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  • Problems using Maven to initialize a local thoughtsite (App Engine sample) project in Eclipse

    - by ovr
    This sample app ("thoughtsite") for App Engine contains a pom.xml in its trunk: http://code.google.com/p/thoughtsite/source/browse/#svn/trunk I ran mvn eclipse:eclipse and also tried using m2eclipse to import this source code into an Eclipse project. But I end up with this error despite the fact that I have the Google App Engine plugin and the Google App Engine SDK installed: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkImplInfo.<clinit>(SdkImplInfo.java:19) at com.google.appengine.tools.util.Logging.initializeLogging(Logging.java:36) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerMain.main(DevAppServerMain.java:82) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to discover the Google App Engine SDK root. This code should be loaded from the SDK directory, but was instead loaded from file:~/.m2/repository/com/google/appengine/appengine-tools-sdk/1.3.0/appengine-tools-sdk-1.3.0.jar. Specify -Dappengine.sdk.root to override the SDK location. at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.findSdkRoot(SdkInfo.java:106) at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.<clinit>(SdkInfo.java:24) ... 3 more When I go into the project settings under "Google" and try to set it to use the default App Engine SDK it always reverts to trying to use Maven's App Engine SDK instead. No idea how to get this project working.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • How to fix this java.lang.LinkageError?

    - by Péter Török
    I am trying to configure a custom layout class to Log4J as described in my previous post. The class uses java.util.regex.Matcher to identify potential credit card numbers in log messages. It works perfectly in unit tests (I can also programmatically configure a logger to use it and produce the expected output). However when I try to deploy it with our app in JBoss, I get the following error: --- MBEANS THAT ARE THE ROOT CAUSE OF THE PROBLEM --- ObjectName: jboss.web.deployment:war=MyWebApp-2010_02-SNAPSHOT.war,id=476602902 State: FAILED Reason: java.lang.LinkageError: java/util/regex/Matcher I couldn't even find any info on this form of the error - typically LinkageError seems to show up with a "loader constrain violation" message, like in here. Technical details: we use JBoss 4.2, Java 5, Log4J 1.2.12. We deploy our app in an .ear, which contains (among others) the above mentioned .war file, and the custom layout class in a separate jar file. We override the default settings in jboss-log4J.xml with our own log4j.properties located in a different folder, which is added to the classpath at startup, and is provided via Carbon. I can only guess: are two different Matcher class versions loaded from somewhere, or is Matcher loaded by two different classloaders when it is used from the jar and the war? What does this error message mean, and how can I fix it?

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  • Does mod_php honor HEAD requests properly?

    - by rkulla
    The HTTP/1.1 RFC stipulates "The HEAD method is identical to GET except that the server MUST NOT return a message-body in the response." I know Apache honors the RFC but modules don't have to. My question is, does mod_php5 honor this? The reason I ask is because I just came across an article saying that PHP developers should check this themselves with: if (stripos($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'], 'HEAD') !== FALSE) { exit(); } but seeing as how browsers send HEAD requests for cache checking it seems unlikely to me that no book, docs, etc., advise PHP developers to do this check. I googled a second and not much turned up, other than some people saying they try to strange things like mod_rewrite/redirect after getting HEAD requests and some old bug ticket from like 2002 claiming that mod_php still executed the rest of the script by default. So I just ran a quick test by using PECL::HTTP to run http_head('http://mysite.com/test-head-request.php'); while having: <?php error_log('REST OF SCRIPT STILL RAN'); ?> in test-head-request.php to see if the rest of the script still executed, and it didn't. I figure that should be enough to settle it, but want to get more feedback and maybe help clear up confusion for anyone else who has wondered about this. So if anyone knows off the top of their head (no pun intended) - or have any conventions they use for receiving HEAD requests, that'd be great. Otherwise, I'll grep the C source later and respond in a comment with my findings. Thanks.

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  • Servlet requests are executed sequentially for no apparent reason in Glassfish v3

    - by Fabien Benoit
    Hi, I'm using Glassfish 3 Web profile and can't get http workers to execute concurrently requests on a servlet. This is how i observed the problem. I've made a very simple servlet, that writes the current thread name to the standard output and sleep for 10 seconds : protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(Thread.currentThread().getName()); try { Thread.sleep(10000); // 10 sec } catch (InterruptedException ex) {} } } And when i'm running several simultaneous requests, I clearly see in the logs that the requests are sequentially executed (one trace every 10 seconds). INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(2) (10 seconds later...) INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(1) (10 seconds later...) INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(2) etc. All my GF settings are untouched - it's the out-of-the-box config (the default thread pool is 2 threads min, 5 max if I recall properly). ...I really don't understand why the sleep() block all the others worker threads. Any insight would be greatly appreciated ! Thanks, Fabien

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  • How to handle "Remember me" in the Asp.Net Membership Provider

    - by RemotecUk
    Ive written a custom membership provider for my ASP.Net website. Im using the default Forms.Authentication redirect where you simply pass true to the method to tell it to "Remember me" for the current user. I presume that this function simply writes a cookie to the local machine containing some login credential of the user. What does ASP.Net put in this cookie? Is it possible if the format of my usernames was known (e.g. sequential numbering) someone could easily copy this cookie and by putting it on their own machine be able to access the site as another user? Additionally I need to be able to inercept the authentication of the user who has the cookie. Since the last time they logged in their account may have been cancelled, they may need to change their password etc so I need the option to intercept the authentication and if everything is still ok allow them to continue or to redirect them to the proper login page. I would be greatful for guidance on both of these two points. I gather for the second I can possibly put something in global.asax to intercept the authentication? Thanks in advance.

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  • iPhone developer cert not associating with Provisioning Profiles

    - by baudot
    I'm seeing the dreaded "Code Sign error: The identity 'iPhone Developer' doesn't match any valid certificate/private key pair in the default keychain" error. Strange, as it used to work. Not sure what changed. A few of the symptoms I've noticed beyond this: In the project info, for Code Signing Identity, instead of saying "iPhone Developer: My Name Here", it only says "iPhone Developer", followed by a list of grayed out Provisioning Profiles with the error message "profile doesn't match any valid certificate/private key pair in the keychain." In the organizer, if I click the "Developer Profile" sidebar entry, it shows one entry in the "Identities" pane, "iPhone Distribution: My Name Here". However, no profiles show in the Provisioning Profiles pane. In the organizer, if I click the "Provisioning Profiles" sidebar entry, for each of the profiles there it reports "A valid signing identity matching this profile could not be found in your keychain." I've tried a handful of the usual folk cures for this ailment, without success so far, such as: Cleared my old keypairs and expired developer identity cert out of the keychain. Deleted my old developer profile, created a new one, and regenerated the provisioning profile after. Reconfirmed: The App ID on the provisioning portal for this app is a pure wildcard ID. (The "Bundle Identifier" in the info.plist is just the appname, no reversed domain prefix.) Restored my iPhone. Overstalled the latest version of Xcode.

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  • Most unintuitive behaviour in the .Net framework?

    - by BlueRaja
    Intended behavior is often another phrase for bug-which-we-knew-about-when-we-wrote-it, but-we-wrote-it-anyways. Because it was "intended" (or perhaps it is now too late or too difficult), many of these extremely-unintuitive bugs never get fixed. For instance, consider the following code (C#): TextInfo textInfo = Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TextInfo; textInfo.ToTitleCase("hello world!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("hElLo WoRld!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("Hello World!"); //Returns "Hello World!" What would you expect textInfo.ToTitleCase("HELLO WORLD!"); to return? In fact, it returns "HELLO WORLD!". This was well-documented "intended behavior," but, in my eyes, is extremely unintuitive, and therefore a bug. What is some other unintuitive behavior like this in this in the .Net framework? Bonus points if you can provide a fix that does not break backwards-compatibility. Remember! Always keep these two simple rules in mind when designing an API (or anything else): Make the common case the default, and Keep It Simple, Stupid!

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  • Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • How is unautenticated site navigation handled in ASP.NET?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am wondering how to do the following... I have a registration system. When the user successfully registers, he is then led down a series of data gathering pages (for his profile) and then, finally, ends on his profile's home page where he can start to use the site. All this happens without ever logging into the system so, he is unauthenticated and unconfirmed. My question is, how does this happen? How can I allow my user to be unauthenticated (and unconfirmed, but this I understand) and use all aspects of the Web site? The way I have things set up right now, my code should be doing this: case CreateProfileStatus.Success: //FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, false); Response.Redirect("NextPage.aspx", false); break; but, I am being redirected to the login page after registration which is not the result I want. This is what the relevant nodes in my web.config look like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".AuthCookie" loginUrl="default.aspx" protection="All"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow roles="Administrators" /> </authorization> <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="100000" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="Encryption" cookieless="UseCookies" domain="" /> When the user logs out after the registration and initial interaction with the site he will be required to log in upon return. At this point he must be authenticated but does not need to be confirmed for a period of time. Eventually, he will be reminded. So, how is this done? Thanks in advance.

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  • Devise routes /:param not working

    - by Jacob Schatz
    Using devise 2.1.0 I am trying to send the new registration page a PricingPlan model. So in my routes I have: devise_scope :user do delete "/logout" => "devise/sessions#destroy" get "/login" => "devise/sessions#new" get "/signup/:plan" => "devise/registrations#new" end And I override the devise registration controller. With this in my routes.rb to make it work: devise_for :users, :controllers => {:registrations => "registrations"} In my actual Registration controller which overrides Devise's controller I have: class RegistrationsController < Devise::RegistrationsController view_paths = "app/views/devise" def new super @plan = PricingPlan.find_by_name(params[:plan]) end So that the default views still go to devise.... In my new view for the registration controller I call this: <h3>You've chosen the <%= @plan.name %> plan.</h3> And I get this error: undefined method `name' for nil:NilClass Also... in my PricingPlan model: class PricingPlan < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users And in my User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :pricing_plan I'm rather new at rails.

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  • Best way to replace mass emails sent from Entourage with a proper mailing list solution?

    - by aaandre
    I am helping a Los Angeles choreographer to transition away from sending her announcements via Entourage. Here's the situation: She has multiple conact groups, and sends classes and performance announcements several times a month, to different groups. She manages the contact groups manually. The group size is between 1500 and 2500 people. Recently verizon blocked her outgoing port 25, presumably for spam activity. Again, her contacts are interested in the content. She is aware of mailchimp, constantcontact etc. but would like to be able to send the email via her email software and not have to create a newsletter for every single mailing. Also, she's very short on $$. So, what would be the best way to set up a system allowing her to send announcements from Entourage, with attached images, to her lists, without having Entourage send every single email? I am thinking of setting up a set of mailing lists, each corresponding to one of her groups. I have never set up a mailing list before and am wondering if it's possible to have a list accept emails from only one person (Admin) and distribute them to the group? Recipients should be able to unsubscribe easily, and by default reply to her but not the list. She should be the only one able to use the list for distribution, and should be able to send messages (with attachments) directly from her email client without modification. Is this possible? Where can I find step-by-step instructions? What are best practices to avoid her domain being blacklisted? What's the easiest way to convert her contact groups to mailing list subscribers? I am helping her for free, so the simpler the better :) Thank you! UPDATE: She has a standard linux hosting account allowing her to run php etc. And, ideally, the emails would come from her personally or at least from her domain name.

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  • SerializationException with custom GenericIdentiy?

    - by MunkiPhD
    I'm trying to implement my own GenericIdentity implementation but keep receiving the following error when it attempts to load the views (I'm using asp.net MVC): System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled by user code Message="Type is not resolved for member 'OpenIDExtendedIdentity,Training.Web, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Source="WebDev.WebHost" I've ended up with the following class: [Serializable] public class OpenIDExtendedIdentity : GenericIdentity { private string _nickName; private int _userId; public OpenIDExtendedIdentity(String name, string nickName, int userId) : base(name, "OpenID") { _nickName = nickName; _userId = userId; } public string NickName { get { return _nickName; } } public int UserID { get { return _userId; } } } In my Global.asax I read a cookie's serialized value into a memory stream and then use that to create my OpenIDExtendedIdentity object. I ended up with this attempt at a solution after countless tries of various sorts. It works correctly up until the point where it attempts to render the views. What I'm essentially attempting to achieve is the ability to do the following (While using the default Role manager from asp.net): User.Identity.UserID User.Identity.NickName ... etc. I've listed some of the sources I've read in my attempt to get this resolved. Some people have reported a Cassini error, but it seems like others have had success implementing this type of custom functionality - thus a boggling of my mind. http://forums.asp.net/p/32497/161775.aspx http://ondotnet.com/pub/a/dotnet/2004/02/02/effectiveformsauth.html http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/netfxremoting/thread/e6767ae2-dfbf-445b-9139-93735f1a0f72

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  • Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

    - by p.campbell
    A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

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  • How to rename an existing Grails application

    - by Johan Pelgrim
    Hi there, Does anybody know how to (easily) "rename" an existing grails application? I'm running into this because my PaaS provider does not allow me to delete a subscription... So I want to deploy my application under a different name. Of course, I can do this manually, but I think it might be a useful 'top-level' script (i.e. "grails rename-app newappname") Manual hints: When I do a "grails create-app myappname" I can see the myappname exists in the following files (and filenames)... Of course this is done by the create-app script, which replaces @...@ tokens in the template. I guess once they are replaced, it's not trivial to do a rename. ./.project: <name>myappname</name> ./application.properties:app.name=myappname ./build.xml:<project xmlns:ivy="antlib:org.apache.ivy.ant" name="myappname" default="test"> ./ivy.xml: <info organisation="org.example" module="myappname"/> ./myappname-test.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="/myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry containerPath="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.JRE_CONTAINER" javaProject="myappname" path="1" type="4"/> "/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.VM_ARGUMENTS" value="-Dbase.dir="${project_loc:myappname}" -Dserver.port=8080 -Dgrails.env=development"/> ./myappname.tmproj: <string>myappname.launch</string> And of course... the top-level directory name is "myappname" Any hints, or information about ongoing initiatives in this area are welcome Greetz, Johan

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  • Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

    - by Mikeage
    I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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  • Java JSP/Servlet: controller servlet throwing the famous stack overflow

    - by NoozNooz42
    I've read several docs and I don't get it: I know I'm doing something wrong but I don't understand what. I've got a website that is entirely dynamically generated: there's hardly any static content at all. So, trying to understand JSP/Servlet, I've written my own "front controller" intercepting every single query, it looks like this: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>defaultservlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Basically I want any user request, like: example.org example.org/bar example.org/foo.html to all go through a default servlet which I've written. The servlet then examines the URI and find to which .jsp the request must be dispatched, and then does, after having set all the attributes correctly, a: RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); When I'm using a url-pattern (in web.xml) like, say, *.html, everything works fine. But when I change it to /* (to really intercept everything), I enter an endless loop and it ends up with a... StackOverflow :) When the request is dispatched, is the URI ".../WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp" itself matched by the web.xml filter /* that I set? How should I do if I want to intercept everything using a /* url-pattern and yet be able to dispatch/forward/? I'm not asking about specs/Javadocs here: I'm really confused about the bigger picture and I'd need some explanation as to what could be going on. Am I not supposed to intercept really everything? If I can intercept everything, what should I be aware of regarding forwarding/dispatching?

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  • Log off from Remote Desktop Session does not closing Session, showing the login screen again on Wind

    - by Santhosha
    Hi As per requirement we have written one custom GINA. I have observed one interesting behavior in Windows XP 32 Bit(SP2). Customized GINA internally calls windows default Windows GINA(msgina.dll) and shows one extra window as per our requirement. I used to do remote desktop to XP machine from my machine. After replacing Windows GINA with customized GINA I tried to log off from the XP Machine(I am Using Remote Desktop Connection to log in), Log off completes successfully(After showing saving your settings, Closing network connections etc) and I will get log in screen which we get during log on, this is not expected comapred to other flavors of Windows OD. Where as in other operating systems such as Windows XP 64 Bit/ Windows 2003 32/64 Bit even after replacing the Windows Gina with custom GINA remote desktop session closes after log off from the machine. I have tried installing Novell GINA on Windows XP 32 Bit but i have not find any issue with that. I have Tried upgrading XP SP2 to SP3, still i am facing the same issue. Whether anyone faced Such issues when worked with Windows GINA? Thanks in advance Santhosha K S

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  • Fixing color in scatter plots in matplotlib

    - by ajhall
    Hi guys, I'm going to have to come back and add some examples if you need them, which you might. But, here's the skinny- I'm plotting scatter plots of lab data for my research. I need to be able to visually compare the scatter plots from one plot to the next, so I want to fix the color range on the scatter plots and add in a colorbar to each plot (which will be the same in each figure). Essentially, I'm fixing all aspects of the axes and colorspace etc. so that the plots are directly comparable by eye. For the life of me, I can't seem to get my scatter() command to properly set the color limits in the colorspace (default)... i.e., I figure out my total data's min and total data's max, then apply them to vmin, vmax, for the subset of data, and the color still does not come out properly in both plots. This must come up here and there, I can't be the only one that wants to compare various subsets of data amongst plots... so, how do you fix the colors so that each data keeps it's color between plots and doesn't get remapped to a different color due to the change in max/min of the subset -v- the whole set? I greatly appreciate all your thoughts!!! A mountain-dew and fiery-hot cheetos to all! -Allen

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  • LINQ query code for complex merging of data.

    - by Stacey
    I've posted this before, but I worded it poorly. I'm trying again with a more well thought out structure. Re-writing this a bit to make it more clear. I have the following code and I am trying to figure out the shorter linq expression to do it 'inline'. Please examine the "Run()" method near the bottom. I am attempting to understand how to join two dictionaries together based on a matching identifier in one of the objects - so that I can use the query in this sort of syntax. var selected = from a in items.List() // etc. etc. select a; This is my class structure. The Run() method is what I am trying to simplify. I basically need to do this conversion inline in a couple of places, and I wanted to simplify it a great deal so that I can define it more 'cleanly'. class TModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } } class TModels : List<TModel> { } class TValue { } class TStorage { public Dictionary<Guid, TValue> Items { get; set; } } class TArranged { public Dictionary<TModel, TValue> Items { get; set; } } static class Repository { static public TItem Single<TItem, TCollection>(Predicate<TItem> expression) { return default(TItem); // access logic. } } class Sample { public void Run() { TStorage tStorage = new TStorage(); // access tStorage logic here. Dictionary<TModel, TValue> d = new Dictionary<TModel, TValue>(); foreach (KeyValuePair<Guid, TValue> kv in tStorage.Items) { d.Add(Repository.Single<TModel, TModels>(m => m.Id == kv.Key),kv.Value); } } }

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  • broken SQL 2008 SP1 Web Edition (can not login with SSMS)

    - by gerryLowry
    Scenario: My installation of SQL Server 2008 Web Edition SP1 was working properly. Since I've recently joined Microsoft's Website Spark*, I removed SQL2008 and installed SQL 2008 again using my Website Spark edition and license from the MSDN download site. Next, I updated SQL 2008 to SP1 (this is required because I'm running Windows 2008 Server R2 Web edition). When I launch SSMS (SQL Server Management Studio), "User name" is "myhost\Administrator" and is greyed out so it can not be changed. When I installed my Website Spark version, I did not include "myhost\Administrator" when I was configuring SQL 2008 service accounts. Instead I created an administrator account "myhost\mySQLaccount". ERROR MESSAGE: Connect to Server (X) Cannot connect to (local) Additional information: Login failed for user 'myhost'Admistrator' (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18456) I tried to use the SQL Server Configuration Manager to correct this problem but could not find any useful way to fix this issue. How to I fix this problem? Connect to Server ... Server type: Database Engine Server name: (local) Authentication: Windows Authentication Please advise. Thank you. Gerry * http://www.microsoft.com/web/websitespark/default.aspx

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  • Best terminal environment for Cygwin/Windows?

    - by Anders Sandvig
    Today I run Cygwin with rxvt using the following startup line: rxvt -bg black -sl 8192 -fg white -sr -g 150x56 -fn "Fixedsys" -e /usr/bin/bash --login -i This gives me a resizeable native Windows window which is much better than the standard "DOS box" the default cygwin.bat provides. However, the current configuration does have a couple of issues: I am not able to enter non-ASCII characters into the terminal window (i.e. æ, ø, å and Æ, Ø, Å, which I use semi-frequently. In fact, the terminal will not even accept them when I paste them into the window. If I paste a string like "bølle" (Norwegian for "bulley"), all I get is "blle". I am not able to render UTF-8 character, they only show as ?, even if they are supported by the font (i.e. when rendering the same characters in ISO-8859-1 they show just fine.). I am running English Windows Vista with locale and keyboard layout set to Norwegian (ISO-8859-1 character set?), but I've had the exact same issue on Windows 2000 and XP. Anyone knows how to fix this (i.e. a better way to configure rxvt)? Apart from the issues mentioned above, I'm very happy with rxvt, so if I find a way to resolve them I'd like to continue using it. However, if the issues are not (easily) solvable, are the any other good terminal solutions for Cygwin? Update The solution provided by Andy and Mattias (editing the .inputrc file) did solve the input problem, but output rendering is still an issue. Output is fine when I render in ISO-8859-1, but when using UTF-8 I only get ? for non-ASCII characters. This behavior is consistent between rxvt, urxvt (under Cygwin XFree X Server), mintty and PuttyCyg. Is there a similar configuration file where output encoding can be set (i.e. the equivalent of setting output locale on a Linux system)?

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  • what exactly is the danger of an uninitialized pointer in C

    - by akh2103
    I am trying get a handle on C as I work my way thru Jim Trevor's "Cyclone: A safe dialect of C" for a PL class. Trevor and his co-authors are trying to make a safe version of C, so they eliminate uninitialized pointers in their language. Googling around a bit on uninitialized pointers, it seems like un-initialized pointers point to random locations in memory. It seems like this alone makes them unsafe. If you reference an un-itilialized pointer, you jump to an unsafe part of memory. Period. But the way Trevor talks about them seems to imply that it is more complex. He cites the following code, and explains that when the function FrmGetObjectIndex dereferences f, it isn’t accessing a valid pointer, but rather an unpredictable address — whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated. What does Trevor mean by "whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated"? Are "un-initialized" pointers initialized to random locations in memory by default? Or does their "random" behavior have to do with the memory allocated for these pointers getting filled with strange values (that are then referenced) because of unexpected behavior on the stack. Form *f; switch (event->eType) { case frmOpenEvent: f = FrmGetActiveForm(); ... case ctlSelectEvent: i = FrmGetObjectIndex(f, field); ... }

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  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to IIS6: pages are just blank

    - by BryanGrimes
    I have an MVC app that is actually on a couple other servers but I didn't do the deploy. For this deploy I have added the wildcard to aspnet_isapi.dll which has gotten rid of the 404 error. But the pages are not pulling up, rather everything is just blank. I can't seem to find any IIS configuration differences. The Global asax.cs file does have routing defined, but as I've seen on a working server, that file isn't just hanging out in the root or anything so obvious. What could I be missing here? All of the servers are running IIS6 and I have compared the setups and they look the same to me at this point. Thanks... Bryan EDIT for the comments thus far: I've looked in the event logs with no luck, and scoured various IIS logs per David Wang: blogs.msdn.com. Below is the Global.asax.cs file... public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("error.axd"); // for Elmah // For deployment to IIS6 routes.Add(new Route ( "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new RouteValueDictionary(new { action = "Index", id = (string)null }), new MvcRouteHandler() )); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeSave", "Time/Save", new { controller = "Time", action = "Save" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeAdd", "Time/Add", new { controller = "Time", action = "Add" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeEdit", "Time/Edit/{id}", new { controller = "Time", action = "Edit", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "FromSalesforce", "Home/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default2", "{controller}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } Maybe this is as stupid as the asax file not being somewhere it needs to be, but heck if I know at this point.

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  • Get available screen area in autohotkey

    - by Herms
    I'm trying to write a few simple AutoHotkey scripts for moving windows around, and I'm having trouble getting the correct screen size values. I'm trying to get the size of the usable area on the screen (generally the full screen resolution minus the taskbar, and maybe any other docked windows like the sidebar in Vista). Neither of the methods I've found for getting the screen width seems to work. None of the 3 methods I found to get the screen size are giving me the right values. Here's the test script I'm using (running on XP with the taskbar on the bottom at its default size): #7:: WinMove A,,0,0,A_ScreenWidth,A_ScreenHeight return #8:: ;SM_CXMAXIMIZED and SM_CYMAXIMIZED SysGet, ScreenWidth, 61 SysGet, ScreenHeight, 62 WinMove A,,0,0,ScreenWidth,ScreenHeight return #9:: ;SM_CXFULLSCREEN and SM_CYFULLSCREEN SysGet, ScreenWidth, 16 SysGet, ScreenHeight, 17 WinMove A,,0,0,ScreenWidth,ScreenHeight return #7 causes the window to take up the entire resolution, so it overlaps the taskbar. #8 causes the width to be larger than the resolution (I see the window's right edge show up on my secondary monitor) and the height is slightly too large, so the window partially overlaps the taskbar area. Looks like this is correct except for not taking into account the window decorations at the edges. #9 seems to have the correct width, but the height is too short. It looks like it's subtracting the taskbar's height from the resolution's height, but then subtracting another 30 pixels from it. I could just use what I have in #9 and add 30 to the height I get, but that feels too much like a hack that would break in other configurations. It seems like there has to be a way to get the available screen size properly, but I can't find it in AutoHotkey. For reference, this seems to give me what I need in Java: Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().getScreenSize();

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