Search Results

Search found 22000 results on 880 pages for 'worker process'.

Page 723/880 | < Previous Page | 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730  | Next Page >

  • WCF Service Throttling

    - by Mubashar Ahmad
    Dear All I have a WCF Service Deployed in a Console App with BasicHTTPBinding and SSL enabled on port using NetSH command and more over following attribute is set as well. [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] And also i have set the Throttling behavior as <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="2147483647" maxConcurrentSessions="2147483647" maxConcurrentInstances="2147483647" /> On the other hand i have created a Test Client(for load test) that initiates multiple clients simultaneously(multiple threads) and performs transactions on server. everything seems fine and working properly but on server the CPU utilization is doesn't grow so i added some logging to view the number of concurrent calls to the server and found that its never went over 6. i have reviewed the performance counter logging code more than twice and it seems fine to me. So i want to ask where is the problem in this situation and one more thing i haven't specified any kind of ContextMode or ConcurrencyMode yet. After this Post I noticed that whenever i start another Intance of Test Client my concurrent Server Calls counter increase to 2 like if i am running only 1 instance the maximum Concurrent Rcvd Calls will be 2 and if there are two instance the same value goes to 4 and so on. Is there any limit of Number of WCF Calls from once process? Looking for help Mubashar *Added on 17-March******************* Today i ran another test with one test client(with 50 concurrent users) on the same machine on which the server is running this time i am getting exact result what i wanted it to show i.e. Maximum concurrent Calls Rcvd by Server = 50 but i need to do it the same on others machines as well. Can anybody help me on this.

    Read the article

  • HttpServletRequest#login() not working in Java.

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, j_security_check just doesn't seem enough for me to perform login process. So, instead of submitting the form to j_security_check i created my own servlet and in that i am programmatically trying to do login. This works but i am not able to redirect to my restricted resource. Can anybody tell me what can be the problem? This is processRequest method of my servlet :- protected void processRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/html;charset=UTF-8"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); try { String strUsername = request.getParameter("txtusername"); String strPassword = request.getParameter("txtpassword"); if(strUsername == null || strPassword == null || strUsername.equals("") || strPassword.equals("")) throw new Exception("Username and/or password missing."); request.login(strUsername, strPassword); System.out.println("Login succeeded!!"); if(request.isUserInRole(ROLES.ADMIN.getValue())){//enum System.out.println("Found in Admin Role"); response.sendRedirect("/Admin/home.jsf"); } else if (request.isUserInRole(ROLES.GENERAL.getValue())) response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); else //guard throw new Exception("No role for user " + request.getRemoteUser()); }catch(Exception ex){ //patch work why there needs to be blogger here? System.out.println("Invalid username and/or password!!"); response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); }finally { out.close(); } } Everything works fine and i can even see message "Found in Admin Role" but problem is even after authenticating i am not able to redirect my request to some other page. Please help geeks.

    Read the article

  • HttpRequest.BeginWebRequest not executing asynchronously

    - by Shawn Simon
    I have the following code: Private Function CreateRequest() As HttpWebRequest Dim request As HttpWebRequest = HttpWebRequest.Create(_url) request.Method = "POST" request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Dim postData As String = String.Join("&", GetPostData().Select(Function(s) String.Format("{0}={1}", s.Key, HttpUtility.UrlEncode(s.Value))).ToArray) Dim data As Byte() = (New ASCIIEncoding).GetBytes(postData) request.Timeout = _maxTimeoutSeconds * 1000 Dim stream = request.GetRequestStream stream.Write(data, 0, data.Length) stream.Close() Return request End Function Public Sub SendAsync(ByVal callback As Action(Of ResponseBase)) Dim request = CreateRequest() _attemptCount += 1 Dim reqID As Integer If _loggingContext IsNot Nothing Then Try reqID = Log.NotesRequest(_url.ToString, GetPostData, _loggingContext) Catch ex As Exception ErrorTracker.LogError(ex) End Try End If Dim responseState As New ResponseState responseState.LoggedNotesRequestID = reqID responseState.Request = request responseState.Callback = callback Dim response = request.BeginGetResponse(New AsyncCallback(AddressOf RespCallback), responseState) End Sub Private Sub RespCallback(ByVal ar As IAsyncResult) Dim responseState As ResponseState = CType(ar.AsyncState, ResponseState) ' Process response... I set up the request to go to a mock server which sleeps for 30 seconds. When I call BeginGetResponse, the application just waits at that line of code for the response. I want it to carry on with the app, and then just run the callback whenever it finishes. This code is run from a web page, and my callback just logs the response and sends an email. I don't want to use to have to wait for the response.

    Read the article

  • Storing a digital signature for bookings on a web based system

    - by Duncan
    I have a web based bookings system built for a UK higher education client to allow students to sign out equipment (laptops, camera's etc). It's been in use successfully for a couple of years, in the current workflow equipment is collected and the booking is printed, signed by the student and kept until the equipment is returned. They are emailed a pdf copy of the booking and reminders if equipment is outstanding. Students can login and prebook equipment using their university LDAP credentials, the booking is then authorised by staff for later collection, but can also walk in and have equipment booked out by staff. They would like to remove the signed paper part of the process and replace this with some sort of digital signature. The suggestion was a graphics tablet but with a web based system this would require a local software package and in my view be impractical. My thought is that students would enter their LDAP username and password upon collection of the equipment, verifying their identity and effectively digitally signing the booking. My question is what would be best to store as a signature or whether to simply authenticate the user and use a boolean flag to indicate that this has been done could be deemed sufficient?

    Read the article

  • Python dictionary formating

    - by None
    I made a python function to convert dictionaries to formatted strings. My goal was to have a function take a dictionary for input and turn it into a string that looked good. For example, something like "{'text':'Hello', 'blah':{'hi':'hello','hello':'hi'}}" would be turned into this: text: Hello blah: hi: hello hello: hi This is the code I wrote: indent = 0 def format_dict(d): global indent res = "" for key in d: res += (" " * indent) + key + ":\n" if not type(d[key]) == type({}): res += (" " * (indent + 1)) + d[key] + "\n" else: indent += 1 res += format_dict(d[key]) indent -= 1 return res #test print format_dict({'key with text content':'some text', 'key with dict content': {'cheese': 'text', 'item':{'Blah': 'Hello'}}}) It works like a charm. It checks if the dictionary item is another dictionary, in which it process that, or something else, in which it would use that as the value. The problem is: I can't have a dictionary and a string together in a dictionary item. For example: if I wanted blah: hi hello: hello again there'd be no way to do it. Is there some way I could have something like a list item in a dictionary. Something like this "{'blah':{'hi', 'hello':'hello again'}}"? And if you provide a solution could you tell me how I would need to change my code (if it did require changes). Note: I am using python 2.5

    Read the article

  • JVM CMS Garbage Collecting Issues

    - by jlintz
    I'm seeing the following symptoms on an application's GC log file with the Concurrent Mark-Sweep collector: 4031.248: [CMS-concurrent-preclean-start] 4031.250: [CMS-concurrent-preclean: 0.002/0.002 secs] [Times: user=0.00 sys=0.00, real=0.00 secs] 4031.250: [CMS-concurrent-abortable-preclean-start] CMS: abort preclean due to time 4036.346: [CMS-concurrent-abortable-preclean: 0.159/5.096 secs] [Times: user=0.00 sys=0.01, real=5.09 secs] 4036.346: [GC[YG occupancy: 55964 K (118016 K)]4036.347: [Rescan (parallel) , 0.0641200 secs]4036.411: [weak refs processing, 0.0001300 secs]4036.411: [class unloading, 0.0041590 secs]4036.415: [scrub symbol & string tables, 0.0053220 secs] [1 CMS-remark: 16015K(393216K)] 71979K(511232K), 0.0746640 secs] [Times: user=0.08 sys=0.00, real=0.08 secs] The preclean process keeps aborting continously. I've tried adjusting CMSMaxAbortablePrecleanTime to 15 seconds, from the default of 5, but that has not helped. The current JVM options are as follows... Djava.awt.headless=true -Xms512m -Xmx512m -Xmn128m -XX:MaxPermSize=128m -XX:+HeapDumpOnOutOfMemoryError -XX:+UseParNewGC -XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -XX:BiasedLockingStartupDelay=0 -XX:+DoEscapeAnalysis -XX:+UseBiasedLocking -XX:+EliminateLocks -XX:+CMSParallelRemarkEnabled -verbose:gc -XX:+PrintGCTimeStamps -XX:+PrintGCDetails -XX:+PrintHeapAtGC -Xloggc:gc.log -XX:+CMSClassUnloadingEnabled -XX:+CMSPermGenPrecleaningEnabled -XX:CMSInitiatingOccupancyFraction=50 -XX:ReservedCodeCacheSize=64m -Dnetworkaddress.cache.ttl=30 -Xss128k It appears the concurrent-abortable-preclean never gets a chance to run. I read through http://blogs.sun.com/jonthecollector/entry/did_you_know which had a suggestion of enabling CMSScavengeBeforeRemark, but the side effects of pausing did not seem ideal. Could anyone offer up any suggestions? Also I was wondering if anyone had a good reference for grokking the CMS GC logs, in particular this line: [1 CMS-remark: 16015K(393216K)] 71979K(511232K), 0.0746640 secs] Not clear on what memory regions those numbers are referring to.

    Read the article

  • How do I keep Visual Studio's Windows Forms Designer from deleting controls?

    - by Sören Kuklau
    With several forms of mine, I occasionally run into the following issue: I edit the form using the designer (Visual Studio 2008, Windows Forms, .NET 2.0, VB.NET) to add components, only to find out later that some minor adjustments were made (e.g. the form's size is suddenly changed by a few pixels), and controls get deleted. This happens silently — event-handling methods automatically have their Handles suffix removed, too, so they never get called, and there's no compiler error. I only notice much later or not at all, because I'm working on a different area in the form. As an example, I have a form with a SplitContainer containing an Infragistics UltraListView to the left, and an UltraTabControl to the right. I added a new tab, and controls within, and they worked fine. I later on found out that the list view's scrollbar was suddenly invisible, due to its size being off, and at least one control was removed from a different tab that I hadn't been working on. Is this a known issue with the WinForms Designer, or with Infragistics? I use version control, of course, so I can compare the changes and merge the deleted code back in, but it's a tedious process that shouldn't be necessary. Are there ways to avoid this? Is there a good reason for this to occur? One clue is that the control that was removed may have code (such as a Load event handler) that expects to be run in run time, not design time, and may be throwing an exception. Could this cause Visual Studio to remove the control?

    Read the article

  • Komodo Edit 5.2 Django Template Syntax Error - Info: <head> previously mentioned

    - by Lance McNearney
    I am using Komodo Edit 5.2 for editing html and Django template files. It always shows a single syntax error inside the first {% block %} area on the first tag of my template. For example: {% extends "base.html" %} {% load i18n %} {% block title %}Hello{% endblock %} {% block content %} <p>Hello</p> <-- Syntax error on this single line <p>Other lines have no errors</p> {% endblock %} {% block footer %} <p>No errors here</p> {% endblock %} The syntax error given is: Info: <head> previously mentioned I know for a fact that the error has nothing to do with my <head> tag since it occurs in the base template and in child templates (and the IDE isn't smart enough to process the base templates when in a child, etc.) All of my html tags are closed properly and everything validates for XHTML strict. This forum post mentions a similar problem but offers no solution (and may be specific to Smarty syntax highlighting). Any ideas on how to resolve this error (or disable it from being shown)?

    Read the article

  • SMO restore of SQL database doesn't overwrite

    - by Tom H.
    I'm trying to restore a database from a backup file using SMO. If the database does not already exist then it works fine. However, if the database already exists then I get no errors, but the database is not overwritten. The "restore" process still takes just as long, so it looks like it's working and doing a restore, but in the end the database has not changed. I'm doing this in Powershell using SMO. The code is a bit long, but I've included it below. You'll notice that I do set $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true. Also, I use a try-catch block and report on any errors (I hope), but none are returned. Any obvious mistakes? Is it possible that I'm not reporting some error and it's being hidden from me? Thanks for any help or advice that you can give! function Invoke-SqlRestore { param( [string]$backup_file_name, [string]$server_name, [string]$database_name, [switch]$norecovery=$false ) # Get a new connection to the server [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server]$server = New-SMOconnection -server_name $server_name Write-Host "Starting restore to $database_name on $server_name." Try { $backup_device = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.BackupDeviceItem") ($backup_file_name, "File") # Get local paths to the Database and Log file locations If ($server.Settings.DefaultFile.Length -eq 0) {$database_path = $server.Information.MasterDBPath } Else { $database_path = $server.Settings.DefaultFile} If ($server.Settings.DefaultLog.Length -eq 0 ) {$database_log_path = $server.Information.MasterDBLogPath } Else { $database_log_path = $server.Settings.DefaultLog} # Load up the Restore object settings $restore = New-Object Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Restore $restore.Action = 'Database' $restore.Database = $database_name $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true if ($norecovery.IsPresent) { $restore.NoRecovery = $true } Else { $restore.Norecovery = $false } $restore.Devices.Add($backup_device) # Get information from the backup file $restore_details = $restore.ReadBackupHeader($server) $data_files = $restore.ReadFileList($server) # Restore all backup files ForEach ($data_row in $data_files) { $logical_name = $data_row.LogicalName $physical_name = Get-FileName -path $data_row.PhysicalName $restore_data = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RelocateFile") $restore_data.LogicalFileName = $logical_name if ($data_row.Type -eq "D") { # Restore Data file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_path + "\" + $physical_name } Else { # Restore Log file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_log_path + "\" + $physical_name } [Void]$restore.RelocateFiles.Add($restore_data) } $restore.SqlRestore($server) # If there are two files, assume the next is a Log if ($restore_details.Rows.Count -gt 1) { $restore.Action = [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RestoreActionType]::Log $restore.FileNumber = 2 $restore.SqlRestore($server) } } Catch { $ex = $_.Exception Write-Output $ex.message $ex = $ex.InnerException while ($ex.InnerException) { Write-Output $ex.InnerException.message $ex = $ex.InnerException } Throw $ex } Finally { $server.ConnectionContext.Disconnect() } Write-Host "Restore ended without any errors." }

    Read the article

  • Spring Security: Multiple Logins to the same resources: Form Login + Facebook Connect (uid, sessionK

    - by Daxon
    To begin I know about http://blog.kadirpekel.com/2009/11/09/facebook-connect-integration-with-spring-security/ The only problem is that it completely replaces the Form Login with Facebook Connect. I have the native form login in place, I also have Facebook Connect in place, Upon gathering user information I link it to a native account but without a password. At that point I would like to call a link or method to start process of going into the Spring Security Filter Chain. Here is the source code that works, but am trying to modify. It contains all the files I'm taking about. Now from what I understand I need to add a custom FacebookAuthenticationProvider so that my AuthenticationManager knows about it. <bean id="facebookAuthenticationProvider" class="org.springframework.security.facebook.FacebookAuthenticationProvider"> </bean> <security:authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <security:authentication-provider ref="facebookAuthenticationProvider" /> </security:authentication-manager> Then within the FacebookAuthenticationProvider I would have to call an FacebookAuthenticationToken that would take my the current facebook Uid and SessionKey of the user. Then try authenticate this Token. So where does the FacebookAuthenticationFilter come into it? I'm just trying to understand the order at which these 3 files are called. As if you were trying to implement any other custom authentication. FacebookAuthenticationFilter.java FacebookAuthenticationProvider.java FacebookAuthenticationToken.java I have also posted this on the Spring Security Forum

    Read the article

  • Titanium won't run iPhone/Android Emulator

    - by BeOliveira
    I just installed Titanium SDK (1.5.1) and all the Android SDKs. Also, I already have iPhone SDK 4.2 installed. I downloaded KitchenSink and imported it into Titanium but whenever I try to run it on iPhone Emulator, I get this error: [INFO] One moment, building ... [INFO] Titanium SDK version: 1.5.1 [INFO] iPhone Device family: iphone [INFO] iPhone SDK version: 4.0 [INFO] Detected compiler plugin: ti.log/0.1 [INFO] Compiler plugin loaded and working for ios [INFO] Performing clean build [INFO] Compiling localization files [INFO] Detected custom font: comic_zine_ot.otf [ERROR] Error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/Application Support/Titanium/mobilesdk/osx/1.5.1/iphone/builder.py", line 1003, in main execute_xcode("iphonesimulator%s" % iphone_version,["GCC_PREPROCESSOR_DEFINITIONS=LOG__ID=%s DEPLOYTYPE=development TI_DEVELOPMENT=1 DEBUG=1 TI_VERSION=%s" % (log_id,sdk_version)],False) File "/Library/Application Support/Titanium/mobilesdk/osx/1.5.1/iphone/builder.py", line 925, in execute_xcode output = run.run(args,False,False,o) File "/Library/Application Support/Titanium/mobilesdk/osx/1.5.1/iphone/run.py", line 31, in run sys.exit(rc) SystemExit: 1 And for Android, it runs the OS but not the KitchenSink app, here's the log: [INFO] Launching Android emulator...one moment [INFO] Building KitchenSink for Android ... one moment [INFO] plugin=/Library/Application Support/Titanium/plugins/ti.log/0.1/plugin.py [INFO] Detected compiler plugin: ti.log/0.1 [INFO] Compiler plugin loaded and working for android [INFO] Titanium SDK version: 1.5.1 (12/16/10 16:25 16bbb92) [INFO] Waiting for the Android Emulator to become available [ERROR] Timed out waiting for android.process.acore [INFO] Copying project resources.. [INFO] Detected tiapp.xml change, forcing full re-build... [INFO] Compiling Javascript Resources ... [INFO] Copying platform-specific files ... [INFO] Compiling localization files [INFO] Compiling Android Resources... This could take some time Any ideas on how to get Titanium to work?

    Read the article

  • Multiple asynchronous method calls to method while in a loop

    - by ranabra
    I have spent a whole day trying various ways using 'AddOnPreRenderCompleteAsync' and 'RegisterAsyncTask' but no success so far. I succeeded making the call to the DB asynchronous using 'BeginExecuteReader' and 'EndExecuteReader' but that is missing the point. The asynch handling should not be the call to the DB which in my case is fast, it should be afterwards, during the 'while' loop, while calling an external web-service. I think the simplified pseudo code will explain best: (Note: the connection string is using 'MultipleActiveResultSets') "Select ID, UserName from MyTable" 'Open connection to DB ExecuteReader(); if (DR.HasRows) {     while (DR.Read())     {         'Call external web-service         'and get current Temperature of each UserName - DR["UserName"].ToString()         'Update my local DB         Update MyTable set Temperature = ValueFromWebService where UserName =                                       DR["UserName"]         CmdUpdate.ExecuteNonQuery();     }     'Close connection etc } Accessing the DB is fast. Getting the returned result from the external web-service is slow and that at least should be handled Asynchnously. If each call to the web service takes just 1 second, assuming I have only 100 users it will take minimum 100 seconds for the DB update to complete, which obviously is not an option. There eventually should be thousands of users (currently only 2). Currently everything works, just very synchnously :) Thoughts to myself: Maybe my way of approaching this is wrong? Maybe the entire process should be called Asynchnously Many thanx

    Read the article

  • Replication: SQL Server 2008 Publisher with SQL Server Express 2005 Subscriber

    - by Jeremy
    Here is the setup: SQL Server 2008 Enterprise Server with a Merge Publication. SQL Server 2005 Express with pull subscription. There is no web or ftp setup. This is direct merge replication. Using the RMO objects from C#, I get a "class cannot be found." COM Error when accessing the MergePullSubscription.SynchronizationAgent property. I've tried with both the 2008 RMO dll's (version 10 dll's) and the 2005 RMO dll's (version 9 dll's). When trying to use replmerge.exe, I get the following: 2010-04-10 04:12:05.263 Microsoft SQL Server Merge Agent 9.00.1399.06 2010-04-10 04:12:05.294 Copyright (c) 2000 Microsoft Corporation 2010-04-10 04:12:05.294 2010-04-10 04:12:05.294 The timestamps prepended to the output lines are express ed in terms of UTC time. 2010-04-10 04:12:05.294 User-specified agent parameter values: -Publisher SUN -PublisherDB PRIMROSE -PublisherSecurityMode 1 -Publication PRIMROSE -Distributor SUN -DistributorSecurityMode 1 -Subscriber PVILLE\SQLEXPRESS -SubscriberSecurityMode 1 -SubscriberDB PRIMROSE -SubscriptionType 1 -DistributorLogin sa -DistributorPassword ********** -DistributorSecurityMode 0 -PublisherLogin sa -PublisherPassword ********** -PublisherSecurityMode 0 -SubscriberLogin sa -SubscriberPassword ********** -SubscriberSecurityMode 0 2010-04-10 04:12:05.325 Connecting to Subscriber 'PVILLE\SQLEXPRESS' 2010-04-10 04:12:05.481 Connecting to Distributor 'SUN' 2010-04-10 04:12:05.513 The version of SQL Server running at the Distributor(10. 0.2531.??????????????????) is not compatible with the version of SQL Server runn ing at the Subscriber(9.00.1399.???????L?L?LHL?L?L?L?,?). 2010-04-10 04:12:05.513 Category:NULL Source: Merge Process Number: -2147200979 Message: The version of SQL Server running at the Distributor(10.0.2531.???????? ??????????) is not compatible with the version of SQL Server running at the Subs criber(9.00.1399.???????L?L?LHL?L?L?L?,?). Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Force x86 CLR on 'Any CPU' .NET assembly

    - by jeffora
    In .NET, the 'Platform Target: Any CPU' compiler option allows a .NET assembly to run as 64bit on a x64 machine, and 32bit on an x86 machine. It is also possible to force an assembly to run as x86 on an x64 machine using the 'Platform Target: x86' compiler option. Is it possible to run an assembly with the 'Any CPU' flag, but determine whether it should be run in the x86 or x64 CLR? Normally this decision is made by the CLR/OS Loader (as is my understanding) based on the bitness of the underlying system. I am trying to write a C# .NET application that can interact with (read: inject code into) other running processes. x64 processes can only inject into other x64 processes, and the same with x86. Ideally, I would like to take advantage of JIT compilation and the Any CPU option to allow a single application to be used to inject into either x64 or x86 processes (on an x64 machine). The idea is that the application would be compiled as Any CPU. On an x64 machine it would run as x64. If the target process is x86, it should relaunch itself, forcing the CLR to run it as x86. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • MSI wrapper for msdeploy?

    - by Nate
    Just moved to vs2010 and found that deployment is quite different. The old way I did things (vs2008) was as follows: 1) I right-click on my web app and "Add web deployment project" 2) Start a web setup project, dump that web deployment project output in it, and add any custom installer actions (connection strings or other user input) as necessary using the custom installer class. Easy! Now that I don't have the "Add web deployment project" option (or can't find it!?!?), msdeploy seems to be the thing to do. I have successfully got this to work via command line, but I still need some custom actions. In this example, we have separated our web services deployment from our UI deployment (Silverlight) so that they can be hosted separately or together. So... during/after install I need to know from the user where the web services are located. So I tried this: 1) Start a web setup project, and include all of the deploy package files (.deploy.cmd, /setparameters.xml, etc) 2) Gather user input in my custom installer class, and shell execute the deploy.cmd. Problem is... the deploy fails on deleting the zip file since it's use by another process (I assume it's my installer). Anyone have any ideas on how to get around this? Or is there a better way to accomplish this task? Any input would be appreciated! Nate

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP Session not working in IIS 7 Windows Server 2008 R2 x64

    - by user553361
    Hi, I've been googleing and searching here info about this but so far couldn't find anything relevant to my problem. We have a website currently working on II6 and Windows Server 2003 (x86) without any problem. Now we want to migrate our server to a Virtual Machine with Windows Server 2008 R2 (x64) and IIS7. Out current app is built in Classic ASP and SQL Server (This one located on a 2nd Server but this is staying the way it is now). The website is configured as a WebSite, not a virtual directory. Using DefaultAppPool with 4 applications. Now, the problem I'm getting is with the Sessions, or at least that's what I think since I created a simple hello.asp with this code <% response.write "Hello" response.write Session.SessionID %> And this is giving us this result: Hello error '8002801d' /hello.asp, line 3 ASP Sessions Properties Enable Session State : True Maximum Sessions : 2147483647 New ID On Secure Connection : True Time-out : 20 min This is the log in Event Viewer Warning 24/12/2010 14:03:42 Active Server Pages 9 None FailedReqLog Url http://apps.shocklogic.com:80/hello.asp App Pool DefaultAppPool Authentication anonymous User from token NT AUTHORITY\IUSR Activity ID {00000000-0000-0000-1400-0080000000F8} Site 1 Process 3312 Failure Reason STATUS_CODE Trigger Status 500 Final Status 500 Time Taken 110 msec Would be great if anyone has any ideas. Thanks, Federico

    Read the article

  • Problems compiling peazip on OSX

    - by Yansky
    I'm having some problems with compiling Peazip on OSX (10.6). I emailed the Peazip developer and he said he probably couldn't help me too much as the error seems to be OSX specific and he doesn't have access to an OSX machine any more. The compiler I'm using is Lazarus as the source is in Pascal. The actual compile process seems to go ok, but when I run the peazip.app program launcher, I get the following error: http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v215/thegooddale/Screen-shot-2010-05-22-at-71907-PM.png Here is the app launcher that the compile made: http://forboden.com/coding/peazip.app.zip - you can use an unzip program to look at the files inside (i.e. unzip it twice). I also tried just running the peazip unix file executable that was produced after the compile from the terminal and I got this: http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v215/thegooddale/Screen-shot-2010-05-22-at-72148-PM.png Here are the messages from the compile log from Lazarus while compiling Peazip: http://pastebin.com/qK4bdncL (I asked on the Lazarus forums and they said I can just ignore those "ld: warning: unknown stabs type" warnings). Here is the info from the project_peach.compiled file: <?xml version="1.0"?> <CONFIG> <Compiler Value="/usr/local/bin/ppc386" Date="1238949773"/> <Params Value=" -MObjFPC -Sgi -O1 -gl -k-framework -kCarbon -k-framework -kOpenGL -k'-dylib_file' -k'/System/Library/Frameworks/OpenGL.framework/Versions/A/Libraries/libGL.dylib:/System/Library/Frameworks/OpenGL.framework/Versions/A/Libraries/libGL.dylib' -WG -vewnhi -l -Fu/Users/yansky/Desktop/peazip-3.1.src/res/themes/crystalc/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/components/synedit/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/ideintf/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/lcl/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/lcl/units/i386-darwin/carbon/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/packager/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Users/yansky/Desktop/peazip-3.1.src/ -Fu. -opeazip -dLCL -dLCLcarbon project_peach.lpr"/> </CONFIG> I guess there's little chance that anyone here has experience with Pascal and Lazarus since it's not that popular a language and the compiler is still in beta, but I thought I would post here in the hopes that someone might point me in the right general direction about where/how the peazip.app launcher is breaking.

    Read the article

  • MSBuild fails, but building inside Visual Studio works fine

    - by Matt
    C#, .NET 2.0 I have an ASP.NET website in a solution, with 2 other projects (used as library references). When I build (debug or release) in Visual Studio, everything works fine. However, building with MSBuild fails. This build had been working (it's actually invoked via a nAnt task). The only thing that has changed is that I have a new user control whose Type I am referencing in my code behind. The offending code is in my ASPX code behind. MessageAlert is the UserControl: MessageAlert userControl = this.LoadControl("~/UserControls/MessageAlert.ascx") as MessageAlert; userControl.UserMessage = message; this.UserMessages.Controls.Add(userControl); In order to get Visual Studio to recognize the type 'MessageAlert' I had to: 1) Set the ClassName="MessageAlert" in the @Control markup at the top of the user control (because using the auto-generated UserControls_MessageAlert wasn't working either) 2) Register the user control in the markup of my ASPX, using an @Register 3) Add a "using ASP" to the top of my code behind After those steps, I could successfully reference the MessageAlert type in my codebehind from visual studio. But from MSBuild I get "The type or namespace name 'MessageAlert' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) " The MSBuild execution is very simple - it points the the very same solution file and sets the configuration property to release. It seems, based on the # of steps I had to go through to get Type references to MessageAlert in Visual Studio, that there is something missing in the MSBuild process. But what? Doesn't Visual Studio in fact invoke MSBuild behind the scenes? Is there a better way to reference a UserControl type in the code behind of an ASPX? EDIT: To clarify, the MessageAlert user control is not in the other referenced assemblies/projects. I mentioned them because, together with the website, the compose the Solution file, which is the same sln file being built by MS Build.

    Read the article

  • Using jstl tags in a dynamically created div

    - by George
    I want to be able to show some data based on criteria the user enters in a text field. I can easily take this data, process the form post, and show the data on another page. However, I want to be able to do it all on the same page - they click the button, and a new div shows up with the information. This doesn't seem too complicated, but I want to use jstl tags to format the data like: <c:forEach items="${model.data}" var="d"> <tr> <td><fmt:formatDate type="date" dateStyle="short" timeStyle="default" value="${d.reportDate}" /></td> <td><c:out value="${d.cardType}"/></td> </tr> </c:forEach> If jstl tags are processed when the page loads, can I use that in this new div? Can I update it via a javascript (using prototype) function to display the proper data? Will I be able to do the same thing if they change the criteria and click the submit button again?

    Read the article

  • Load Balance WCF and Share a Remote MSMQ for High Throughput

    - by BarDev
    After a ton of reading in books and on the web, I have noticed hints of information that WCF and MSMQ can be used in achieving high throughput. The information I have seen mentions using multiple WCF services in a farm that reads from a single MSMQ queue. The problem is that I have found paragraphs here and there that mentions that high throughput can be done, but I cannot seem to find a document of how to implement it. The following is an excerpt from a MSDN article. The following paragraph is from Best Practices for Queued Communication http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms731093.aspx To achieve higher throughput and availability, use a farm of WCF services that read from the queue. This requires that all of these services expose the same contract on the same endpoint. The farm approach works best for applications that have high production rates of messages because it enables a number of services to all read from the same queue. This is what I'm trying to solve. I have an intranet application where a client sends a request to a WCF service. But I want the ability to load balance the WCF services on multiple servers in a farm. I also want these WCF services in the farm to do transactional reads from a remote MSMQ when an item is available in the Queue. If this is possible, an issue I have is that I do not understand the activation process of WCF to retrieve messages from a remote queue. If this is possible, does anyone know of any articles or Webcasts that would explain it in detail? BarDev

    Read the article

  • Ruby rail debug output

    - by Darkerstar
    Hi all: I am just starting to write ruby rails. I wrote a controller but is getting wrong number of "arguments (1 for 0)" error, I can't understand why. It has no information on where the error occurred? It has a full list of stack traces but my controller file is not in there! In my controller I have just two methods, that I was going to test out activemq. But after I put the controller out, I got the above error, so I commented out all the code, but I still get the same error. I can't figure out why. I searched google for ruby debug, I have not found anything helpful. Here is my controller source: class ActivemqTestController < ApplicationController def send #client = Stomp::Client.open("stomp://localhost:61613") #station_id=101 #data = {'station_id' => station_id, 'username' => 'yangyanzhe'} #client.publish('/listener/add', data) end def receive #client = Stomp::Client.open("stomp://localhost:61613") # Processing loop #client.subscribe('/listener/add', headers) do |msg| # Process your message here # Your submitted data is in msg.body #puts msg['username'] + " joined " + msg['station_id'] + "\n" #client.acknowledge(msg) #end #client.join # Wait until listening thread dies end end This is the error: ArgumentError in Activemq testController#index wrong number of arguments (1 for 0) RAILS_ROOT: D:/rubyapps/radio Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace f:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/base.rb:532:in `send' f:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/base.rb:532:in `process_without_filters' f:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/filters.rb:606:in `process' f:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/base.rb:391:in `process' f:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/base.rb:386:in `call' f:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:437:in `call' Thank you for any help in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do I run JUnit from NetBeans?

    - by FarmBoy
    I've been trying to understand how to start writing and running JUnit tests. When I'm reading this article: http://junit.sourceforge.net/doc/testinfected/testing.htm I get the the middle of the page and they write, "JUnit comes with a graphical interface to run tests. Type the name of your test class in the field at the top of the window. Press the Run button." I don't know how to launch this program. I don't even know which package it is in, or how you run a library class from an IDE. Being stuck, I tried this NetBeans tutorial: http://www.netbeans.org/kb/docs/java/junit-intro.html It seemed to be going OK, but then I noticed that the menu options for this tutorial for testing a Java Class Library are different from those for a regular Java application, or for a Java Web App. So the instructions in this tutorial don't apply generally. I'm using NetBeans 6.7, and I've imported JUnit 4.5 into the libraries folder. What would be the normal way to run JUnit, after having written the tests? The JUnit FAQ describes the process from the Console, and I'm willing to do that if that is what is typical, but given all that I can do inside netbeans, it seems hard to believe that there isn't an easier way. Thanks much. EDIT: If I right-click on the project and select "Test" the output is: init: deps-jar: compile: compile-test: test-report: test: BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 0 seconds) This doesn't strike me as the desired output of a test, especially since this doesn't change whether the test condition is true or not. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Cloning git repository from svn repository, results in file-less, remote-branch-less git repo.

    - by Tchalvak
    Working SVN repo I'm starting a git repo to interact with a svn repo. The svn repository is set and working fine, with a single commit of a basic README file in it. Checking it out works fine: tchalvak:~/test/svn-test$ svn checkout --username=myUsernameHere http://www.url.to/project/here/charityweb/ A charityweb/README Checked out revision 1. Failed git-svn clone of svn repo When I try to clone the repository in git, the first step shows no errors... tchalvak:~/test$ git svn clone -s --username=myUserNameHere http://www.url.to/project/here/charityweb/ Initialized empty Git repository in /home/tchalvak/test/charityweb/.git/ Authentication realm: <http://www.url.to/project/here:80> Charity Web Password for 'myUserNameHere': ...but results in a useless folder: tchalvak:~/test$ ls charityweb tchalvak:~/test$ cd charityweb/ tchalvak:~/test/charityweb$ ls tchalvak:~/test/charityweb$ ls -al total 12 drwxr-xr-x 3 tchalvak tchalvak 4096 2010-04-02 13:46 . drwxr-xr-x 4 tchalvak tchalvak 4096 2010-04-02 13:46 .. drwxr-xr-x 8 tchalvak tchalvak 4096 2010-04-02 13:47 .git tchalvak:~/test/charityweb$ git branch -av tchalvak:~/test/charityweb$ git status # On branch master # # Initial commit # nothing to commit (create/copy files and use "git add" to track) tchalvak:~/test/charityweb$ git fetch fatal: Where do you want to fetch from today? tchalvak:~/test/charityweb$ git rebase origin/master fatal: bad revision 'HEAD' fatal: Needed a single revision invalid upstream origin/master tchalvak:~/test/charityweb$ git log fatal: bad default revision 'HEAD' How do I get something I can commit back to? I expect I'm doing something wrong in this process, but what?

    Read the article

  • BCP task hangs while executing

    - by user350374
    Hey guys, We have a HPC node that runs some of our tasks in it. I have a task in my .net project that kicks the bcp utility on the HPC node and the output of the query that I have runs into 9 Mb. When the HPC node runs this task the output of the query is dumped into a file and then after it dumps around 5mb of data it suddenly stops dumping any more data and this happens all the time. (Please note this isnt any data issue as its not crashing on a particular row every time). this may or may not be of significance but I dump the data into a different server which has adequate permissions set. I have run the command with the same query directly on the hpc node and on other comps and it gives the right output. I'm running the bcp command as follows: var processInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("bcp.exe", argument) { RedirectStandardOutput = true, RedirectStandardError = true, CreateNoWindow = true, UseShellExecute = false }; var proc = new Process { StartInfo = processInfo, EnableRaisingEvents = true }; proc.Exited += new EventHandler(bcp_log); proc.Start(); proc.WaitForExit(); So my code actually waits for each bcp task to run before it goes ahead as I call it multiple times. FYI to remind you again it only fails when my o/p exceeds a certain no of bytes in this case approx 5mb. Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Do I really need an ORM?

    - by alchemical
    We're about to begin development on a mid-size ASP.Net MVC 2 web site. For a typical page, we grab data and throw it up on the web page, i.e. there is not much pre-processing of the data before it is sent to the UI. We're now making the decision whether or not to use an ORM and if yes, which one. We had been looking at EF2 AKA EF4 (ASP.Net Entity Framework in VS 2010) as one possibility. However, I'm thinking a simple solution in this case may be just to use datatables. The reason being that we don't plan to move the data around or process it a lot once we fetch it, so I'm not sure there is that much value in having strongly-typed objects as DTOs. Also, this way we avoid mapping altogether, thereby I think simplifying the code and allowing for faster development. I should mention budget is an issue on this project, as well as speed of execution. We are striving for simplicity anywhere we can, both to keep the budget smaller, the schedule shorter, and performance fast. We haven't fully decided this yet, but are currently leaning towards no ORM. Will we be OK with the no ORM approach or is an ORM worth it?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730  | Next Page >