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  • Where are tables in Mnesia located?

    - by Sanoj
    I try to compare Mnesia with more traditional databases. As I understand it tables in Mnesia can be located to: ram_copies - tables are stored in RAM only, so no durability as in ACID. disc_copies - tables are located on disc and a copy is located in RAM, so the table can not be bigger than the available memory? disc_only_copies - tables are located to disc only, so no caching in memory and worse performance? And the size of the table are limited to the size of dets or the table has to be fragmented. So if I want the performance of doing reads from RAM and the durability of writes to disc, then the size of the tables are very limited compared to a traditional RDBMS like MySQL or PostgreSQL. I know that Mnesia aren't meant to replace traditional RDBMS:s, but can it be used as a big RDBMS or do I have to look for another database? The server I will use is a VPS with limited amount of memory, around 512MB, but I want good database performance. Are disc_copies and the other types of tables in Mnesia so limited as I have understood?

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  • Looking for a .Net ORM

    - by SLaks
    I'm looking for a .Net 3.5 ORM framework with a rather unusual set of requirements: I need to create and alter tables at runtime with schemas defined by my end-users. (Obviously, that wouldn't be strongly-typed; I'm looking for something like a DataTable there) I also want regular strongly-typed partial classes for rows in non-dynamic tables, with custom validation and other logic. (Like normal ORMs) I want to load the entire database (or some entire tables) once, and keep it in memory throughout the life of the (WinForms) GUI. (I have a shared SQL Server with a relatively slow connection) I also want regular LINQ support (like LINQ-to-SQL) for ASP.Net on the shared server (which has a fast connection to SQL Server) In addition to SQL Server, I also want to be able to use a single-file database that would support XCopy deployment (without installing SQL CE on the end-user's machine). (Probably Access or SQLite) Finally, it has to be free (unless it's OpenAccess) I'll probably have to write it myself, as I don't think there is an existing ORM that meets these requirements. However, I don't want to re-invent the wheel if there is one, hence this question. I'm using VS2010, but I don't know when my webhost (LFC) will upgrade to .Net 4.0

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  • What are some techniques to monitor multiple instances of a piece of software?

    - by Geo Ego
    I have a piece of self-serve kiosk software that will be running at multiple sites. I'd like to monitor their status remotely. The kiosk application itself is pretty much finished. I am now in the process of creating a piece of software that will monitor all of the kiosks from a central location so that the customer can view particular details remotely (for instance, how many bills are in the acceptor's cash cartridge, what customer is currently logged in, etc.). Because I am in such an early stage of development, my options are quite open. I understand that I'm not giving very many qualifications, but I'd like to try to get a good variety of potential solutions. Some details: Kiosk software is a VB6 app running on Windows Embedded Monitoring software will be run on a modern desktop version of Windows (either XP, Vista, or 7) Database is SQL Server 2008 My initial idea was to develop a .NET app that would simply report the last database transaction for each kiosk at a set interval (say every second or so) but I'd really like for the kiosk software to report its status directly. I'm not exactly sure where to begin in terms of what modifications may need to be made to the kiosk software, and what the monitoring software will require. Links to articles on these topics would be most welcome.

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  • How can I turn a column name into a result value in SQL Server?

    - by Brennan
    I have a table which has essentially boolean values in a legacy database. The column names are stored as string values in another table so I need to match the column names of one table to a string value in another table. I know there has to be a way to do this directly with SQL in SQL Server but it is beyond me. My initial thought was to use PIVOT but it is not enabled by default and enabling it would likely be a difficult process with pushing that change to the Production database. I would prefer to use what is enabled by default. I am considering using COALESCE to translate the boolean value to the string that value that I need. This will be a manual process. I think I will also use a table variable to insert the results of the first query into that variable and use those results to do the second query. I still have the problem that the columns are on a single row so I wish I could easily pivot the values to put the column names in the result set as strings. But if I could easily do that I could easily write the query with a sub-select. Any tips are welcome.

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  • Ideal Multi-Developer Lamp Stack?

    - by devians
    I would like to build an 'ideal' lamp development stack. Dual Server (Virtualised, ESX) Apache / PHP on one, Databases (MySQL, PgSQL, etc) on the other. User (Developer) Manageable mini environments, or instance. Each developer instance shares the top level config (available modules and default config etc) A developer should have control over their apache and php version for each project. A developer might be able to change minor settings, ie magicquotes on for legacy code. Each project would determine its database provider in its code The idea is that it is one administrate-able server that I can control, and provide globally configured things like APC, Memcached, XDebug etc. Then by moving into subsets for each project, i can allow my users to quickly control their environments for various projects. Essentially I'm proposing the typical system of a developer running their own stack on their own machine, but centralised. In this way I'd hope to avoid problems like Cross OS code problems, database inconsistencies, slightly different installs producing bugs etc. I'm happy to manage this in custom builds from source, but if at all possible it would be great to have a large portion of it managed with some sort of package management. We typically use CentOS, so yum? Has anyone ever built anything like this before? Is there something turnkey that is similar to what I have described? Are there any useful guides I should be reading in order to build something like this?

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  • Windows Service Conundrum

    - by Paul Johnson
    All, I have a Custom object which I have written using VB.NET (.net 2.0). The object instantiates its own threading.timer object and carries out a number of background process including periodic interrogation of an oracle database and delivery of emails via smtp according to data detected in the database. The following is the code implemented in the windows service class Public Class IncidentManagerService 'Fakes Private _fakeRepoFactory As IRepoFactory Private _incidentRepo As FakeIncidentRepo Private _incidentDefinitionRepo As FakeIncidentDefinitionRepo Private _incManager As IncidentManager.Session 'Real Private _started As Boolean = False Private _repoFactory As New NHibernateRepoFactory Private _psalertsEventRepo As IPsalertsEventRepo = _repoFactory.GetPsalertsEventRepo() Protected Overrides Sub OnStart(ByVal args() As String) ' Add code here to start your service. This method should set things ' in motion so your service can do its work. If Not _started Then Startup() _started = True End If End Sub Protected Overrides Sub OnStop() 'Tear down class variables in order to ensure the service stops cleanly _incManager.Dispose() _incidentDefinitionRepo = Nothing _incidentRepo = Nothing _fakeRepoFactory = Nothing _repoFactory = Nothing End Sub Private Sub Startup() Dim incidents As IList(Of Incident) = Nothing Dim incidentFactory As New IncidentFactory incidents = IncidentFactory.GetTwoFakeIncidents _repoFactory = New NHibernateRepoFactory _fakeRepoFactory = New FakeRepoFactory(incidents) _incidentRepo = _fakeRepoFactory.GetIncidentRepo _incidentDefinitionRepo = _fakeRepoFactory.GetIncidentDefinitionRepo 'Start an incident manager session _incManager = New IncidentManager.Session(_incidentRepo, _incidentDefinitionRepo, _psalertsEventRepo) _incManager.Start() End Sub End Class After a little bit of experimentation I arrived at the above code in the OnStart method. All functionality passed testing when deployed from VS2005 on my development PC, however when deployed on a true target machine, the service would not start and responds with the following message: "The service on local computer started and then stopped..." Am I going about this the correct way? If not how can I best implement my incident manager within the confines of the Windows Service class. It seems pointless to implement a timer for the incidentmanager because this already implements its own timer... Any assistance much appreciated. Kind Regards Paul J.

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  • Silverlight MediaElement Position Property Weirdness

    - by BarrettJ
    I have a MediaElement that is reporting its position incorrectly and weirdly, but consistently. It seems like when it gets to the last second of the audio (and it's always the last second, regardless if the sound is two seconds or 10), it doesn't update it's position until it finishes. Example output: Playback Progress: 0/3.99 - 0 Playback Progress: 0.01/3.99 - 0 Playback Progress: 0.03/3.99 - 0 Playback Progress: 0.06/3.99 - 1 Playback Progress: 0.07/3.99 - 1 Playback Progress: 0.08/3.99 - 2 Playback Progress: 0.11/3.99 - 2 Playback Progress: 0.14/3.99 - 3 Playback Progress: 0.19/3.99 - 4 Playback Progress: 0.23/3.99 - 5 Playback Progress: 0.25/3.99 - 6 Playback Progress: 0.28/3.99 - 7 Playback Progress: 0.3/3.99 - 7 Playback [SNIP] Playback Progress: 2.8/3.99 - 70 Playback Progress: 2.83/3.99 - 70 Playback Progress: 2.88/3.99 - 72 Playback Progress: 2.9/3.99 - 72 Playback Progress: 2.91/3.99 - 72 Playback Progress: 2.92/3.99 - 73 Playback Progress: 2.99/3.99 - 74 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3.99/3.99 - 100 That is the result of: WriteLine("Playback Progress: " + Position + "/" + LengthInSeconds + " - " + (int)((Position / LengthInSeconds) * 100)); public double Position { get { return my_media_element != null ? my_media_element.Position.TotalSeconds : 0; } } public double LengthInSeconds { get { return my_media_element != null ? my_media_element.NaturalDuration.TimeSpan.TotalSeconds : 0; } } Anyone have any ideas why this is occurring?

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  • Correctly use dependency injection

    - by Rune
    Me and two other colleagues are trying to understand how to best design a program. For example, I have an interface ISoda and multiple classes that implement that interface like Coke, Pepsi, DrPepper, etc.... My colleague is saying that it's best to put these items into a database like a key/value pair. For example: Key | Name -------------------------------------- Coke | my.namespace.Coke, MyAssembly Pepsi | my.namespace.Pepsi, MyAssembly DrPepper | my.namespace.DrPepper, MyAssembly ... then have XML configuration files that map the input to the correct key, query the database for the key, then create the object. I don't have any specific reasons, but I just feel that this is a bad design, but I don't know what to say or how to correctly argue against it. My second colleague is suggesting that we micro-manage each of these classes. So basically the input would go through a switch statement, something similiar to this: ISoda soda; switch (input) { case "Coke": soda = new Coke(); break; case "Pepsi": soda = new Pepsi(); break; case "DrPepper": soda = new DrPepper(); break; } This seems a little better to me, but I still think there is a better way to do it. I've been reading up on IoC containers the last few days and it seems like a good solution. However, I'm still very new to dependency injection and IoC containers, so I don't know how to correctly argue for it. Or maybe I'm the wrong one and there's a better way to do it? If so, can someone suggest a better method? What kind of arguments can I bring to the table to convince my colleagues to try another method? What are the pros/cons? Why should we do it one way? Unfortunately, my colleagues are very resistant to change so I'm trying to figure out how I can convince them.

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  • Python: How to execute a SQL file or command

    - by Mestika
    Hi, I have this Python script: import sys import getopt import timeit import random import os import re import ibm_db import time from string import maketrans runs=5 queries=50 file = open("results.txt", "a") for r in range(5): print "Run %s\n" % r os.system("python reads.py -r1 -pquery1.sql -q50 -sespec") file.write('END QUERY READ 01') file.close() os.system("python query_read_02.py") Everything here is working, it is creating the results.txt file, it run the os.system("python reads.py...") file and that file is doing everything it's suppose to, but the problem comes when go and run the query_read_02.py file. In this file, it should execute a SQL command or a SQL file on my database, so I can create an index and see what the performance of that input is, but how do i do it? I create the connection to the database in the reads.py file, but it's hard to create the queries in there because I doesn't keep track of which file it has reached, it just execute commands from what the parameters are. I hope I've explained myself clear enough, otherwise please let me know. I just want to execute a SQL command or file which each query_read_0x.py file. Sincerely Mestika

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  • Stock management of assemblies and its sub parts

    - by The Disintegrator
    I have to track the stock of individual parts and kits (assemblies) and can't find a satisfactory way of doing this. Sample bogus and hyper simplified database: Table prod: prodID 1 prodName Flux capacitor prodCost 900 prodPrice 1350 (900*1.5) prodStock 3 - prodID 2 prodName Mr Fusion prodCost 300 prodPrice 600 (300*2) prodStock 2 - prodID 3 prodName Time travel kit prodCost 1650 (1350+300) prodPrice 2145 (1650*1.3) prodStock 2 Table rels relID 1 relSrc 1 (Flux capacitor) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) - relID 2 relSrc 2 (Mr Fusion) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) prodPrice: it's calculated based on the cost but not in a linear way. In this example for costs of 500 or less, the markup is a 200%. For costs of 500-1000 the markup is 150%. For costs of 1000+ the markup is 130% That's why the time travel kit is much cheaper than the individual parts prodStock: here is my problem. I can sell kits or the individual parts, So the stock of the kits is virtual. The problem when I buy: Some providers sell me the Time Travel kit as a whole (with one barcode) and some sells me the individual parts (with a different barcode) So when I load the stock I don't know how to impute it. The problem when I sell: If I only sell kits, calculate the stock would be easy: "I have 3 Flux capacitors and 2 Mr Fusions, so I have 2 Time travel kits and a Flux Capacitor" But I can sell Kits or individual parts. So, I have to track the stock of the individual parts and the possible kits at the same time (and I have to compensate for the sell price) Probably this is really simple, but I can't see a simple solution. Resuming: I have to find a way of tracking the stock and the database/program is the one who has to do it (I cant ask the clerk to correct the stock) I'm using php+MySql. But this is more a logical problem than a programing one

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  • Should I be relying on WebTests for data validation?

    - by Alexander Kahoun
    I have a suite of web tests created for a web service. I use it for testing a particular input method that updates a SQL Database. The web service doesn't have a way to retrieve the data, that's not its purpose, only to update it. I have a validator that validates the response XML that the web service generates for each request. All that works fine. It was suggested by a teammate that I add data validation so that I check the database to see the data after the initial response validator runs and compare it with what was in the input request. We have a number of services and libraries that are separate from the web service I'm testing that I can use to get the data and compare it. The problem is that when I run the web test the data validation always fails even when the request succeeds. I've tried putting the thread to sleep between the response validation and the data validation but to no avail; It always gets the data from before the response validation. I can set a break point and visually see that the data has been updated in the DB, funny thing is when I step through it in debug with the breakpoint it does validate successfully. Before I get too much more into this issue I have to ask; Is this the purpose of web tests? Should I be able to validate data through service calls in this manner or am I asking too much of a web test and the response validation is as far as I should go?

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  • Linq to SQL with INSTEAD OF Trigger and an Identity Column

    - by Bob Horn
    I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column? This is the Linq-to-SQL: internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode) { ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord() { ProcessCode = processCode, SubId = workflowCreated.SubId, EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead. }; this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord); } This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null. And here is the trigger: ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger] ON [Master].[ProcessLogging] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON; INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser) SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF; END Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error: InvalidOperationException Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert. I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used. Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs? Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons: 1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure) 2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.

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  • Jquery Flexigrid reload only if flexigrid initially ran

    - by John
    Im trying to use flexigrid to show results using the values from a form. So when a person clicks a form I want it to load the flexigrid function if its the first time the person clicked the button to initialize the table. Then if someone adjusts the values in the form then clicks the button again it then reloads the flexigrid table with the new form values. How can I do this in one function? Right now I have the flexigrid code running on page load, then if they click the button it runs this: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#RunReport').click( function() { var report_name = $('input[name=report-name]').val(); var report_cell = $('input[name=report-cell]').val(); var query_url = encodeURI('name=' + report_name + '&cell=' + report_cell); $('#reporting').flexOptions({ url: '/report.php?' + query_url }).flexReload(); }); }); </script> But instead of having it in both functions I wanted it all in one function only running the reload if flexigrid was already initialized. Hope this makes sense, still new at all of this.

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  • vsts load test datasource issues

    - by ashish.s
    Hello, I have a simple test using vsts load test that is using datasource. The connection string for the source is as follows <connectionStrings> <add name="MyExcelConn" connectionString="Driver={Microsoft Excel Driver (*.xls)};Dsn=Excel Files;dbq=loginusers.xls;defaultdir=.;driverid=790;maxbuffersize=4096;pagetimeout=20;ReadOnly=False" providerName="System.Data.Odbc" /> </connectionStrings> the datasource configuration is as follows and i am getting following error estError TestError 1,000 The unit test adapter failed to connect to the data source or to read the data. For more information on troubleshooting this error, see "Troubleshooting Data-Driven Unit Tests" (http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=62412) in the MSDN Library. Error details: ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. ERROR [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. I wrote a test, just to check if i could create an odbc connection would work and that works the test is as follows [TestMethod] public void TestExcelFile() { string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyExcelConn"].ConnectionString; using (OdbcConnection con = new OdbcConnection(connString)) { con.Open(); System.Data.Odbc.OdbcCommand objCmd = new OdbcCommand("SELECT * FROM [loginusers$]"); objCmd.Connection = con; OdbcDataAdapter adapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(objCmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds); Assert.IsTrue(ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 1); } } any ideas ?

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  • PCA extended face recognition

    - by cMinor
    The state of the art says that we can use PCA to perform face recognition. like this, this or this I am working with a project that involves training a classifier to detect a person who is wearing glasess or hats or even a mustache. The purpose of doing this is to detect when a person that has robbed a bank, store, or have commeted some sort of crime(s) (we have their image in a database), enters a certain place ( historically we know these guys have robbed, so we should take care to avoid problems). We came first to have a distributed database with all images of criminals, then I thought to have a layer of them clasifying these criminals using accesories like hats, mustache or anything that hides their face etc... Then, to apply that knowledge to detect when a particular or a suspect person enters a comercial place. ( In practice when someone is going to rob not all the times they are using an accesorie...) What do you think about this idea of doing PCA to first detect principal components of the face and then the components of an accesory. I was thinking that maybe a probabilistic approach is better so we can compute the probability the criminal is the person that entered a place and call the respective authorities.

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  • How can I store HTML in a Doctrine YML fixture

    - by argibson
    I am working with a CMS-type site in Symfony 1.4 (Doctrine 1.2) and one of the things that is frustrating me is not being able to store HTML pages in YML fixtures. Instead I have to create SQL backups of the data if I want to drop and rebuild which is a bit of a pest when Symfony/Doctrine has a fantastic mechanism for doing exactly this. I could write a mechanism that reads in a set of HTML files for each page and fills the data in that way (or even write it as a task). But before I go down that road I am wondering if there is any way for HTML to be stored in a YML fixture so that Doctrine can simply import it into the database. Update: I have tried using symfony doctrine:data-dump and symfony doctrine:data-load however despite the dump correctly creating the fixture with the HTML, the load task appears to 'skip' the value of the column with the HTML and enters everything else into the row. In the database the field doesn't show up as 'NULL' but rather empty so I believe Doctrine is adding the value of the column as ''. Below is a sample of the YML fixture that symfony doctrine:data-dump created. I have tried running symfony doctrine:data-load against various forms of this including removing all the escaped characters (new lines and quotes leaving only angle brackets) but it still doesn't work. Product_69: name: 'My Product' Developer: Developer_30 tagline: 'Text that briefly describes the product' version: '2008' first_published: '' price_code: A79 summary: '' box_image: '' description: "<div id=\"featureSlider\">\n <ul class=\"slider\">\n <li class=\"sliderItem\" title=\"Summary\">\n <div class=\"feature\">\n Some text goes in here</div>\n </li>\n </ul>\n </div>\n" is_visible: true

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  • [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified - works

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am developing a java app (with odbc bridge - forgive me - the only paradox driver I have been able to obtain is the microsoft odbc driver) - which works fine while in eclipse, (and netbeans) - connecting and obtaining data from an ancient paradox 5.x database. So long as it is run from inside my IDE - it compiles and runs flawlessly. When I export it to a runable jar, suddenly [code][Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified[/code] occurs. The jar is being run on the same box as my developing IDE - so I am confused about the cause. It is being run via console from a user account, as per the IDE. My connection string is "jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Paradox Driver (*.db )};DriverID=538; Fil=Paradox 5.X; DefaultDir=C:\paradox\database\location\" - obtained from connectionstrings.com - and as mentioned before, working fine while run from the IDE. The above seems to 'magically' create its own connection, avoiding the setup of a dsn - I am unsure quite how it does - but it works. The only other thing I can think that might be pertinent is that my PC is a 64bit o/s (windows server 2008). Please help, any suggestions or comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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  • SQLDeveloper using over 100MB of PGA

    - by Leigh Riffel
    Perhaps this is normal, but in my Oracle 11g database I am seeing programmers using Oracle's SQL Developer regularly consume more than 100MB of combined UGA and PGA memory. I'd like to know if this is normal and what can be done about it. Our database is on the 32 bit version of Windows 2008, so memory limitations are becoming an increasing concern. I am using the following query to show the memory usage: SELECT e.SID, e.username, e.status, b.PGA_MEMORY FROM v$session e LEFT JOIN (select y.SID, y.value pga, TO_CHAR(ROUND(y.value/1024/1024),99999999) || ' MB' PGA_MEMORY from v$sesstat y, v$statname z where y.STATISTIC# = z.STATISTIC# and NAME = 'session pga memory') b ON e.sid=b.sid WHERE (PGA)/1024/1024 > 20 ORDER BY 4 DESC; It seems that the resource usage goes up any time a table is opened in SQLDeveloper, but even when it is closed the memory does not go away. The problem is worse if the table is sorted while it was open as that seems to use even more memory. I understand how this would use memory while it is sorting, and perhaps even while it is still open, but to use memory after it is closed seems wrong to me. Can anyone confirm this? Update: I discovered that my numbers were off due to not understanding that the UGA is stored in the PGA under dedicated server mode. This makes the numbers lower than they were, but the problem still remains that SQL Developer seems to use excessive PGA.

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  • Help with editing data in entity framework.

    - by Levelbit
    Title of this question is simple because there is no an easy explanation for what I'm trying to ask you. I hope you'll understand in the end :). I have to tables in my database: Company and Location (relationship:one to many) and corresponding entity sets. In my wpf application I have some datagrid which I want to fill with locations and to be able to edit every row in separate window as some form of details view (so I don't want to edit my data in datagrid). I did this by accessing Location entity from selected row and creating a new Location entity and then I copy properties from original entity to newly created. Something like cloning the object. After editing if I press OK changed data is copied to original object back, and if I press Cancel nothing happens. Of course, you probably thinking I could use NoTracking option and AttachAsModified method as was mentioned as solution in some earlier questions(see:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/803022/changing-entities-in-the-entityframework) by Alex James, but lets say I had some problems about that and I have my own reasons for doing this. Finally, because navigation property(Company) of my location entity is assigned to newly created location object(during cloning) from some reason in object context additional object as copy of object I want to edit from datagrid is created without my will(similar problem :http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2009/12/02/tip-47-how-fix-up-can-make-it-hard-to-change-relationships.aspx). So, when I do ObjectContext.SaveChanges it inserts additional row of data into my database table Location, the same as the one i wanted to edit. I read about sth like this, but I don't quite understand why is that and how to block or override this. I hope I was clear as I could. Please, solutions or some other ideas.

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  • [NSFetchedResultsController sections] returns nil?

    - by Chris
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to resolve this for days at this stage and I'm hoping you can help. I have two ViewControllers which query two different tables from the same database using Core Data. The first ViewController is opened with the app and displays fine. The second is called from within the first ViewController, using a pretty standard fetch setup: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedClients { // Set up the fetched results controller if needed. if (fetchedClients == nil) { // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Clients" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // Edit the sort key as appropriate. NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"clientsName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; // Edit the section name key path and cache name if appropriate. // nil for section name key path means "no sections". NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedClients = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; } return fetchedClients; } When I call [self.fetchedClients sections], I get a nil (0x0) return. I have examined the database using an external application to ensure data exists in the "Clients" table. Can anyone think of a reason why [self.fetchedClients sections] would return nil? Many thanks for any help you can provide. Regards, Chris

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  • Codeigniter: Base_url doesn't seem to be working

    - by Dwayne
    I have developed a simple site that fetches tweets from the Twitter public timeline, caches them for 60 seconds and so on. I have recently moved hosts from Hostgator to Mediatemple and my site was previously working fine on Hostgator. My application doesn't use a database connection, nor does it use any form of flat-file database either. Tweets are cached in an XML file stored in the root directory, not that most of that is important. The url helper is being included as can be seen below (this is my helpers line from autoload.php): $autoload['helper'] = array('url'); I have also removed my index.php file from the URL using .htaccess directives and once again this was previously working on Hostgator (see my .htaccess code below): RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(application) - [F,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule .* index.php/$0 [PT,L] In my home.php view file which is in the views folder inside of application, I am using the function base_url() which was previously working on Hostgator inside of my view files and appending it a base href value in my header: <base href="<?php echo base_url(); ?>" /> Here is what my base_url value looks like in the config.php file: $config['base_url'] = "http://threetune.com/"; Although what appears to be happening is that the base_url is not to be seen at all. It doesn't appear to be echoing out the value of base_url as it appears to be empty for some reason. What makes things weirder is that I have a link in another view file called 'fetch.php' and for some reason it appears to be stripping out the value (XSS filtering is off): <a href="threetune/show"><img src="assets/images/cookie.jpg" /></a> The threetune/show part is not to be seen and I only see an empty href value like this <a href=""><img src="assets/images/cookie.jpg" /></a> Can anyone possibly see anything wrong that I may have done, some kind of Mediatemple server limitation or PHP.ini flag that needs to be set? Thank you and I hope I was descriptive enough.

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  • LINQ - How to query a range of effective dates that only has start dates

    - by itchi
    I'm using C# 3.5 and EntityFramework. I have a list of items in the database that contain interest rates. Unfortunately this list only contains the Effective Start Date. I need to query this list for all items within a range. However, I can't see a way to do this without querying the database twice. (Although I'm wondering if delayed execution with EntityFramework is making only one call.) Regardless, I'm wondering if I can do this without using my context twice. internal IQueryable<Interest> GetInterests(DateTime startDate, DateTime endDate) { var FirstDate = Context.All().Where(x => x.START_DATE < startDate).Max(x => x.START_DATE); IQueryable<Interest> listOfItems = Context.All().Where(x => x.START_DATE >= FirstDate && x.START_DATE <= endDate); return listOfItems; }

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  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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  • Sqlite3 "chained" query

    - by Arrieta
    I need to create a configuration file from a data file that looks as follows: MAN1_TIME '01-JAN-2010 00:00:00.0000 UTC' MAN1_RX 123.45 MAN1_RY 123.45 MAN1_RZ 123.45 MAN1_NEXT 'MAN2' MAN2_TIME '01-MAR-2010 00:00:00.0000 UTC' MAN2_RX 123.45 [...] MAN2_NEXT 'MANX' [...] MANX_TIME [...] This file describes different "legs" of a trajectory. In this case, MAN1 is chained to MAN2, and MAN2 to MANX. In the original file, the chains are not as obvious (i.e., they are non-sequential). I've managed to read the file and store in an Sqlite3 database (I'm using the Python interface). The table is stored with three columns: Id, Par, and Val; for instance, Id='MAN1', Par='RX', and Val='123.45'. I'm interested in querying such database for obtaining the information related to 'n' legs. In English, that would be: "Select RX,RY,RZ for the next five legs starting on MAN1" So the query would go to MAN1, retrieve RX, RY, RZ, then read the parameter NEXT and go to that Id, retrieve RX, RY, RZ; read the parameter NEXT; go to that one ... like this five times. How can I pass such query with "dynamic parameters"? Thank you.

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  • ASP.NET: Custom MembershipProvider with a custom user table

    - by blahblah
    I've recently started tinkering with ASP.NET MVC, but this question should apply to classic ASP.NET as well. For what it's worth, I don't know very much about forms authentication and membership providers either. I'm trying to write my own MembershipProvider which will be connected to my own custom user table in my database. My user table contains all of the basic user information such as usernames, passwords, password salts, e-mail addresses and so on, but also information such as first name, last name and country of residence. As far as I understand, the standard way of doing this in ASP.NET is to create a user table without the extra information and then a "profile" table with the extra information. However, this doesn't sound very good to me, because whenever I need to access that extra information I would have to make one extra database query to get it. I read in the book "Pro ASP.NET 3.5 in C# 2008" that having a separate table for the profiles is not a very good idea if you need to access the profile table a lot and have many different pages in your website. Now for the problem at hand... As I said, I'm writing my own custom MembershipProvider subclass and it's going pretty well so far, but now I've come to realize that the CreateUser doesn't allow me to create users in the way I'd like. The method only takes a fixed number of arguments and first name, last name and country of residence are not part of them. So how would I create an entry for the new user in my custom table without this information at hand in CreateUser of my MembershipProvider?

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