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• CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

  - by Philip Rich

  I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

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• Is there a module for parsing numbers (inkl. ranges)?

  - by sid_com

  Is there a module, which does this for me? #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.012; sub aw_parse { my( $in, $max ) = @_; chomp $in; my @array = split ( /\s*,\s*/, $in ); my %zahlen; for ( @array ) { if ( /^\s*(\d+)\s*$/ ) { $zahlen{$1}++; } elsif ( /^\s*(\d+)\s*-\s*(\d+)\s*$/ ) { die "'$1-$2' not a valid input $!" if $1 >= $2; for ( $1 .. $2 ) { $zahlen{$_}++; } } else { die "'$_' not a valid input $!"; } } @array = sort { $a <=> $b } keys ( %zahlen ); if ( defined $max ) { for ( @array ) { die "Input '0' not allowed $!" if $_ == 0; die "Input ($_) greater than $max not allowed $!" if $_ > $max; } } return \@array; } my $max = 20; print "Input (max $max): "; my $in = <>; my $out = aw_parse( $in, $max ); say "@$out";

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• entity framework navigation property further filter without loading into memory

  - by cellik

  Hi, I've two entities with 1 to N relation in between. Let's say Books and Pages. Book has a navigation property as Pages. Book has BookId as an identifier and Page has an auto generated id and a scalar property named PageNo. LazyLoading is set to true. I've generated this using VS2010 & .net 4.0 and created a database from that. In the partial class of Book, I need a GetPage function like below public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { //checking whether it exist etc are not included for simplicity return Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber).First(); } This works. However, since Pages property in the Book is an EntityCollection it has to load all Pages of a book in memory in order to get the one page (this slows down the app when this function is hit for the first time for a given book). i.e. Framework does not merge the queries and run them at once. It loads the Pages in memory and then uses LINQ to objects to do the second part To overcome this I've changed the code as follows public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { MyContainer container = new MyContainer(); return container.Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber && p.Book.BookId==BookId).First(); } This works considerably faster however it doesn't take into account the pages that have not been serialized to the db. So, both options has its cons. Is there any trick in the framework to overcome this situation. This must be a common scenario where you don't want all of the objects of a Navigation property loaded in memory when you don't need them.

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• What are the best practices for unit testing properties with code in the setter?

  - by nportelli

  I'm fairly new to unit testing and we are actually attempting to use it on a project. There is a property like this. public TimeSpan CountDown { get { return _countDown; } set { long fraction = value.Ticks % 10000000; value -= TimeSpan.FromTicks(fraction); if(fraction > 5000000) value += TimeSpan.FromSeconds(1); if(_countDown != value) { _countDown = value; NotifyChanged("CountDown"); } } } My test looks like this. [TestMethod] public void CountDownTest_GetSet_PropChangedShouldFire() { ManualRafflePresenter target = new ManualRafflePresenter(); bool fired = false; string name = null; target.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler((o, a) => { fired = true; name = a.PropertyName; }); TimeSpan expected = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 25); TimeSpan actual; target.CountDown = expected; actual = target.CountDown; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.IsTrue(fired); Assert.AreEqual("CountDown", name); } The question is how do I test the code in the setter? Do I break it out into a method? If I do it would probably be private since no one else needs to use this. But they say not to test private methods. Do make a class if this is the only case? would two uses of this code make a class worthwhile? What is wrong with this code from a design standpoint. What is correct?

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• PHP loop hanging/interspersed/threaded through HTML

  - by sandyv

  I can't figure out how to say what I'm talking about which is a big part of why I'm stuck. In PHP I often see code like this html <?php language construct that uses brackets { some code; ?> more html <?php some more code; } ?> rest of html Is there any name for this? Having seen this lead me to try it out so here is a concrete example whose behavior doesn't make sense to me <div id="content"> <ul id="nav"> <?php $path = 'content'; $dir = dir($path); while(false !== ($file = $dir->read())) { if(preg_match('/.+\.txt/i', $file)) { echo "<li>$file</li>"; ?> </ul> <?php echo file_get_contents($path . '/' . $file); } } ?> </div> Which outputs roughly <div><ul><li></li></ul><li></li>...</div> instead of <div><ul><li></li>...</ul></div> which is what I thought would happen and what I want to happen.

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• Accessing appropriate array of double arrays in order of last created.

  - by Zach

  I have an array of double arrays, they are within a specified time window (8am-5pm), and are in order of last created over a period of several days. They are all timestamped and as such I have access to all C# DateTime methods. I then have a different iterative function that goes in the same order of the array of double arrays, however it isn't within a specified time window, it's 24/7. I want to access from this iterative function, the appropriate double array from the one within the window. Let's say that it's 4:30PM on DayOfYear 52, I'd like to access the last double array less than or equal to 4:30PM on DayOfYear 52. I'd expect the same double array if the time were 12:30AM on DayOfYear 53. However, if it were 9:00 AM of DayOfYear 53, well then I'd expect it to return something from the DayOfYear 53, less than or equal to 9:00AM. I think you get the idea. So I'm a having a bit of trouble grokking how to do this. Is anyone willing to offer a starting point or how they'd approach it? Edit: It is not a literal double[][], it is exactly as Anthony Pegram says: Dictionary<DateTime, double[]>

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• How did you learn to be a programming guru?

  - by Xonara

  College courses are obviously very helpful, but I hear all the time about great programmers that just "taught themselves," and I wonder how the hell they did it. Online tutorials are nice - online support, even better - but learning with nothing but online resources is difficult to say the least, and I don't know anybody that's experienced enough to help me learn. Even if I did, they probably wouldn't have the time for it. Any advice is greatly appreciated. Becoming an application/game designer is something I've wanted to achieve for a long, long time, even if I never use it for a career, and it does mean alot to me. However, I'm constantly thwarted by lack of motivation, or perhaps confidence. Though I've found some good tutorials online, sometimes I feel it just isn't enough to really get me somewhere, and my limited knowledge of computers (and any other technology) in general is hardly reassuring. I'm constantly getting the feeling that maybe it isn't "in me." Well, guess that's it. I just don't want to join the legions of aspiring techies that just gave up.

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• How to add additional condition to the JOIN generated by include?

  - by KandadaBoggu

  I want to add additional criteria to the LEFT OUTER JOIN generated by the :include option in ActiveRecord finder. class Post has_many :comments end class Comment belongs_to :post has_many :comment_votes end class CommentVote belongs_to :comment end Now lets say I want to find last 10 posts with their associated comments and the up comment votes. Post.find.all(:limit => 10, :order => "created_at DESC", :include => [{:comments => :comment_votes]) I cant add the condition to check for up votes as it will ignore the posts without the up votes. So the condition has to go the ON clause of the JOIN generated for the comment_votes. I am wishing for a syntax such as: Post.find.all(:limit => 10, :order => "created_at DESC", :include => [{:comments => [:comment_votes, :on => "comment_votes.vote > 0"]) Have you faced such problems before? Did you managed to solve the problem using the current finder? I hope to hear some interesting ideas from the community. PS: I can write a join SQL to get the expected result and stitch the results together. I want to make sure there is no other alternative before going down that path.

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• DotNetOpenAuth getting return_To url as the provider

  - by Jeff

  I have a provider that I'm upgrading from version 2 to version 3. basically a user comes to one of our sites and we say "if you don't have an openID sign up with this one" They click that and are sent to our in house provider what signs them up for an account and has to verify their email address. In the link I send via Email I included the return to url . This way when they click the link to verify their email (sometimes up to a week later) they are sent to our page that knows to send them back to the returnTo to login. I could not find a good way to do this in version 2 so I used a hack. Sadly this hack broke in version 2 so I'm completely stumped as to how to find the login page url that is the return_To Note: I need the full URL not just the domain. old hack: if (ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest != null) { req = ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString(); int startpos = req.LastIndexOf("CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '"); startpos += "CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '".Length; int endpos = req.LastIndexOf("token=") - startpos-1; if (endpos > 0) { req = req.Substring(startpos, endpos); } else { log.Fatal("Missing token in url" + ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString()); return "~/"; } req = req.Replace("&internalLogin=True", ""); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True&", "?"); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True", ""); }

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• PHP, MySQL: Security concern; Page loads in a weird way

  - by Devner

  Hi all, I am testing the security of my website. I am using the following URL to load a PHP page in my website, on localhost: http://localhost/domain/user/index.php/apple.php When I do this, the page is not loading normally; Instead the images, icons used in the page simply vanish/disappear from the page. Only text appears. And also on any link I click on this page, it brings me to this same page again without navigating to the required page. So if I have hyperlinks to other pages, such as "SEARCH", which points to search.php, instead of navigating to the search.php page, it refreshes the index.php page and just appends the page name of the destination page to the end of the URL. For example, say I used the link above. It then loads the index.php page minus the images at it's will. When I click on the "Search" link to navigate to the search page, I see the following in the URL: http://localhost/domain/user/index.php/search.php I have a redirection configured to a 404 error page in my .htaccess file, but the page does not redirect to the 404 error page. Notice the search.php towards the end of the URL above. Any other link that I click, reloads the index.php page and just appends the destination page name to the end of the URL like I have shown above. I was expecting to see a 404 Error but that does not happen. The URL should not even be able to load the page because I do NOT have a "index.php" folder in my website. What can I do to solve this? All help is appreciated. Thank you.

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• How do you unit test new code that uses a bunch of classes that cannot be instantiated in a test har

  - by trendl

  I'm writing a messaging layer that should handle communication with a third party API. The API has a bunch of classes that cannot be easily (if at all) instantiated in a test harness. I decided to wrap each class that I need in my unit tests with an adapter/wrapper and expose the members I need through this adapter class. Often I need to expose the wrapped type as well which I do by exposing it as an object. I have also provided an interface for for each or the adapter classes to be able to use them with a mocking framework. This way I can substitute the classes in test for whatever I need. The downside is that I have a bunch of adapter classes that so far server no other reason but testing. For me this is a good reason by itself but others may find this not enough. Possibly, when I write an implementation for another third party vendor's API, I may be able to reuse much of my code and only provide the adapters specific to the vendor's API. However, this is a bit of a long shot and I'm not actually sure it will work. What do you think? Is this approach viable or am I writing unnecessary code that serves no real purpose? Let me say that I do want to write unit tests for my messaging layer and I do now know how to do it otherwise.

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• SpringFramework3.0: How to create interceptors that only apply to requests that map to certain contr

  - by Fusion2004

  In it's simplest form, I want an interceptor that checks session data to see if a user is logged in, and if not redirects them to the login page. Obviously, I wouldn't want this interceptor to be used on say the welcome page or the login page itself. I've seen a design that uses a listing of every url to one of two interceptors, one doing nothing and the other being the actual interceptor you want implemented, but this design seems very clunky and limits the ease of extensibility of the application. It makes sense to me that there should be an annotation-based way of using interceptors, but this doesn't seem to exist. My friend has the idea of actually modifying the handler class so that during each request it checks the Controller it is mapping the request to for a new annotation we would create (ex @Interceptor("loginInterceptor") ). A major point of my thinking is the extensibility, because I'd like to later implement similar interceptors for role-based authentication and/or administration authentication. Does it sound like my friend's approach would work for this? Or what is a proper way of going about doing this?

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• Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

  - by Avatar_Squadron

  Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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• PHP Object Creation and Memory Usage

  - by JohnO

  A basic dummy class: class foo { var $bar = 0; function foo() {} function boo() {} } echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; $foo = new foo(); echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; unset($foo); echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; $foo = null; echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; Outputs: $ php test.php 353672 353792 353792 353792 Now, I know that PHP docs say that memory won't be freed until it is needed (hitting the ceiling). However, I wrote this up as a small test, because I've got a much longer task, using a much bigger object, with many instances of that object. And the memory just climbs, eventually running out and stopping execution. Even though these large objects do take up memory, since I destroy them after I'm done with each one (serially), it should not run out of memory (unless a single object exhausts the entire space for memory, which is not the case). Thoughts?

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• Invoking different methods on threads

  - by Kraken

  I have a main process main. It creates 10 threads (say) and then what i want to do is the following: while(required){ Thread t= new Thread(new ClassImplementingRunnable()); t.start(); counter++; } Now i have the list of these threads, and for each thread i want to do a set of process, same for all, hence i put that implementation in the run method of ClassImplementingRunnable. Now after the threads have done their execution, i wan to wait for all of them to stop, and then evoke them again, but this time i want to do them serially not in parallel. for this I join each thread, to wait for them to finish execution but after that i am not sure how to evoke them again and run that piece of code serially. Can i do something like for(each thread){ t.reevoke(); //how can i do that. t.doThis(); // Also where does `dothis()` go, given that my ClassImplementingRunnable is an inner class. } Also, i want to use the same thread, i.e. i want the to continue from where they left off, but in a serial manner. I am not sure how to go about the last piece of pseudo code. Kindly help. Working with with java.

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• C# How to create various objects at runtime that can hold strongly typed data?

  - by JL

  Is it possible to create objects at runtime without having to have hard coded class definitions, then populate properties with primitives or even strongly typed data types? For example: Lets say I want to an XML config file that could hold configuration values for connecting to various systems in an SOA application. In C# I read in these values, but for each system the properties are different (e.g: SQL might have a connection string, while SharePoint might need a username + password + domain + url, while yet an smtp server would need username + password + port + url) So instead of creating static classes as follows public class SharePointConfiguration or public class SQLConfiguration, then have each class with custom properties (this is cumbersome) Is there not a more preferred way to achieve this, without using 1990's methods, in otherwords it would still be nice to have intellisense and code completion and named properties. Since this collection of properties (object) would be passed within the class and possible to other classes from function to function I am also wondering where this class definition would get defined if its all happening at run time. Any recommendations, and hope the question was clear enough. Would like to use language features, not hacks. Thank you.

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• How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

  - by Pavan

  my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

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• How to test routes that don't include controller?

  - by Darren Green

  I'm using minitest in Rails to do testing, but I'm running into a problem that I hope a more seasoned tester can help me out with because I've tried looking everywhere for the answer, but it doesn't seem that anyone has run into this problem or if they have, they opted for an integration test. Let's say I have a controller called Foo and action in it called bar. So the foo_controller.rb file looks like this: class FooController < ApplicationController def bar render 'bar', :layout => 'application' end end The thing is that I don't want people to access the "foo/bar" route directly. So I have a route that is get 'baz' => 'foo#bar'. Now I want to test the FooController: require 'minitest_helper' class FooControllerTest < ActionController::TestCase def test_should_get_index get '/baz' end end But the test results in an error that No route matches {:controller=>"foo", :action=>"/baz"}. How do I specify the controller for the GET request? Sorry if this is a dumb question. It's been very hard for me to find the answer.

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• Keeping track of dependency revisions

  - by Samaursa

  I have a project with several dependencies that are in various repositories. Each time I commit changes to my project, I make sure I write the revision numbers of all the dependent repositories so that in the event I ever have to come back to this revision (let's call it 5), I can immediately know which revisions of the dependent repositories revision 5 is guaranteed to work with, update the dependencies to the specified revisions, compile and run the project. So for example if I have: Dep1 @ Revisions 10 Dep2 @ Revisions 20 Dep3 @ Revisions 10 Proj @ Revisions 35 And let's say that when Proj was on revision 17, the Dep1 revision was 5, Dep2 revision was 13 and Dep3 revision was 3. So in my SVN logs, I recorded something like this: !! Works with Dep1 Rev 5, Dep2 Rev 13, Dep3 Rev 3 To me this seems primitive and makes me believe that there is a better way to do it. Now in one of my other questions, Ivy Dependency Manager has been recommended. I have not looked at it in detail yet (seems complicated and yet another thing I must learn). To me it seems like the log of SVN (and Mercurial etc.) could have been split into Log and Dependencies (if any) where the latter could be switched off if there were no dependencies (unless of course I am unaware of an easier/better solution). This would allow for a cleaner log that maybe even warned at each new commit to check the previously defined dependencies again and make sure they have not changed. So, I was wondering how everyone manages this situations and if you have any tips, techniques, programs, suggestions that you can offer. Thank you.

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• Is there a way for -webkit-animtion-timing-function to apply to the entire animation instead of each keyframe?

  - by Ken Sykora

  I'm a bit new to animation, so forgive me if I'm missing a huge concept here. I need to animate an arrow that is pointing to a point on a curve, let's just say it's a cubic curve for the sake of this post. The arrow moves along the curve's line, always pointing a few pixels below it. So what I did, is I setup keyframes along the curve's line using CSS3: @-webkit-keyframes ftch { 0% { opacity: 0; left: -10px; bottom: 12px; } 25% { opacity: 0.25; left: 56.5px; bottom: -7px; } 50% { opacity: 0.5; left: 143px; bottom: -20px; } 75% { opacity: 0.75; left: 209.5px; bottom: -24.5px; } 100% { opacity: 1; left: 266px; bottom: -26px; } } However, when I run this animation using -webkit-animation-timing-function: ease-in, it applies that easing to each individual keyframe, which is definitely not what I want. I want the easing to apply to the entire animation. Is there a different way that I should be doing this? Is there some property to apply the easing to the entire sequence rather than each keyframe?

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• Php string handling triks

  - by Dam

  Hi my question Need to get the 10 word before and 10 words after for the given text . i mean need to start the 10 words before the keyword and end with 10 word after the key word. Given text : "Twenty-three" The main trick : content having some html tags etc .. tags need to keep that tag with this content only . need to display the words from 10before - 10after content is bellow : <div id="hpFeatureBoxInt"><h3><a href="/go/homepage/i/int/news/world/1/-/news/1/hi/world/europe/8592190.stm">Suicide bombings hit Moscow Metro</a></h3><p>Past suicide bombings in Moscow have been blamed on Islamist rebels At least 35 people have been killed after two female suicide bombers blew themselves up on Moscow Metro trains in the morning rush hour,<h2><span class="dy">Top News Story</span></h2> officials say.<img height="150" width="201" alt="Emergency services carry a body from a Metro station in Moscow (29 March 2010)" src="http://wwwimg.bbc.co.uk/feedengine/homepage/images/_47550689_moscowap203_201x150.jpg">Twenty-three died in the first blast at 0756 (0356 GMT) as a<a href="#"> train stood </a>at the central Lubyanka station, beneath the offices of the FSB intelligence agency.About 40 minutes later, a second explosion ripped through a train at Park Kultury, leaving another 12 dead.No-one has said they carried out the worst attack in the capital since 2004. </p><p id="fbilisten"><a href="/go/homepage/i/int/news/heading/-/news/">More from BBC News</a></p></div> Thank you

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• What are the constraints on Cocoa Framework version numbers?

  - by Joe

  We're distributing a Cocoa framework with regular updates. We'll be updating the version numbers with each release. The Apple documentation appears to suggest that version numbers should be consecutive incrementing integers. We are distributing output in several formats, and the framework is only one of them. We would rather not have to maintain a separate numbering system just for our frameworks. We don't really care about the precise format of the version numbers of the framework, so long as they change whenever the product changes, and behave in a correct and expected manner. I'm looking for a sensible and correct way of avoiding having to run a separate version number counter. One suggestion is that for product version 12.34.56 we could simply remove the dots and say the framework version is 123456. Is there a constraint on the type of number that can be represented (uint? long?) Does it have to be a number? Could it be a string? Do the numbers have to be consecutive? Is there a standard way of doing things in this situation?

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• Expandable paragraphs with HTML and CSS

  - by user3704175

  I was wondering if anyone here would be as so kind as to help me out a bit. I am looking to make expandable paragraphs for my client's website. They would like to keep all of the content from their site, which is pretty massive, and they want a total overhaul of the design. They mainly wan tot keep it for SEO purposes. Anyhow, I thought it would be helpful for the both of use if there is some way to use expandable paragraphs, you know, with a "read more..." link after a certain line of text. I know that there are some JQuery and Java solutions for this, but we really would like to stay away from those options, if at all possible. When would like HTML and CSS, if we can. Here is kind of an example: HEADING HERE Paragraph with a bunch of text. I would like this to appear in a pre-determined line. For example, maybe the start of the paragraph goes on for, let's say, three lines and then we have the [read more...] When the visitor clicks "read more", we would like the rest of the content to just expand to reveal the article in its entirety. I would like for the content to already be on the page, so it just expands. I don't want it to be called in from another file or anything, if that makes sense. Thank you in advance for any and all help. It will be greatly appreciated! Testudo

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• Modify attribute of certain XML elements

  - by hgpc

  I would like to modify an attribute of a very long xml like this: <element index="0"> <subelement bla="asdf" /> <subelement bla="asdf" /> </element> <element index="1"> <subelement bla="asdf" /> <subelement bla="asdf" /> </element> ... I need to add N the value of each index attribute. Say N=5. The result would be: <element index="5"> <subelement bla="asdf" /> <subelement bla="asdf" /> </element> <element index="6"> <subelement bla="asdf" /> <subelement bla="asdf" /> </element> ... What's the easiest way to do this? I presume it would be with XSLT, but I don't know how to do it. Thanks!

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• Move iFrame in the DOM using jQuery

  - by Josh

  My overall aim is to create an editor which I can skin using jQuery UI (by creating a custom toolbar which uses integration calls), using TinyMCE. Lets say I have a TinyMCE editor on a page. The actual editor is an iFrame contained inside a lot of horrible table code, which is also where the current (to be scrapped) toolbar is. I want just the iframe inside a div - ideally get rid of the table code. So...I want to transform: <table> <tr> <td><iframe id="xyz"></iframe></td> </tr> </table> into <div id="test"> <iframe id="xyz"></iframe> </div> So far, I've tried using: $('#xyz').clone(true).appendTo('#test'); Which clones the iframe, but no content inside it. Is there a way to make this work? If not, can I somehow strip the table code from around the iFrame away? If I cant do that, I'll think I'll have to keep the table code.

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