, but... As far as I know we can't access the private key of the certificate to sign the data, and I don't know if there is any way to sign the fields in the browser, or we have no other option than using a Java applet. And if it's the latter, how we would do it (Is there any open source applet we can use? Would it be better if we create one ourselves?) Of course, it would be better if there was any way to "sign" the fields received in the server, using the data that we can access from the user's certificate. But if not, any info on the best way to solve the problem would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Best way to use Google's hosted jQuery, but fall back to my hosted library on Google fail

    - by Nosredna
    What would be a good way to attempt to load the hosted jQuery at Google (or other Google hosted libs), but load my copy of jQuery if the Google attempt fails? I'm not saying Google is flaky. There are cases where the Google copy is blocked (apparently in Iran, for instance). Would I set up a timer and check for the jQuery object? What would be the danger of both copies coming through? Not really looking for answers like "just use the Google one" or "just use your own." I understand those arguments. I also understand that the user is likely to have the Google version cached. I'm thinking about fallbacks for the cloud in general. Edit: This part added... Since Google suggests using google.load to load the ajax libraries, and it performs a callback when done, I'm wondering if that's the key to serializing this problem. I know it sounds a bit crazy. I'm just trying to figure out if it can be done in a reliable way or not. Update: jQuery now hosted on Microsoft's CDN. http://www.asp.net/ajax/cdn/

    Read the article

  • Removing Item from Collection / Changing field of Object

    - by x Nuclear 213
    public void searchOwner(List<Appointments> appts, String owner) { Appointments theOne = null; for (Appointments temp : appts) { if (owner.equalsIgnoreCase(temp.owner.name)) { System.out.println(temp.data); temp.setResolved(true); } } } public void checkRemoval() { for (Appointments appts : appointments) { if (appts.resolved == true) { appointments.remove(appts); } //Iterator method used before enhanced for-loop public void checkRemovalI(){ Iterator<Appointments> it = appointments.iterator(); while(it.hasNext()){ if(it.next().resolved = true){ it.remove(); } } } So far this is where I am encountering my problem. I am trying to check the arrayList of Appointments and see if the field (resolved) is set to true, however I am receiving an ConcurrentModification exception during the searchOwner method when trying to set resolved = to true. I've tried using an Iterator in checkRemoval instead of an enhanced for-loop however that didn't help either. I really only need to get the part where the appointment is set to true to work, the checkRemoval seemed to be working early before implementing the changing of the boolean resolved. Any help will be greatly appreciated, thank you.

    Read the article

  • Why might one app connect to SQL backend OK and a second app fail if they share the same connectionstring?

    - by hawbsl
    Trying to figure out a SQL connection error 26 in our app. We've got two closely related apps Foo and FooAddIn. Foo is a Winforms app built in VS2010 and runs fine and connects fine to our SQLExpress back end. FooAddIn is an Outlook AddIn which references Foo.exe and connects to the same SQL Express instance. Or rather, it doesn't connect, instead reporting: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) Now, both apps share the same connectionstring and we've verified they really do share the same connectionstring. At this stage we're just testing from within the same developer machine, so the apps are on the same machine, going via the same VS2010 IDE. So a lot of the advice online for this error doesn't apply because the fact that Foo connects through to SQL Express tells us the database is there and available and can be reached. What else is there to check? One thing is that Foo and FooAddIn are running different runtime versions of System.Data (v2.0.50727 and v4.0.30319). Could that be a factor?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible that two requests at the same time double this code? (prevent double database entry)

    - by loostro
    1) The controller code (Symfony2 framework): $em = $this->getDoctrine()->getEntityManager(); // get latest toplist $last = $em->getRepository('RadioToplistBundle:Toplist')->findOneBy( array('number' => 'DESC') ); // get current year and week of the year $week = date('W'); $year = date('Y'); // if: // [case 1]: $last is null, meaning there are no toplists in the database // [case 2]: $last->getYear() or $last->getWeek() do not match current // year and week number, meaning that there are toplists in the // database, but not for current week // then: // create new toplist entity (for current week of current year) // else: // do nothing (return) if($last && $last->getYear() == $year && $last->getWeek() == $week) return; else { $new = new Toplist(); $new->setYear($year); $new->setWeek($week); $em->persist($new); $em->flush(); } This code is executed with each request to view toplist results (frontend) or list of toplists (backend). Anytime someone wants to access the toplist we first check if we should create a new toplist entity (for new week). 2) The question is: Is it possible that: User A goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:01 on Monday - the code should generate new entity the server slows down and it takes him 3 seconds to execute the code so new toplist entity is saved to database at 00:00:04 on Monday User B goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:02 on Monday at 00:00:02 there the toplist is not yet saved in database, thus UserB's request triggers the code to create another toplist entity And so.. after a few seconds we have 2 toplist entities for current week. Is this possible? How should I prevent this?

    Read the article

  • Converting string to a simple type

    - by zespri
    .Net framework contains a great class named Convert that allows conversion between simple types, DateTime type and String type. Also the class support conversion of the types implementing IConvertible interface. The class has been implemented in the very first version of .Net framework. There were a few things in the first .Net framework that were not done quite right. For example .Parse methods on simple types would throw an exception if the string couldn't be parsed and there would be no way to check if exception is going to be thrown in advance. A future version of .Net Framework removed this deficiency by introducing the TryParse method that resolved this problem. The Convert class dates back to time of the old Parse method, so the ChangeType method on this class in implemented old style - if conversion can't be performed an exception is thrown. Take a look at the following code: public static T ConvertString<T>(string s, T @default) { try { return (T)Convert.ChangeType(s, typeof(T), CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } catch (Exception) { return @default; } } This code basically does what I want. However I would pretty much like to avoid the ugly try/catch here. I'm sure, that similar to TryParse, there is a modern method of rewriting this code without the catch-all. Could you suggest one?

    Read the article

  • HTML input not working correctly with AJAX update panels used else where on page

    - by Sean P
    I have some update panels on my page that do some asyncpostbacks to keep some dropdownlists correctly populated. My problem is that on my page i have an HTML input that is handling some file uploads. With the AJAX on the page with asyncpostbacks, and while i step through my code behind, the files arent being uploaded. Using a postbacktrigger (non-async) is not possible because of my layout. Here is my code: <div id="divFileInputs" runat="server"> <input id="file1" name="fileInput" type="file" runat="server" size="50" style="width: 50em" onfocus="AddFileInput()" class="textbox" /></div> <select id="selectFileList" name="ListBox1" size="5" style="width: 50em; text-align: left;" class="textbox" /> <input id="RemoveAttachmentButton" type="button" value="Remove" onclick="RemoveFileInput()" class="removebutton " /> </div> Here is my code behind: Protected Sub CopyAttachments(ByVal issueId As String) Dim files As HttpFileCollection = Request.Files Dim myStream As System.IO.Stream Dim service As New SubmitService.Service For i As Integer = 0 To files.Count - 1 Dim postedFile As HttpPostedFile = files(i) Dim fileNameWithoutPath As String = System.IO.Path.GetFileName(postedFile.FileName) If fileNameWithoutPath.Length > 0 And issueId.Length > 0 Then Dim fileLength As Integer = postedFile.ContentLength Dim fileContents(fileLength) As Byte ' Read the file into the byte array. Send it to the web service. myStream = postedFile.InputStream myStream.Read(fileContents, 0, fileLength) service.ClearQuestAttachToIssue(issueId, fileNameWithoutPath, fileContents) End If Next service = Nothing End Sub When I put a breakpoint in at the declaration of service and then check the value of "files", the count is 0. I am expecting it to be 2 when i have one file uploaded. Anyone know how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • Beginner Ques::How to delete records permanently in case of linked tables?

    - by Serenity
    Let's say I have these 2 tables QuesType and Ques:- QuesType QuestypeID|QuesType |Active ------------------------------------ 101 |QuesType1 |True 102 |QuesType2 |True 103 |XXInActiveXX |False Ques QuesID|Ques|Answer|QUesTypeID|Active ------------------------------------ 1 |Ques1|Ans1 |101 |True 2 |Ques2|Ans2 |102 |True 3 |Ques3|Ans3 |101 |True In the QuesType Table:- QuesTypeID is a Primary key In the Ques Table:- QuesID is a Primary key and QuesType ID is the Foreign Key that refernces QuesTypeID from QuesType Table Now I am unable to delete records from QuesType Table, I can only make QuesType inactive by setting Active=False. I am unable to delete QuesTypes permanently because of the Foreign key relation it has with Ques Table. So , I just set the column Active=false and those Questypes then don't show on my grid wen its binded. What I want to do is be able to delete any QuesType permamnently. Now it can only be deleted if its not being used anywhere in the Ques table, right? So to delete any QuesType permanently I thot this is what I could do:- In the grid that displays QuesTypes, I have this check box for Active and a button for delete.What I thot was, when a user makes some QuesType inactive then OnCheckChanged() event will run and that will have the code to delete all the Questions in Ques table that are using that QuesTypeID. Then on the QuesType grid, that QuesType would show as Deactivated and only then can a user delete it permanently. Am I thinking correctly? Currently in my DeleteQuesType Stored Procedure what I am doing is:- Setting the Active=false and Setting QuesTye= some string like XXInactiveXX Is there any other way?

    Read the article

  • What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    - by Daniel DiPaolo
    We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    Read the article

  • SpringMvc java.lang.NullPointerException When Posting Form To Server

    - by dev_darin
    I have a form with a user name field on it when i tab out of the field i use a RESTFUL Web Service that makes a call to a handler method in the controller. The method makes a call to a DAO class that checks the database if the user name exists. This works fine, however when the form is posted to the server i call the same exact function i would call in the handler method however i get a java.lang.NullPointerException when it accesses the class that makes a call to the DAO object. So it does not even access the DAO object the second time. I have exception handlers around the calls in all my classes that makes calls. Any ideas as to whats happening here why i would get the java.lang.NullPointerException the second time the function is called.Does this have anything to do with Spring instantiating DAO classes using a Singleton method or something to that effect? What can be done to resolve this? This is what happens the First Time The Method is called using the Web Service(this is suppose to happen): 13011 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - Inside jdbcOfficersDAO 13031 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL query 13034 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL statement [SELECT userName FROM crimetrack.tblofficers WHERE userName = ?] 13071 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Fetching JDBC Connection from DataSource 13496 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils - Setting SQL statement parameter value: column index 1, parameter value [adminz], value class [java.lang.String], SQL type unknown 13534 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Returning JDBC Connection to DataSource 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - No username was found in exception 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz does NOT exist The Second time When The Form Is 'Post' and a validation method handles the form and calls the same method the web service would call: 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - UserName is not null so going to check if its valid for :adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - User Name in try.....catch block is adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - Inside Do UserNameExist about to validate with username : adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz EXCEPTION OCCURED java.lang.NullPointerException

    Read the article

  • [nHibernate] casting string to bool using nHibernate Criteria

    - by code-zoop
    I have an nHibernate query using Criteria, and I am trying to cast a string to bool in the query itself. I have done the same with casting a string to int, and that works well (the "DataField" property is "1" as a string): var result = Session .CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq((Projections.Cast(NHibernateUtil.Int32, Projections.Property("DataField"), 1)) .List<Car>(); tx.Commit(); But I am trying to do the same with bool, but I do not get the expected result: var result = Session .CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq((Projections.Cast(NHibernateUtil.bool, Projections.Property("DataField"), true)) .List<Car>(); tx.Commit(); "DataField" is the string "True", but the result in an empty list, where it should contain 100 elements with the "DataField" property string set to "True". I have tried with the string "true", and "1", but the result is still an empty List. [EDIT] As Commented below, I could check for the string "True" or "False", but I would say this is a more general question than just for the Boolean. Note that the idea is to have some sort of key value representation of the data, where the value can be different data types. I need the value table to contain all data, so storing the data as string seems like the cleanest solution! I have been able to use the method above to store both int and double as string, and to the cast in the query, but I have not succeeded using the same method for DateDime and Boolean. And for DateTime it is crucial to have the actual DateTime object. How can I make the cast from string to bool, and string to DateTime work in the queries? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Does anyone still believe in the Capability Maturity Model for Software?

    - by Ed Guiness
    Ten years ago when I first encountered the CMM for software I was, I suppose like many, struck by how accurately it seemed to describe the chaotic "level one" state of software development in many businesses, particularly with its reference to reliance on heroes. It also seemed to provide realistic guidance for an organisation to progress up the levels improving their processes. But while it seemed to provide a good model and realistic guidance for improvement, I never really witnessed an adherence to CMM having a significant positive impact on any organisation I have worked for, or with. I know of one large software consultancy that claims CMM level 5 - the highest level - when I can see first hand that their processes are as chaotic, and the quality of their software products as varied, as other, non-CMM businesses. So I'm wondering, has anyone seen a real, tangible benefit from adherence to process improvement according to CMM? And if you have seen improvement, do you think that the improvement was specifically attributable to CMM, or would an alternative approach (such as six-sigma) have been equally or more beneficial? Does anyone still believe? As an aside, for those who haven't yet seen it, check out this funny-because-its-true parody

    Read the article

  • .NET Application with SQL Server CE Database

    - by blu
    I just started using SQL Server CE 3.5 in my WinForms Application (C# in VS 2008 SP1). I've noticed a couple of interesting things I'd like some input on: 1. Copying of sdf file to bin My sdf file is located inside of an Infrastructure project that houses my repository implementations. When the application is first debugged the sdf was copied to debug\bin. This is where all future reads/writes operate. At some point when this is deployed the file will go into a data folder using Click Once, but during development where should I be putting this sdf? Is having it in the bin typical, or are there any other recommendations? 2. Updating sdf It appears that writing to the sdf file does not immediately update the database. I am using Linq-to-SQL and am calling SubmitChanges, but on read the values are not returned. However if I close the application and re-open it the added value is there. Is there an additional flush step I need to take? What is causing this, file locking, buffering, something else? Update 3. Unit Tests I have an MS test project, and the sdf file is not being copied to the correct output directory. I have the settings: Build Action: Content Copy to Output Directory: Copy Always The message is: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException: The database file cannot be found. Check the path to the database. I appreciate any guidance on these questions, thanks. If there is a tutorial other than what is on MSDN that you know about that would be great too. Working with CE is proving to be a difficult task and I welcome any help I can find.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Web Service returning XML result and nodevalue is always null

    - by kburnsmt
    I have an ASP.NET web service which returns an XMLDocument. The web service is called from a Firefox extension using XMLHttpRequest. var serviceRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); serviecRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "text/xml; charset=utf-8"); I consume the result using responseXML. So far so good. But when I iterate through the XML I retrieve nodeValue - nodeValue is always null. When I check the nodeType the nodeType is type 1 (Node.ELEMENT_NODE == 1). Node.NodeValue states all nodes of type Element will return null. In my webservice I have created a string with the XML i.e. xml="Hank" I then create the XmlDocument XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.LoadXML(string); I know I can specify the nodetype using using CreateNode. But when I am just building the xml by appending string values is there a way to change the nodeType to Text so Node.nodeValue will be "content of the text node".

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

    Read the article

  • Error in FireFox Loading Images

    - by Brian
    Hello, Details of the app are: ASP.NET project, local web server, hosted in IIS locally, using latest FireFox, uses forms authentication. I'm getting a logon user name/pwd box when trying to access my local web server. Using the net panel in firebug, I see the issue is with an animated GIF, showing up as 401 unauthorized. I check the details and this is what I see for this URL: http://localhost/<virtual>/Images/loading.gif I'm getting the following: Response Headers: Server Microsoft-IIS/5.1 Date Thu, 17 Jun 2010 19:02:58 GMT WWW-Authenticate Negotiate NTLM Connection close Content-Length 4046 Content-Type text/html Request headers: Host localhost User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 ( .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET4.0E) Accept image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Referer <correct referer> Cookie ASP.NET_SessionId=ux4bt345qjz4p3u1wm1zgmez; .ASPXFormsAuth=33F12B444040827B8ABF154EE4EDE43B6CA532432EB846987B355097E00256DF0955C76A37BC593EAA961747BF1CC1D8949FF63C6F2CA69D77213EB15B4EDFAF57A83D9E1F88AB8D821C3A09C07EA2EE; .ASPROLES=qTFrGteJydYAE3118WGXbhJthTDdjdtuQ06t4bYVrM1BwIfcEHU1HhnEcs7TqSOaV-fIN5MH3uO57oNVWXDvrhkZ8gQuURuUk_K0TpoR-DEFXuF953Gl9aIilKAdV211jutMNQmhkt2rdPE2tEhHs3pz953fADxjAOyZl7K-AqNvMk3yqJshhKHhJIf-ALMhWIYlrrKy0WsYznUwh3WCtPfzEBD5XzmXU8HVMJ2-ArLjBISuegvSmxvK1PuXBPhoMRMi9Ynaw6xi9ypGk-R6uN0ljOMCGkB2-20WUlFuP0xWTfac_zCTDT00pbpnyjtygnM-LShOXTrZ_mhoRuXfKYEYSodNihwD6SRr19Nm-8uZ5BQ-W81svM17S2C0vc0FaxtiuAcN_vHcsN1OEJeCuVfRjeqzo9xWEViupP3Vh6aOcCm6yrftgw5x94piuCJO7tCfXjJAw5RVUWDBBWv5gmid171F0k-_XZ0CSv7Gm2Eai1BRfogAqQ_MV3tyPv7XVEyJXRXqYGlf1JpkfTW8S8On4E05v9gx9RcdnKHZebiOZwbP1_ho9nG7pMwXysbhjxtxwZ-zLx-v11_rhZw_i5m7iNcLtt4BbFU-sb_crzMpCKGywHIc452Zp1E0kx1Rfx-2eUnaiLiCfGed-QqelO88NYTpJHttGKEfhFrDgmaIXZPJRtuZ-GrS6t3Vla-8qDAVb1p6ovPwoVT4z4BhQyFsk542gDx-uQDw6D0B6zo7lXfcOjtolUxDcLbETsNlYsexZaxFpRSbw7M1ldwL_k92P9wLPlv9mw4NtyhXKJesMu7GjquZuoBN3hO00AqJEe1tKFFtfrvbE5ZH7uNu7myNdtlxRPe3WZe7qukbqHo1 Pragma no-cache Cache-Control no-cache Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to test whether a char is NOT in a string? (java, junit)

    - by JB
    As title says, im having trouble with my junit tests passing for checking if a character is not in a string and how to check if an empty string doesnt have a character. here is the method i have: public static boolean isThere(String s, char value){ for(int x = 0; x <= s.length(); x++){ if(s.charAt(x) == value){ return true; } else if(s.length() == 0){ return false; } } return false; And here is the junit test: public void testIsThere() { { String sVal = "Jeff George"; boolean hasA = StringMethods.isThere(sVal,'e'); assertTrue(hasA); boolean hasE = StringMethods.isThere(sVal, 'o'); assertTrue(hasE); boolean notIn = StringMethods.isThere(sVal,'b'); assertTrue(notIn); } { String sVal = ""; boolean nothingIn = StringMethods.isThere(sVal,'a'); assertFalse(nothingIn); boolean notIn = StringMethods.isThere(sVal,'b'); assertFalse(notIn); } } Thank you very much, appreciated

    Read the article

  • Initializing own plugins

    - by jgauffin
    I've written a few jquery plugins for my client. I want to write a function which would initialize each plugin which have been loaded. Example: <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin1.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin2.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.initializer.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> Here I've loaded plugin1 and plugin2. Plugin1 should be attached to all links with class name 'ajax' and plugin2 to all divs with class name 'test2': $('document').ready(function(){ $('a.ajax').plugin1(); $('div.test2').plugin2(); } I know that I can use jQuery().pluginName to check if a plugin exists. But I want to have a leaner way. Can all loaded plugins register a initialize function in an array or something like that which I in document.ready can iterate through and invoke? like: //in plugin1.js myCustomPlugins['plugin1'] = function() { $('a.ajax').plugin1(); }; // and in the initializer script: myCustomPlugins.each(function() { this(); }; Guess it all boiled down to three questions: How do I use a jquery "global" array? How do I iterate through that array to invoke registered methods Are there a better approach?

    Read the article

  • Runtime Error 1004 using Select with several workbooks

    - by Johaen
    I have an Excel workbook which pulls out data from two other workbooks. Since the data changes hourly there is the possibility that this macro is used more than one time a day for the same data. So I just want to select all previous data to this date period and want to delete them. Later on the data will be copied in anyway. But as soon as I want to use WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select the code stopes with Error 1004 Application-defined or object-defined error. Followed just a snippet of the code with the relevant part. What is wrong here? 'Set source workbook Dim currentWb As Workbook Set currentWb = ThisWorkbook Set WBSH = currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") 'Query which data from the tracking files shoud get pulled out to the file CheckDate = Application.InputBox(("From which date you want to get data?" & vbCrLf & "Format: yyyy/mm/dd "), "Tracking data", Format(Date - 1, "yyyy/mm/dd")) 'states the last entry which is done ; know where to start ; currentWb File With currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") lastRow = .Range("D" & .Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row lastRow = lastRow + 1 End With 'just last 250 entries get checked since not so many entries are made in one week j = lastRow - 250 'Check if there is already data to the look up date in the analyses sheet and if so deletes these records Do j = j + 1 'Exit Sub if there is no data to compare to prevent overflow If WBSH.Cells(j + 1, "C").Value = "" Then Exit Do End If Loop While WBSH.Cells(j, "C").Value < CheckDate If j <> lastRow - 1 Then 'WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select 'Selection.ClearContents End If Thank you!

    Read the article

  • JavaScript Keycode 46 is DEL Function key or (.) period sign?

    - by Omar
    Im writing some logic in JavaScript using jquery, where i must check the input content against a REGEX pattern ex: "^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$" //Alpha-numeric and _ The logic is almost done, i just have a little problem filtering the function key DEL, my logic goes like this: var FunctionsKey = new Array(8, 9, 13, 16, 35, 36, 37, 39, 46); function keypressValidation(key) { if (config.regexExp != null) { if ($.inArray(key, FunctionsKey) != -1) { return true; } else { var keyChar = String.fromCharCode(key); return RegexCheck(keyChar); } } return true; } If the KeyCode is one of those in the array, i let it pass, if not i get the char and compare it against the REGEX. The problem is: in some Browsers the DEL and '.' (period sign) have the same key Code 46. So is there a better logic to filter the function keys or must i write a condition for that case, maybe removing the 46 from the array and try to convert it to char and if is (.) let it go to the Regex function if not let it pass? The other question will be are there more shared Key Codes in some browsers? EDIT: My suggested solution wont work because it doesn't matter which key the user pressed (DEL or period) i always get (.) as CHAR at least on OPERA and FF =(.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Anonymous Functions and Global Variables

    - by Jonathan Swift
    I thought I would try and be clever and create a Wait function of my own (I realise there are other ways to do this). So I wrote: var interval_id; var countdowntimer = 0; function Wait(wait_interval) { countdowntimer = wait_interval; interval_id = setInterval(function() { --countdowntimer <=0 ? clearInterval(interval_id) : null; }, 1000); do {} while (countdowntimer >= 0); } // Wait a bit: 5 secs Wait(5); This all works, except for the infinite looping. Upon inspection, if I take the While loop out, the anonymous function is entered 5 times, as expected. So clearly the global variable countdowntimer is decremented. However, if I check the value of countdowntimer, in the While loop, it never goes down. This is despite the fact that the anonymous function is being called whilst in the While loop! Clearly, somehow, there are two values of countdowntimer floating around, but why?

    Read the article

  • Keeping track of dependency revisions

    - by Samaursa
    I have a project with several dependencies that are in various repositories. Each time I commit changes to my project, I make sure I write the revision numbers of all the dependent repositories so that in the event I ever have to come back to this revision (let's call it 5), I can immediately know which revisions of the dependent repositories revision 5 is guaranteed to work with, update the dependencies to the specified revisions, compile and run the project. So for example if I have: Dep1 @ Revisions 10 Dep2 @ Revisions 20 Dep3 @ Revisions 10 Proj @ Revisions 35 And let's say that when Proj was on revision 17, the Dep1 revision was 5, Dep2 revision was 13 and Dep3 revision was 3. So in my SVN logs, I recorded something like this: !! Works with Dep1 Rev 5, Dep2 Rev 13, Dep3 Rev 3 To me this seems primitive and makes me believe that there is a better way to do it. Now in one of my other questions, Ivy Dependency Manager has been recommended. I have not looked at it in detail yet (seems complicated and yet another thing I must learn). To me it seems like the log of SVN (and Mercurial etc.) could have been split into Log and Dependencies (if any) where the latter could be switched off if there were no dependencies (unless of course I am unaware of an easier/better solution). This would allow for a cleaner log that maybe even warned at each new commit to check the previously defined dependencies again and make sure they have not changed. So, I was wondering how everyone manages this situations and if you have any tips, techniques, programs, suggestions that you can offer. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Zend XML parsing

    - by Vincent
    I have an xml file called error.xml like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <errorList> <error> <code>0</code> <desc>Fault</desc> <ufmessage>Fault</ufmessage> </error> <error> <code>1</code> <desc>Unknown</desc> <ufmessage>Unknown</ufmessage> </error> <error> <code>2</code> <desc>Internal Error</desc> <ufmessage>Internal Error</ufmessage> </error> </errorList> I am using Zend and have the above xml file stored in a Zend Registry variable called "apperrors" like this: $apperrors = new Zend_Config_Xml( 'error.xml'); Zend_Registry::set('apperrors', $apperrors->errorList); If my code throws an error code of 2, I want a snippet of code to check the error code with "code" key in "apperrors" array and echo the ufmessage value corresponding to it. How can I do this? Ex: //Error thrown by the code. Hardcoded for now... $errorThrownByCode = 2; //Get the Zend Registry value for all errors $errorList = Zend_Registry::get('apperrors'); //Write some code to compare $errorThrownByCode with $errorList->error->code //If found echo $errorList->error->ufmessage, else echo "An Unknown error occured"; Thanks

    Read the article

  • Ajax request not receiving xml from Django

    - by amougeot
    I have a Django server which handles requests to a URL which will return some HTML for use in an image gallery. I can navigate to the URL and the browser will display the HTML that is returned, but I can't get that same HTML by doing an AJAX call (using jQuery) to the same URL. This is the view that generates the response: def gallery_images(request, gallery_name): return render_to_response('galleryimages.html', {'images': get_images_of_gallery(gallery_name)}, mimetype='text/xml') This is the 'galleryimages.html' template: {% for image in images %} <div id="{{image.name}}big"> <div class="actualImage" style="background-image:url({{image.image.name}});"> <h1>{{image.caption|safe}}</h1> </div> </div> {% endfor %} This is the jQuery call I am making: $("#allImages").load("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web"); However, this loads nothing into my #allImages div. I've used firebug and ran jQuery's Ajax method .get("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web") and firebug says that the response text is completely empty. When I check my Django server log, this is the entry I see for when I navigate to the URL manually, through my browser: [16/Jan/2010 17:34:10] "GET /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 This is the entry in the server log for when I make the AJAX call: [16/Jan/2010 17:36:19] "OPTIONS /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 Why does the AJAX request not get the xml that my Django page is serving?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730  | Next Page >