Search Results

Search found 37654 results on 1507 pages for 'function prototypes'.

Page 733/1507 | < Previous Page | 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740  | Next Page >

• Facebook XFBML Like Button incompatible with FeatureLoader script?

  - by retailevolved

  Facebook gurus, I have been implementing the Facebook Like button for a number of clients lately. To enable the Like Button, the following script has to be run: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: '<?php echo Mage::helper("evlike")->getLikeConfig("ev_facebook_app_id") ?>', xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> It seems that this is incompatible with the following include: <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US" type="text/javascript"></script> It would make sense as I believe that the FeatureLoader performs an initialization. Is this official now? I would ask in official Facebook forums but I get an error every time I attempt to do so...

  Read the article

• Nested asynchronous calls do not seem to execute as expected

  - by Kristof Van Landschoot

  While trying out jQuery, I have a question that is probably a newbie mistake, but I cannot seem to find the solution. This is the code: $.get("index.html", function() { var i = 0; for (; i < 3; i++) { var lDiv = document.createElement('div'); lDiv.id = 'body-' + i; document.getElementById('body').appendChild(lDiv); $.get('index.html', function(data) { lDiv.innerHTML = "<p>Hello World " + i + "</p>"; }); } }); The output seems to be <div id='body-0'></div> <div id='body-1'></div> <div id='body-2'> <p>Hello World 3</p> </div> I expected the lDiv.innerHTML= code to be executed for each i, but apparently it is only executed for the last i? What am I overlooking?

  Read the article

• Use Objective-C without NSObject?

  - by Alex I

  I am testing some simple Objective-C code on Windows (cygwin, gcc). This code already works in Xcode on Mac. I would like to convert my objects to not subclass NSObject (or anything else, lol). Is this possible, and how? What I have so far: // MyObject.h @interface MyObject - (void)myMethod:(int) param; @end and // MyObject.m #include "MyObject.h" @interface MyObject() { // this line is a syntax error, why? int _field; } @end @implementation MyObject - (id)init { // what goes in here? return self; } - (void)myMethod:(int) param { _field = param; } @end What happens when I try compiling it: gcc -o test MyObject.m -lobjc MyObject.m:4:1: error: expected identifier or ‘(’ before ‘{’ token MyObject.m: In function ‘-[MyObject myMethod:]’: MyObject.m:17:3: error: ‘_field’ undeclared (first use in this function) EDIT My compiler is cygwin's gcc, also has cygwin gcc-objc package: gcc --version gcc (GCC) 4.7.3 I have tried looking for this online and in a couple of Objective-C tutorials, but every example of a class I have found inherits from NSObject. Is it really impossible to write Objective-C without Cocoa or some kind of Cocoa replacement that provides NSObject? (Yes, I know about GNUstep. I would really rather avoid that if possible...)

  Read the article

• Strange problem with vectors.

  - by Catalin Dumitru

  I have a really strange problem with stl vectors in which the wrong destructor is called for the right object when I call the erase method if that makes any sense. My code looks something like this: for(vector<Category>::iterator iter = this->children.begin(); iter != this->children.end(); iter++) { if((*iter).item == item) { this->children.erase(iter); return; } ------------------------- } It's just a simple function that finds the element in the vector which has some item to be searched, and removes said element from the vector. My problem is than when the erase function is called, and thus the object which the iterator is pointing at is being destroyed, the wrong destructor is being called. More specific the destructor of the last element in the vector is being called, and not of the actual object being removed. Thus the memory is being removed from the wrong object, which will still be an element in the vector, and the actual object which is removed from the vector, still has all of it's memory intact. The costructor of the object looks like this: Category::Category(const Category &from) { this->name = from.name; for(vector<Category>::const_iterator iter = from.children.begin(); iter != from.children.end(); iter++) this->children.push_back((*iter)); this->item = new QTreeWidgetItem; } And the destructor Category::~Category() { this->children.clear(); if(this->item != NULL) { QTreeWidgetItem* parent = this->item->parent(); if(parent != NULL) parent->removeChild(this->item); delete this->item; } }

  Read the article

• Trouble compiling C/C++ project in NetBeans 6.8 with MinGW on Windows

  - by dontoo

  I am learning C and because VC++ 2008 doesn't support C99 features I have just installed NetBeans and configure it to work with MinGW. I can compile single file project ( main.c) and use debugger but when I add new file to project I get error "undefined reference to ... function(code) in that file..". Obviously MinGW does't link my files or I don't know how properly add them to my project (c standard library files work fine). /bin/make -f nbproject/Makefile-Debug.mk SUBPROJECTS= .build-conf make[1]: Entering directory `/c/Users/don/Documents/NetBeansProjects/CppApplication_7' /bin/make -f nbproject/Makefile-Debug.mk dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows/cppapplication_7.exe make[2]: Entering directory `/c/Users/don/Documents/NetBeansProjects/CppApplication_7' mkdir -p dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows gcc.exe -o dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows/cppapplication_7 build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/main.o build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/main.o: In function `main': C:/Users/don/Documents/NetBeansProjects/CppApplication_7/main.c:5: undefined reference to `X' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[2]: *** [dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows/cppapplication_7.exe] Error 1 make[2]: Leaving directory `/c/Users/don/Documents/NetBeansProjects/CppApplication_7' make[1]: *** [.build-conf] Error 2 make[1]: Leaving directory `/c/Users/don/Documents/NetBeansProjects/CppApplication_7' make: *** [.build-impl] Error 2 BUILD FAILED (exit value 2, total time: 1s) main.c #include "header.h" int main(int argc, char** argv) { X(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } header.h #ifndef _HEADER_H #define _HEADER_H #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void X(void); #endif source.c #include "header.h" void X(void) { printf("dsfdas"); }

  Read the article

• Monads and custom traversal functions in Haskell

  - by Bill

  Given the following simple BST definition: data Tree x = Empty | Leaf x | Node x (Tree x) (Tree x) deriving (Show, Eq) inOrder :: Tree x -> [x] inOrder Empty = [] inOrder (Leaf x) = [x] inOrder (Node root left right) = inOrder left ++ [root] ++ inOrder right I'd like to write an in-order function that can have side effects. I achieved that with: inOrderM :: (Show x, Monad m) => (x -> m a) -> Tree x -> m () inOrderM f (Empty) = return () inOrderM f (Leaf y) = f y >> return () inOrderM f (Node root left right) = inOrderM f left >> f root >> inOrderM f right -- print tree in order to stdout inOrderM print tree This works fine, but it seems repetitive - the same logic is already present in inOrder and my experience with Haskell leads me to believe that I'm probably doing something wrong if I'm writing a similar thing twice. Is there any way that I can write a single function inOrder that can take either pure or monadic functions?

  Read the article

• Gadget vista error var with flyout

  - by Jiinn

  hello ! i have a problem with a variable for the flyout : var friendsUser = ""; var friendsMdp = ""; System.Gadget.Settings.write("variableName", variableName); System.Gadget.settingsUI = "Settings.html"; System.Gadget.onSettingsClosed = SettingsClosed; System.Gadget.Flyout.visible = SettingsClosed; function SettingsClosed() { variableName = System.Gadget.Settings.read("variableName"); friendsUser = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendUser"); friendsMdp = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendMdp"); setContentText(); } function flyFriends() { System.Gadget.Flyout.file = 'friends.htm'; System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; var flyoutDiv = System.Gadget.Flyout.document.parentWindow; flyoutDiv.gMyVar = friendsUser; flyoutDiv.gMyVar2 = friendsMdp; } If i use this my flyout var is undefined , and if i write : var friendsUser = "test"; i have Test in var and after use setting i have nothing ... if i write var in flyoutDiv before System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; gadget bug . my settings dont have a problem, but the refresh of the var ... have you a idea ? thank you for all !

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

  - by Jopache

  I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

  Read the article

• twisted deferred/callbacks and asynchronous execution

  - by NetSkay

  hey guys, quick question about twisted and python... im trying to figure out how can i make my code more asynchronous using twisted and ive come to sort of a dead end, if a function of mine returns a deferred object, then i add a list of callbacks, the first callback will be called after the deferred function provides some result through deferred_obj.callback, then, in the chain of callbacks, the first callback will do something with the data and call the second callback and etc. however chained callbacks will not be considered asynchronous because they're chained and the event loop will keep firing each one of them concurrently until there is no more, right? however, if i have a deferred object, and i attach as its callback the deferred_obj.callback as in d.addCallback(deferred_obj.callback) then this will be considered asynchronous, because the deferred_obj is waiting for the data, and then the method that will pass the data is waiting on data as well, however once i d.callback 'd' object processes the data then it call deferred_obj.callback however since this object is deferred, unlike the case of chained callbacks, it will execute asynchronously... correct? meaning chained callbacks are NOT asynchronous while chained deferreds are, correct? thank you PS: assuming all of my code is non-blocking

  Read the article

• How can I randomly iterate through a large Range?

  - by void

  I would like to randomly iterate through a range. Each value will be visited only once and all values will eventually be visited. For example: class Array def shuffle ret = dup j = length i = 0 while j > 1 r = i + rand(j) ret[i], ret[r] = ret[r], ret[i] i += 1 j -= 1 end ret end end (0..9).to_a.shuffle.each{|x| f(x)} where f(x) is some function that operates on each value. A Fisher-Yates shuffle is used to efficiently provide random ordering. My problem is that shuffle needs to operate on an array, which is not cool because I am working with astronomically large numbers. Ruby will quickly consume a large amount of RAM trying to create a monstrous array. Imagine replacing (0..9) with (0..99**99). This is also why the following code will not work: tried = {} # store previous attempts bigint = 99**99 bigint.times { x = rand(bigint) redo if tried[x] tried[x] = true f(x) # some function } This code is very naive and quickly runs out of memory as tried obtains more entries. What sort of algorithm can accomplish what I am trying to do? [Edit1]: Why do I want to do this? I'm trying to exhaust the search space of a hash algorithm for a N-length input string looking for partial collisions. Each number I generate is equivalent to a unique input string, entropy and all. Basically, I'm "counting" using a custom alphabet. [Edit2]: This means that f(x) in the above examples is a method that generates a hash and compares it to a constant, target hash for partial collisions. I do not need to store the value of x after I call f(x) so memory should remain constant over time. [Edit3/4/5/6]: Further clarification/fixes.

  Read the article

• Javascript error: Object required...tough time fixing this

  - by rtnav2301

  The situation is this: a friend of mine asked me to help her with a website she's working on called www.KeepsakePartyInvitations.com. Her original designer created this code but didn't finish the project. So here I am to help save the day. Now, once a photo has been added to the party template and the mouse is placed over the image, an alternate text message appears to the right. The message informs the visitor how to reposition and resize the image, if necessary. I'm testing the procedure in the invitation to reposition the image. I follow the directions about moving the picture, but the mouse does not let go of the photo. Where ever the mouse moves, so does the image. The same thing occurs if you want to resize the image, you follow the directions but the image does not resize. I check the error message in IE 8 and it states: Message: Object required Line: 873 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://www.keepsakepartyinvitations.com/Includes/JCode.js When I checked the Javascript file, the Line 873 states: tempX = e.clientX + document.body.scrollLeft If you review the javascript file, the function where the line is located is called: function getMouseXY(e). Please help me, it has been a long while since I've worked with Javascript and I'm motivated to get this fixed. Thank you!

  Read the article

• how to push a string address to stack with assembly, machine code

  - by Yigit

  Hi all, I am changing minesweeper.exe in order to have an understanding of how code injection works. Simply, I want the minesweeper to show a message box before starting. So, I find a "cave" in the executable and then define the string to show in messagebox and call the messagebox. Additionally of course, I have to change the value at module entry point of the executable and first direct it to my additional code, then continue its own code. So at the cave what I do; "hello starbuck",0 push 0 //arg4 of MessageBoxW function push the address of my string //arg3, must be title push the address of my string //arg2, must be the message push 0 //arg1 call MessageBoxW ... Now since the memory addresses of codes in the executable change everytime it is loaded in the memory, for calling the MessageBoxW function, I give the offset of the address where MessageBoxW is defined in Import Address Table. For instance, if MessageBoxW is defined at address1 in the IAT and the instruction just after call MessageBoxW is at address2 instead of writing call MessageBoxW, I write call address2 - address1. So my question is, how do I do it for pushing the string's address to the stack? For example, if I do these changes via ollydbg, I give the immediate address of "hello starbuck" for pushing and it works. But after reloading the executable or starting it outside of ollydbg, it naturally fails, since the immediate addresses change. Thanks in advance, Yigit.

  Read the article

• Is there a good way of automatically generating javascript client code from server side python

  - by tat.wright

  I basically want to be able to: Write a few functions in python (with the minimum amount of extra meta data) Turn these functions into a web service (with the minimum of effort / boiler plate) Automatically generate some javascript functions / objects for rpc (this should prevent me from doing as many stupid things as possible like mistyping method names, forgetting the names of methods, passing the wrong number of arguments) Example python: def hello_world(): return "Hello world" javascript: ... <!-- This file is automatically generated (either dynamically or statically) --> <script src="http://myurl.com/webservice/client_side_javascript"> </script> ... <script> $('#button').click(function () { hello_world(function (data){ $('#label').text(data))) } </script> A bit of research has shown me some approaches that come close to this: Automatic generation of json-rpc services from functions with a little boiler plate code in python and then using jquery and json to do the calls (still easy to make mistakes with method names - still need to be aware of urls when calling, very irritating to write these calls yourself in the firebug shell) Using a library like soaplib to generate wsdl from python (by adding copious type information). And then somehow convert this into javascript (not sure if there is even a library to do this) But are there any approaches closer to what I want?

  Read the article

• Python: query a class's parent-class after multiple derivations ("super()" does not work)

  - by henry

  Hi, I have built a class-system that uses multiple derivations of a baseclass (object-class1-class2-class3): class class1(object): def __init__(self): print "class1.__init__()" object.__init__(self) class class2(class1): def __init__(self): print "class2.__init__()" class1.__init__(self) class class3(class2): def __init__(self): print "class3.__init__()" class2.__init__(self) x = class3() It works as expected and prints: class3.__init__() class2.__init__() class1.__init__() Now I would like to replace the 3 lines object.__init__(self) ... class1.__init__(self) ... class2.__init__(self) with something like this: currentParentClass().__init__() ... currentParentClass().__init__() ... currentParentClass().__init__() So basically, i want to create a class-system where i don't have to type "classXYZ.doSomething()". As mentioned above, I want to get the "current class's parent-class". Replacing the three lines with: super(type(self), self).__init__() does NOT work (it always returns the parent-class of the current instance - class2) and will result in an endless loop printing: class3.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() ... So is there a function that can give me the current class's parent-class? Thank you for your help! Henry -------------------- Edit: @Lennart ok maybe i got you wrong but at the moment i think i didn't describe the problem clearly enough.So this example might explain it better: lets create another child-class class class4(class3): pass now what happens if we derive an instance from class4? y = class4() i think it clearly executes: super(class3, self).__init__() which we can translate to this: class2.__init__(y) this is definitly not the goal(that would be class3.__init__(y)) Now making lots of parent-class-function-calls - i do not want to re-implement all of my functions with different base-class-names in my super()-calls.

  Read the article

• How do I add a comment to an image using jQuery

  - by marcamillion

  So I am trying to replicate Facebook's picture tagging functionality, and I have the functionality that onClick, a box is created and there is a comment box. Now the issue is that I want to be able to (without doing any back-end processing) take the input from the input field and add it in some form to the underlying image area that they have selected. I would also like to add a small image to that area, that shows that a comment is there. How do I do that? See the code below for what I have for the comment box: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var tag_box = $("<div>").appendTo("body").css({ "width": "40px", "height":"40px", "border":"4px solid #000000", "position":"absolute", "display":"none", "padding":"15px" }); var comment_box = $("<form action='#'><input id='comment' type='text' name='comment' placeholder='Add comment'></form>").appendTo(tag_box).css({"position":"absolute"}); $("#image-wrapper").live('click', function(e){ tag_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 40, "top": e.pageY - 40, "display": "block" }) .after(comment_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 65, "top": e.pageY + 40 })); }); }); </script> Now...whenever the user presses enter, the info in the comment box is appended to the URL like so: .html?comment=comment value# Thanks

  Read the article

• Does posting data with a textarea automatically add slashes to (escape) the text?

  - by animuson

  Ok, so I'm having a problem with a simple textarea. I'm using a kind of hidden page to easily encode some data using JSON. However, all of my text input is automatically being escaped somewhere and I don't know where. All of my $_POST variables are automatically run through the htmlentities() function when the script starts up, as seen below: $ani->i->post = $this->clean($_POST, true); function clean($values, $unset = false) { if (is_array($values)) { foreach ($values as $key => $value) { $newkey = strtolower($key); $return[$newkey] = $this->clean($value); unset($values[$key]); } return $return; } return htmlentities($values); } I keep getting \' for all of my single quotes when I put the value back into the textarea. I can't find anywhere where it would be adding slashes and I don't remember it being a feature that they were automatically added when you submit from a textarea, and if that was so, why would they not be returning back to a single quote when put back into the textarea? Do I really need to run variables through stripslashes() to get them back to their original form? Edit: My 'test.php' file is as follows: <h1>To Be Encoded:</h1> <form action="/test" method="post"> <textarea name="encode" rows="20" cols="50"><?= html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode']) ?></textarea> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Encode It!" /> </form> <h1>Encoded By JSON:</h1> <textarea name="encoded" rows="20" cols="50"><?= json_encode(html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode'])) ?></textarea> <?php die(); ?> P.S. The die() is just there for compatibility with my framework.

  Read the article

• Horizontally and Vertically Center Modal Div IE Issue

  - by aherrick

  I'm trying to horizontally and vertically center a modal window inside a div. I want it to be cross browser compatible. You can see from the picture below that when I resize IE8 then click, "show modal" button it displays not exactly horizontally centered. This does not seem to be an issue with Chrome. Any thoughts? How would you guys accomplish this? <html> <head> <title>test</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0px; padding: 0px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#modal').click(function() { // overlay $('<div id="overlay" />').css({ position: 'absolute', top: 0, left: 0, width: '100%', height: '100%', backgroundColor: 'black', opacity: 0 }).appendTo('body'); $('<div id="datamodal" />').css({ backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', border: '10px solid #999', height: '200px', width: '600px', position: 'absolute', top: '50%', left: '50%', marginTop: '-120px', marginLeft: '-320px', color: '#111111', fontWeight: 'bold', padding: '10px', display: 'none' }).append('<input type="text" />').appendTo('#overlay'); $('#overlay').fadeTo(300, 0.7); $('#datamodal').fadeIn(300); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <input id="modal" type="button" value="show modal" /> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Code bacteria: evolving mathematical behavior

  - by Stefano Borini

  It would not be my intention to put a link on my blog, but I don't have any other method to clarify what I really mean. The article is quite long, and it's in three parts (1,2,3), but if you are curious, it's worth the reading. A long time ago (5 years, at least) I programmed a python program which generated "mathematical bacteria". These bacteria are python objects with a simple opcode-based genetic code. You can feed them with a number and they return a number, according to the execution of their code. I generate their genetic codes at random, and apply an environmental selection to those objects producing a result similar to a predefined expected value. Then I let them duplicate, introduce mutations, and evolve them. The result is quite interesting, as their genetic code basically learns how to solve simple equations, even for values different for the training dataset. Now, this thing is just a toy. I had time to waste and I wanted to satisfy my curiosity. however, I assume that something, in terms of research, has been made... I am reinventing the wheel here, I hope. Are you aware of more serious attempts at creating in-silico bacteria like the one I programmed? Please note that this is not really "genetic algorithms". Genetic algorithms is when you use evolution/selection to improve a vector of parameters against a given scoring function. This is kind of different. I optimize the code, not the parameters, against a given scoring function.

  Read the article

• Using HTML5 on iPhone - cannot pause

  - by Ariel

  Hey guys, I was wondering whether anyone has tried to use the new tag that comes with HTML5 on the iPhone. Specifically, I didn't manage to make the pause() command to work. Below is a portion of the page. As you can see, I'm trying to pause the video 10sec after it started. It works on Safari on a Mac btw. Has anyone managed to make this work? <head> <javascript language="JavaScript"> function timeUpdate() { var myVideo = document.getElementsByTagName('video')[0]; var time = myVideo.currentTime; if (time > 10) { myVideo.pause(); } } function addListeners() { var myVideo = document.getElementsByTagName('video')[0]; myVideo.addEventListener('timeupdate',timeUpdate,false); } </script> </head> <body onload="addListeners()"> <video controls src="resources/bb_poor_cinderella_512kb.mp4" poster="resources/background.png"> Video tag not supported! </video> </body> Thanks, Ariel

  Read the article

• Browser freeze while ajax call in action

  - by kaivalya

  I have a ASP.NET Web App. I notice that while a simple ajax call(see below) is in process, web application does not respond to any action that I try on a different browser. $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: true, url: "someurl", dataType: "text", cache: false, success: function(msg){ CheckResponse(msg); } }); This happens when I open two firefox or two IE. I run the function that does the ajax call on first browser and till the response of the ajax is returned, I cannot do anything on the second browser on the same site. No breakpoints are hit on the server from the second browser till initial ajax is completed. It hangs for any click etc.. The hang on the second browser ends immediately after the ajax call is completed on the first one. This behavior is not observed if I try the same on IE and Firefox side by side. Only happen with IE & IE or FF & FF side by side Appreciate if you can help me see what I am missing here.

  Read the article

• Temporary non-const istream reference in constructor (C++)

  - by Christopher Bruns

  It seems that a constructor that takes a non-const reference to an istream cannot be constructed with a temporary value in C++. #include <iostream> #include <sstream> using namespace std; class Bar { public: explicit Bar(std::istream& is) {} }; int main() { istringstream stream1("bar1"); Bar bar1(stream1); // OK on all platforms // compile error on linux, Mac gcc; OK on Windows MSVC Bar bar2(istringstream("bar2")); return 0; } This compiles fine with MSVC, but not with gcc. Using gcc I get a compile error: g++ test.cpp -o test test.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: test.cpp:18: error: no matching function for call to ‘Bar::Bar(std::istringstream)’ test.cpp:9: note: candidates are: Bar::Bar(std::istream&) test.cpp:7: note: Bar::Bar(const Bar&) Is there something philosophically wrong with the second way (bar2) of constructing a Bar object? It looks nicer to me, and does not require that stream1 variable that is only needed for a moment.

  Read the article

• youtube embeded player: change video link with javascript, dinamically

  - by Anthony Koval'

  here is a part of html code (video urls marked with a django-template language variables): <div class="mainPlayer"> <object width="580" height="326"> <param name="movie" value="{{main_video.video_url}}"></param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <embed src="{{main_video.video_url}}" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="580" height="326"></embed> </object> </div> and JS-code (using jQuery 1.4.x) $(document).ready(function(){ ..... $(".activeMovie img").live("click", function(){ video_url = ($(this).parent().find('input').val()); $('.mainPlayer').find('param:eq(0)').val(video_url); $('.mainPlayer').find('embed').attr('src', video_url); }) ... }) such a algorithm works fine in ff 3.6.3, but any luck in chrome4 or opera 10.x., src and value are changed, but youtube player still shows an old video.

  Read the article

• PHP autoloader: ignoring non-existing include

  - by Bart van Heukelom

  I have a problem with my autoloader: public function loadClass($className) { $file = str_replace(array('_', '\\'), '/', $className) . '.php'; include_once $file; } As you can see, it's quite simple. I just deduce the filename of the class and try to include it. I have a problem though; I get an exception when trying to load a non-existing class (because I have an error handler which throws exceptions). This is inconvenient, because it's also fired when you use class_exists() on a non-existing class. You don't want an exception there, just a "false" returned. I fixed this earlier by putting an @ before the include (supressing all errors). The big drawback with this, though, is that any parser/compiler errors (that are fatal) in this include won't show up (not even in the logs), resulting in a hard to find bug. What would be the best way to solve both problems at once? The easiest way would be to include something like this in the autoloader (pseudocode): foreach (path in the include_path) { if (is_readable(the path + the class name)) readable = true; } if (!readable) return; But I worry about the performance there. Would it hurt a lot? (Solved) Made it like this: public function loadClass($className) { $file = str_replace(array('_', '\\'), '/', $className) . '.php'; $paths = explode(PATH_SEPARATOR, get_include_path()); foreach ($paths as $path) { if (is_readable($path . '/' . $file)) { include_once $file; return; } } }

  Read the article

• mcrypt decoding errors

  - by Kyle Hudson

  Hi, I have a few issues with the following php functions (part of a bigger class). //encode public function acc_pw_enc($text, $key) { $text_num = str_split($text, 8); $text_num = 8 - strlen($text_num[count($text_num)-1]); for ($i=0; $i < $text_num; $i++) { $text = $text . chr($text_num); } $cipher = mcrypt_module_open(MCRYPT_TRIPLEDES, '', 'cbc', ''); mcrypt_generic_init($cipher, $key, 'fYfhHeDm'); $decrypted = mcrypt_generic($cipher, $text); mcrypt_generic_deinit($cipher); return base64_encode($decrypted); } //decode public function acc_pw_dec($encrypted_text, $key) { $cipher = mcrypt_module_open(MCRYPT_TRIPLEDES, '', 'cbc', ''); mcrypt_generic_init($cipher, $key, 'fYfhHeDm'); $decrypted = mdecrypt_generic($cipher, base64_decode($encrypted_text)); mcrypt_generic_deinit($cipher); $last_char = substr($decrypted, -1); for($i=0; $i < 8-1; $i++) { if(chr($i) == $last_char) { $decrypted = substr($decrypted, 0, strlen($decrypted)-$i); break; } } return rtrim($decrypted); //str_replace("?", "", $decrypted); } So for exampe if i encrypt the string 'liloMIA01' with the salt/key 'yBevuZoMy' i will get '7A30ZkEjYbDcAXLgGE/6nQ=='. I get liloMIA01 as the decrypted value, i tried using rtrim but it didn't work.

  Read the article

• An unusual type signature

  - by Travis Brown

  In Monads for natural language semantics, Chung-Chieh Shan shows how monads can be used to give a nicely uniform restatement of the standard accounts of some different kinds of natural language phenomena (interrogatives, focus, intensionality, and quantification). He defines two composition operations, A_M and A'_M, that are useful for this purpose. The first is simply ap. In the powerset monad ap is non-deterministic function application, which is useful for handling the semantics of interrogatives; in the reader monad it corresponds to the usual analysis of extensional composition; etc. This makes sense. The secondary composition operation, however, has a type signature that just looks bizarre to me: (<?>) :: (Monad m) => m (m a -> b) -> m a -> m b (Shan calls it A'_M, but I'll call it <?> here.) The definition is what you'd expect from the types; it corresponds pretty closely to ap: g <?> x = g >>= \h -> return $ h x I think I can understand how this does what it's supposed to in the context of the paper (handle question-taking verbs for interrogatives, serve as intensional composition, etc.). What it does isn't terribly complicated, but it's a bit odd to see it play such a central role here, since it's not an idiom I've seen in Haskell before. Nothing useful comes up on Hoogle for either m (m a -> b) -> m a -> m b or m (a -> b) -> a -> m b. Does this look familiar to anyone from other contexts? Have you ever written this function?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740  | Next Page >