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Should core application configuration be stored in the database, and if so what should be done to se

- by Rl

I'm writing an application around a lot of hierarchical data. Currently the hierarchy is fixed, but it's likely that new items will be added to the hierarchy in the future. (please let them be leaves) My current application and database design is fairly generic and nothing dealing with specific nodes in the hierarchy is hardcoded, with the exception of validation and lookup functions written to retrieve external data from each node's particular database. This pleases me from a design point of view, but I'm nervous at the realization that the entire application rests on a handful of records in the database. I'm also frustrated that I have to enforce certain aspects of data integrity with database triggers rather than by foreign key constraints (an example is where several different nodes in the hierarchy have their own proprietary IDs and I store them in a single column which, when coupled with the node ID can be used to locate the foreign data). I'm starting to wonder whether it may have been appropriate to simply hardcoded these known nodes into the system so that it would be more "type safe" and less generic. How does one know when something should be hardcoded, and when it should be a configuration item? Is it just a cost-benefit analysis of clarity/safety now vs less work later, or am I missing some metric I should be using to determine whether or not this is appropriate. The steps I'm taking to protect these valuable configurations are to add triggers that prevent updates/deletes. The database user that this application uses will only have the ability to manipulate data through stored procedures. What else can I do?

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MySql product\tag query optimisation - please help!

- by Nige

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How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

- by Alex

Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

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Android Google cloud messaging - not certain what parameters I should put when creating the push notification

- by Genadinik

I am working on a php script to send the notification to the CGM server and I am working from this example: public function send_notification($registatoin_ids, $message) { // include config include_once './config.php'; // Set POST variables $url = 'https://android.googleapis.com/gcm/send'; $fields = array( 'registration_ids' => $registatoin_ids, 'data' => $message, ); $headers = array( 'Authorization: key=' . GOOGLE_API_KEY, 'Content-Type: application/json' ); // Open connection $ch = curl_init(); // Set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); // Disabling SSL Certificate support temporarly curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, json_encode($fields)); // Execute post $result = curl_exec($ch); if ($result === FALSE) { die('Curl failed: ' . curl_error($ch)); } // Close connection curl_close($ch); echo $result; } But I am not certain what the values should be for the variables: CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS , CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER , CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER , CURLOPT_HOST , CURLOPT_URL Would anyone happen to know what the values for these should be? Thank you!

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Ruby on Rails How do I access variables of a model inside itself like in this example?

- by banditKing

I have a Model like so: # == Schema Information # # Table name: s3_files # # id :integer not null, primary key # owner :string(255) # notes :text # created_at :datetime not null # updated_at :datetime not null # last_accessed_by_user :string(255) # last_accessed_time_stamp :datetime # upload_file_name :string(255) # upload_content_type :string(255) # upload_file_size :integer # upload_updated_at :datetime # class S3File < ActiveRecord::Base #PaperClip methods attr_accessible :upload attr_accessor :owner Paperclip.interpolates :prefix do |attachment, style| I WOULD LIKE TO ACCESS VARIABLE= owner HERE- HOW TO DO THAT? end has_attached_file( :upload, :path => ":prefix/:basename.:extension", :storage => :s3, :s3_credentials => {:access_key_id => "ZXXX", :secret_access_key => "XXX"}, :bucket => "XXX" ) #Used to connect to users through the join table has_many :user_resource_relationships has_many :users, :through => :user_resource_relationships end Im setting this variable in the controller like so: # POST /s3_files # POST /s3_files.json def create @s3_file = S3File.new(params[:s3_file]) @s3_file.owner = current_user.email respond_to do |format| if @s3_file.save format.html { redirect_to @s3_file, notice: 'S3 file was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @s3_file, status: :created, location: @s3_file } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @s3_file.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end Thanks, any help would be appreciated.

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Core Data combined Query

- by Chris Summer

Hey, i have question related to CoreData. My iphone project has 2 Entities, Organisation and Brand with a 1 to many "BrandsToOrg" relationship and inverse. So my project has a Mapview, where you can see all the Organisations and a little subview when you click on those Organisations.At the subview there is a "show Brands" Button, which should init a new TableView who only shows the brands belong to the seleceted organisation. Any ideas how i can code that? thx NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"(TitleMedium == %@)",@"Rock Antenne"];???? NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:self.entityName inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; // If a predicate was passed, pass it to the query if(predicate != nil) { [request setPredicate:predicate]; } // If a sort key was passed, use it for sorting. NSString *sortKey=@"TitleMedium"; BOOL sortAscending=YES; if(sortKey != nil) { NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:sortKey ascending:sortAscending]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; } NSError *error; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; [request release]; [self setEntityArray:mutableFetchResults];

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Deserialization of a DataSet... deal with column name changes? how to migrate data from one column to another?

- by Brian Kennedy

So, we wanted to slightly generalize a couple columns in our typed dataset... basically dropped a foreign key constraint and then wanted to change a couple column names to better reflect their new state. All that is easy. The problem is that our users may have serialized out the old version of the DataSet as XML. We want to be able to read those old XML files and deserialize them into the revised DataSet. It seems that would be a fairly common desire... but I haven't yet figured out the right thing to search the internet for. One possible solution would seem to be some way to give a DataColumn an alias or alternate name such that when it reads the old column name, it knows that data can be read into the column with the new column name. I can find no support for any such thing. Another approach would seem to be an "after deserialization" method of some sort... so, I would let it read in the old column values into a normal DataColumn with that name, and then in the "after deserialization" method I would just move the data from the obsolete column into the new column, and then delete the old columns. That would seem to generalize to many other situations... and having such events or hooks is pretty common in ADO.NET. But I have looked for such a hook and haven't yet found it. If no "after deserialization" hook, it would seem I ought to be able to override ReadXml or ReadXmlSerializable methods to call the base and then do my "after" stuff to fix up old data into new. But it does not appear that is possible. Soooo, I have to think backward compatibility with old serialized DataSets and simple data migration would be a well-solved problem... so, trying to reinvent that wheel seems silly. But so far, I haven't seemed to find any documentation on doing those things. Suggestions? What is best practice for this?

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Querying using table-valued parameter

- by antmx

I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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Inexplicably slow query in MySQL

- by Brandon M.

Given this result-set: mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT c.cust_name, SUM(l.line_subtotal) FROM customer c -> JOIN slip s ON s.cust_id = c.cust_id -> JOIN line l ON l.slip_id = s.slip_id -> JOIN vendor v ON v.vend_id = l.vend_id WHERE v.vend_name = 'blahblah' -> GROUP BY c.cust_name -> HAVING SUM(l.line_subtotal) > 49999 -> ORDER BY c.cust_name; +----+-------------+-------+--------+---------------------------------+---------------+---------+----------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+--------+---------------------------------+---------------+---------+----------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | v | ref | PRIMARY,idx_vend_name | idx_vend_name | 12 | const | 1 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | SIMPLE | l | ref | idx_vend_id | idx_vend_id | 4 | csv_import.v.vend_id | 446 | | | 1 | SIMPLE | s | eq_ref | PRIMARY,idx_cust_id,idx_slip_id | PRIMARY | 4 | csv_import.l.slip_id | 1 | | | 1 | SIMPLE | c | eq_ref | PRIMARY,cIndex | PRIMARY | 4 | csv_import.s.cust_id | 1 | | +----+-------------+-------+--------+---------------------------------+---------------+---------+----------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ 4 rows in set (0.04 sec) I'm a bit baffled as to why the query referenced by this EXPLAIN statement is still taking about a minute to execute. Isn't it true that this query only has to search through 449 rows? Anyone have any idea as to what could be slowing it down so much?

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Dealing with large number of text strings

- by Fadrian

My project when it is running, will collect a large number of string text block (about 20K and largest I have seen is about 200K of them) in short span of time and store them in a relational database. Each of the string text is relatively small and the average would be about 15 short lines (about 300 characters). The current implementation is in C# (VS2008), .NET 3.5 and backend DBMS is Ms. SQL Server 2005 Performance and storage are both important concern of the project, but the priority will be performance first, then storage. I am looking for answers to these: Should I compress the text before storing them in DB? or let SQL Server worry about compacting the storage? Do you know what will be the best compression algorithm/library to use for this context that gives me the best performance? Currently I just use the standard GZip in .NET framework Do you know any best practices to deal with this? I welcome outside the box suggestions as long as it is implementable in .NET framework? (it is a big project and this requirements is only a small part of it) EDITED: I will keep adding to this to clarify points raised I don't need text indexing or searching on these text. I just need to be able to retrieve them in later stage for display as a text block using its primary key. I have a working solution implemented as above and SQL Server has no issue at all handling it. This program will run quite often and need to work with large data context so you can imagine the size will grow very rapidly hence every optimization I can do will help.

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A very interesting MYSQL problem (related to indexing, million records, algorithm.)

- by terence410

This problem is pretty hard to describe and therefore difficult to search the answer. I hope some expert could share you opinions on that. I have a table with around 1 million of records. The table structure is similar to something like this: items{ uid (primary key, bigint, 15) updated (indexed, int, 11) enabled (indexed, tinyint, 1) } The scenario is like this. I have to select all of the records everyday and do some processing. It takes around 3 second to handle each item. I have written a PHP script to fetch 200 items each time using the following. select * from items where updated unix_timestamp(now()) - 86400 and enabled = 1 limit 200; I will then update the "updated" field of the selected items to make sure that it wont' be selected again within one day. The selected query is something like that. update items set updated = unix_timestamp(now()) where uid in (1,2,3,4,...); Then, the PHP will continue to run and process the data which doesn't require any MYSQL connection anymore. Since I have million records and each record take 3 seconds to process, it's definitely impossible to do it sequentially. Therefore, I will execute the PHP in every 10 seconds. However, as time goes by and the table growth, the select getting much slower. Sometimes, it take more than 100 seconds to run! Do you guys have any suggestion how may I solve this problem?

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INSERT INTO ...SELECT syntax error in join operator

- by user1477356

I'm trying to write a shopping basket into a order + orderline in a sql database from C# asp.net. the orderline will contain a ordernumber, total price, productid, quantity etc. for every item in the basket. The order itself will contain the ordernumber as primary key and will be linked to the different lines through it. Everything worked fine yesterday, but now as i tried to use a SELECT command in the insert into statement to get things more dynamic i'm getting the above described syntax error. Does anybody know what's wrong with this statement: INSERT INTO [order] (klant_id,totaalprijs,btw,subtotaal,verzendkosten) SELECT klant.id , SUM(orderregel.totaalprijs) , SUM(orderregel.btw) , SUM(orderregel.totaalprijs) - SUM(orderregel.btw) , 7.50 FROM orderregel INNER JOIN klant ON [order].klant_id = klant.id WHERE klant.username = 'jerry' GROUP BY id; the ordernumber in the "order" table is on autonumber, in the asp codebehind there is a for each which handles the lines being written for every product, there's an index set on 0 outside of this loop and is heightened with 1 every end of it. The executenonquery of the order is only executed once at the beginning of the first loop and the lines are added after with MAX(ordernumber) as ordernumber. I hope i have provided enough information and somebody is capable of helping me. Thanks in advance!

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How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

- by Alex Reisner

I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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INotifyPropertyChanged event listener within respective class not firing on client side (silverlight)

- by Rob

I'm trying to work out if there's a simple way to internalize the handling of a property change event on a Custom Entity as I need to perform some bubbling of the changes to a child collection within the class when the Background Property is changed via a XAML binding: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { [Key] public int MyClassId { get; set; } [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<ChildMyClass> MyChildren { get; set; } public string _backgroundColor; [DataMember] public string BackgroundColor { get { return this._backgroundColor; } set { this._backgroundColor = value; if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("BackgroundColor")); } } } public MyClass() { this.BackgroundColor = "#FFFFFFFF"; this.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { //Do something here - fires client side but not server side } } I can listen to the event by externalizing it without any problems but it's an ugly way to handle something that want to set and forget inside my class e.g.: public class SomeOtherClass { public SomeOtherClass() { MyClass mc = new MyClass(); mc.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MyClass mc = (MyClass)sender; mc.UpdateChildren(); } }

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Trouble managing events in Flex/actionscript

- by Zaka

Hello all, I'm doing some newbie tests, so I decided to capture the keyboard events to move a rectangle. But I don't get the desired result. Unless I click on the TextArea box, I'm not able to capture the event key code. After that, all goes pretty well. I'm using Eclipse 3.3 + Flex 3.0 on Linux. Here's my code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" enterFrame="enterFrame(event)" keyDown="onKeyDown(event)"> <mx:TextArea id="myText" x="200" y="200" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Canvas id="myCanvas" x="0" y="0" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var clearColor : uint = 0xFF456798; public var myPoint : Point = new Point(0,0); public function enterFrame(event:Event):void { myCanvas.graphics.clear(); myCanvas.graphics.beginFill(0xFF344ff0); myCanvas.graphics.drawRect(myPoint.x,myPoint.y,40,40); myCanvas.graphics.endFill(); } public function onKeyDown(event:KeyboardEvent):void { myText.text = "Keycode is: " + event.keyCode + "\n"; switch(event.keyCode) { case 37: //Left myPoint.x -= 1; break; case 38: //Up myPoint.y -= 1; break; case 39: //Right myPoint.x += 1; break; case 40: //Down myPoint.y += 1; break; } } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application>

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SQL query for the latest record for each day

- by Mac

I've got an Oracle 10g database with a table with a structure and content very similar to the following: CREATE TABLE MyTable ( id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, otherData VARCHAR2(100), submitted DATE ); INSERT INTO MyTable VALUES (1, 'a', TO_DATE('28/04/2010 05:13', ''DD/MM/YYYY HH24:MI)); INSERT INTO MyTable VALUES (2, 'b', TO_DATE('28/04/2010 03:48', ''DD/MM/YYYY HH24:MI)); INSERT INTO MyTable VALUES (3, 'c', TO_DATE('29/04/2010 05:13', ''DD/MM/YYYY HH24:MI)); INSERT INTO MyTable VALUES (4, 'd', TO_DATE('29/04/2010 17:16', ''DD/MM/YYYY HH24:MI)); INSERT INTO MyTable VALUES (5, 'e', TO_DATE('29/04/2010 08:49', ''DD/MM/YYYY HH24:MI)); What I need to do is query the database for the latest record submitted on each given day. For example, with the above data I would expect the records with ID numbers 1 and 4 to be returned, as these are the latest each for 28 April and 29 April respectively. Unfortunately, I have little expertise as far as SQL is concerned. Could anybody possibly provide some insight as to how to achieve this? Thanks in advance!

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Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

- by Tom

Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

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Right Language for the Job

- by Manoj

Using the right language for the job is the key - this is the comment I read in SO and I also belive thats the right thing to do. Because of this we ended up using different languages for different parts of the project - like perl, VBA(Excel Macros), C# etc. We have three to four languages currently in use inside the project. Using the right language for the job has made it immensly more easy to do automate a job, but of late people are complaining that any new person who has to take over the project will have to learn so many different languages to get started. Also it is difficult to find such kind of person. Please note that this is a one to two person working on the project maximum at a given point of time. I would like to know if the method we are following is right or should we converge to single language and try to use it across all the job even though another language might be better suited for it. Your experenece related to this would also help. Languages used and their purpose: Perl - Processing large text file(log files) C# with Silverlight for web based reporting. LabVIEW for automation Excel macros for processing data in excel sheets, generating graphs and exporting to powerpoint.

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Does the Eclipse editor have an equivalent of emacs's "align-regex"?

- by rjray

I've been using Eclipse pretty regularly for several years now, but I admit to not having explored all the esoterica it has to offer, particularly in the areas of what formatting features the editors offer. The main thing I miss from (X)emacs is the "align-regex" command, which let me take several lines into a region and then format them so that some common pattern in all lines was aligned. The simplest example of this is a series of variable assignments: var str = new String('aString'); var index = 0; var longCamelCaseObjectName = new LongNameObject(); After doing align-regex on "=", that would become: var str = new String('aString'); var index = 0; var longCamelCaseObjectName = new LongNameObject(); Now, you may have your own thoughts on stylistic (ab)use of white space and alignment, etc., but that's just an example (I'm actually trying to align a different kind of mess entirely). Can anyone tell me off-hand if there's an easy key-combo-shortcut for this in Eclipse? Or even a moderately-tricky one?

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Serialization for memcached

- by Ram

I have this huge domain object(say parent) which contains other domain objects. It takes a lot of time to "create" this parent object by querying a DB (OK we are optimizing the DB). So we decided to cache it using memcached (with northscale to be specific) So I have gone through my code and marked all the classes (I think) as [Serializable], but when I add it to the cache, I see a Serialization Exception getting thrown in my VS.net output window. var cache = new NorthScaleClient("MyBucket"); cache.Store(StoreMode.Set, key, value); This is the exception: A first chance exception of type 'System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException' occurred in mscorlib.dll SO my guess is, I have not marked all classes as [Serializable]. I am not using any third party libraries and can mark any class as [Serializable], but how do I find out which class is failing when the cache is trying to serialize the object ? Edit1: casperOne comments make me think. I was able to cache these domain object with Microsoft Cache Application Block without marking them [Serializable], but not with NorthScale memcached. It makes me think that there might be something to do with their implementation, but just out of curiosity, am still interested in finding where it fails when trying to add the object to memcached

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Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

- by Chris

I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

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Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

- by Enyalius

Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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Use AttachedProperty in Style in ControlTemplate

- by Andrey

Here is my simple app: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:app="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.Resources> <Style x:Key="Test"> <Setter Property="Button.Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Blue" BorderThickness="3" Background="Black" CornerRadius="{Binding app:Extras.CornerRadius}" > </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <Button Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="29,26,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" app:Extras.CornerRadius="10" Style="{StaticResource Test}" >Button</Button> </Grid> </Window> Here is my AttachedPropery: namespace WpfApplication1 { public class Extras { public static readonly DependencyProperty CornerRadiusProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "CornerRadius", typeof(double), typeof(Button), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(1.0d, FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsRender) ); public static void SetCornerRadius(UIElement element, double value) { element.SetValue(CornerRadiusProperty, value); } public static double GetCornerRadius(UIElement element) { return (double)element.GetValue(CornerRadiusProperty); } } } CornerRadius="{Binding app:Extras.CornerRadius}" this of course doesn't work. so how can I get value from here app:Extras.CornerRadius="10" thanks in advance!

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Velocity CTP: can we 'search' for objects?

- by Stato Machino

It appears that 'tags' allow us to associate a 'search term' with the objects placed into the Velocity cache space. However, these can only be queried within a 'region'. Further, regions somehow limit the locality of objects in the cache to a single server (or maybe something kinda like that). So this appears to make it hard to perform any operation for which the unique Id of the cached item is not persisted or continuously available to the application that stores and retrieves objects to and from the cache. In any case, I can't see an easy way to 'cleanse' the cache of objects or to find objects across the entire cache that may share some prefix, postfix or infix values in the cache key so that i can clear out the cache of object repeatedly created in unit tests, for example. And I am unsure about the consequences of regions being associated with single server cache locations. So I would appreciate any help with the following questions: What is the difference between a 'distributed cache' (called a 'partitioned' cache??) when using regions, and a 'local cache'? 1.a. In particular, are the region-oriented values in a distributed cache visible through a cache factory that is configured to 'see' the entire cache space? Are the operations of creating and removing 'regions' efficient enough that it would be reasonable to create a region and a group of tags for each bundle of objects that need to be cached? 2.a. Or does this just push the problem of scoping the 'search for objects' up the chain because the ability of the DataCache object to query down through regions and tags as limited as querying for the cache keys of objects themselves. Thanks, Stato

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Lack of understanding crash report

- by Alan Lai

I have this crash report. Incident Identifier: CA9E350A-C842-4349-AAD8-E9E62E93BDD1 CrashReporter Key: 360bc129d2f79a48e291eb5ca38b24e822ed5b6b Hardware Model: xxx Process: OrientalDailyiOS [1502] Path: /var/mobile/Applications/39480A57-68FF-4C46-8445-340EFE204119/OrientalDailyiOS.app/OrientalDailyiOS Identifier: OrientalDailyiOS Version: ??? (???) Code Type: ARM (Native) Parent Process: launchd [1] Date/Time: 2012-10-14 15:49:10.884 -0700 OS Version: iOS 6.0 (10A403) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_CRASH (SIGABRT) Exception Codes: 0x0000000000000000, 0x0000000000000000 Crashed Thread: 0 Last Exception Backtrace: 0 CoreFoundation 0x37a0a29e __exceptionPreprocess + 158 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x34e3197a objc_exception_throw + 26 2 CoreFoundation 0x37955b70 -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:] + 160 3 OrientalDailyiOS 0x00064fdc -[Main_NewsDetail viewDidLoad] (Main_NewsDetail.m:43) 4 UIKit 0x386cb590 -[UIViewController loadViewIfRequired] + 360 5 UIKit 0x38757336 -[UIViewController shouldAutorotate] + 22 6 UIKit 0x38798cd4 -[UIWindowController transition:fromViewController:toViewController:target:didEndSelector:] + 1540 7 UIKit 0x38797fca -[UIViewController presentViewController:withTransition:completion:] + 3390 8 UIKit 0x388ba252 -[UIViewController presentModalViewController:animated:] + 26 9 Foundation 0x34364a6a __NSFireDelayedPerform + 446 10 CoreFoundation 0x379df5da __CFRUNLOOP_IS_CALLING_OUT_TO_A_TIMER_CALLBACK_FUNCTION__ + 10 11 CoreFoundation 0x379df28c __CFRunLoopDoTimer + 268 12 CoreFoundation 0x379ddefc __CFRunLoopRun + 1228 13 CoreFoundation 0x37950eb8 0x37948000 + 36536 14 CoreFoundation 0x37950d44 CFRunLoopRunInMode + 100 15 GraphicsServices 0x373e32e6 GSEventRunModal + 70 16 UIKit 0x387002fc 0x386a9000 + 357116 17 OrientalDailyiOS 0x0005fac2 main (main.m:16) 18 OrientalDailyiOS 0x0005fa84 0x5e000 + 6788 However, I couldn't know where is error, I play around with my apps but show no error. I also tried iOS 6 with iPad, no problem. what apple feedback was We found that your app crashed on iPad running iOS 6, which is not in compliance with the App Store Review Guidelines. Your app crashed on both Wi-Fi and cellular networks when we: 1. Launch the app. 2. Tap any item on main page. 3. App crashes.

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