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  • Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

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  • Mysql InnoDB performance optimization and indexing

    - by Davide C
    Hello everybody, I have 2 databases and I need to link information between two big tables (more than 3M entries each, continuously growing). The 1st database has a table 'pages' that stores various information about web pages, and includes the URL of each one. The column 'URL' is a varchar(512) and has no index. The 2nd database has a table 'urlHops' defined as: CREATE TABLE urlHops ( dest varchar(512) NOT NULL, src varchar(512) DEFAULT NULL, timestamp timestamp NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, KEY dest_key (dest), KEY src_key (src) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 Now, I need basically to issue (efficiently) queries like this: select p.id,p.URL from db1.pages p, db2.urlHops u where u.src=p.URL and u.dest=? At first, I thought to add an index on pages(URL). But it's a very long column, and I already issue a lot of INSERTs and UPDATEs on the same table (way more than the number of SELECTs I would do using this index). Other possible solutions I thought are: -adding a column to pages, storing the md5 hash of the URL and indexing it; this way I could do queries using the md5 of the URL, with the advantage of an index on a smaller column. -adding another table that contains only page id and page URL, indexing both columns. But this is maybe a waste of space, having only the advantage of not slowing down the inserts and updates I execute on 'pages'. I don't want to slow down the inserts and updates, but at the same time I would be able to do the queries on the URL efficiently. Any advice? My primary concern is performance; if needed, wasting some disk space is not a problem. Thank you, regards Davide

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  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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  • Memory Leaks when touching UITableViewCells and poping off view.

    - by Falcon
    Hi All, I'm currently having a problem where the leaks tool is reporting a slew of memory leaks after clicking on cells within a UITableView and then hitting the back button and popping off the view. Majority of the leaks reported can not be traced back to any specific location in my code, they are: Leaked Object # Address Size Responsible Library Responsible Frame NSCFArray 2 < multiple > 64 UIKit -[UITouch(UITouchInternal) UITouch 2 < multiple > 128 GraphicsServices PurpleEventCallback Malloc 48 Bytes 2 < multiple > 96 Foundation -[NSCFArray insertObject:atIndex:] UIDelayedAction 2 < multiple > 96 UIKit -[UILongPressGestureRecognizer startTimer] NSCFArray 2 < multiple > 64 UIKit -[UILongPressGestureRecognizer touchesBegan:withEvent:] Malloc 32 Bytes 2 < multiple > 64 Foundation -[NSCFArray insertObject:atIndex:] Malloc 16 Bytes 2 < multiple > 32 Foundation -[NSCFSet unionSet:] Now I have commented out all my code in any touch event functions that I have written and it still leaks if I click on the cell a few times and then hit the back button to return to the previous view. Any ideas on what might actually be the problem here? Thanks,

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  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • How do I use the sed command to remove all lines between 2 phrases (including the phrases themselves

    - by fzkl
    I am generating a log from which I want to remove X startup output which looks like this: X.Org X Server 1.7.6 Release Date: 2010-03-17 X Protocol Version 11, Revision 0 Build Operating System: Linux 2.6.31-607-imx51 armv7l Ubuntu Current Operating System: Linux nvidia 2.6.33.2 #1 SMP PREEMPT Mon May 31 21:38:29 PDT 2010 armv7l Kernel command line: mem=448M@0M nvmem=64M@448M mem=512M@512M chipuid=097c81c6425f70d7 vmalloc=320M video=tegrafb console=ttyS0,57600n8 usbcore.old_scheme_first=1 tegraboot=nand root=/dev/nfs ip=:::::usb0:on rw tegra_ehci_probe_delay=5000 smp dvfs tegrapart=recovery:1b80:a00:800,boot:2680:1000:800,environment:3780:40:800,system:38c0:2bc00:800,cache:2f5c0:4000:800,userdata:336c0:c840:800 envsector=3080 Build Date: 23 April 2010 05:19:26PM xorg-server 2:1.7.6-2ubuntu7 (Bryce Harrington <[email protected]>) Current version of pixman: 0.16.4 Before reporting problems, check http://wiki.x.org to make sure that you have the latest version. Markers: (--) probed, (**) from config file, (==) default setting, (++) from command line, (!!) notice, (II) informational, (WW) warning, (EE) error, (NI) not implemented, (??) unknown. (==) Log file: "/var/log/Xorg.0.log", Time: Wed Jun 16 19:52:00 2010 (==) Using config file: "/etc/X11/xorg.conf" (==) Using config directory: "/usr/lib/X11/xorg.conf.d" Is there any way to do this without manually checking pattern for each line?

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  • django class with an array of "parent" foreignkeys issue

    - by user298032
    Let's say I have a class called Fruit with child classes of the different kinds of Fruit with their own specific attributes, and I want to collect them in a FruitBasket: class Fruit(models.Model):     type = models.CharField(max_length=120,default='banana',choices=FRUIT_TYPES)     ... class Banana(Fruit):     """banana (fruit type)"""     length = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class Orange(Fruit):     """orange (fruit type)"""     diameter = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class FruitBasket(models.Model):     fruits = models.ManyToManyField(Fruit)     ... The problem I seem to be having is when I retrieve and inspect the Fruits in a FruitBasket, I only retrieve the Fruit base class and can't get at the Fruit child class attributes. I think I understand what is happening--when the array is retrieved from the database, the only fields that are retrieved are the Fruit base class fields. But is there some way to get the child class attributes as well without multiple expensive database transactions? (For example, I could get the array, then retrieve the child Fruit classes by the id of each array element). thanks in advance, Chuck

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  • Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

    - by Paul Willy
    I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

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  • [ZF & jQuery] How can I access an URL using AJAX, receive no response, but just manipulate HTML?

    - by rasouza
    I don't know if it's better used with AJAX (tell me, otherwise) but here is my problem: Assuming i'm using Zend Framework, I have a table with several registries from a database with a delete button on each row. That's like this [...] <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a href="#" id="<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>" class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> [...] I would like to .fadeOut() and delete (through the link history/delete/id/ROW_ID ) a table row when clicked in the respective delete button. My deleteAction() has no render. It really shouldn't have one, it just deletes a row in the database. Still, how can I make it happen? I tried: // TR Fading when deleted $('.delete') .click(function() { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'history/delete/id/'+$(this).attr('id'), success: function() { $(this).parent().parent().fadeOut(); } }); return false; }); without success

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  • how to changed editext values from first to last in customise listview in android

    - by prakash
    i am getting menunames from database then append to the custom listview edittext . now i am changing some values in edittext . i want all values with changed values of edittext into array Example :x,y,z menunames comes from database i append editext(Custom listview) now i am changed y to b now i want x,b,z in arraylist i try this code(Base adapter class) public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { final ViewHolder holder; if (convertView == null) { holder = new ViewHolder(); convertView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.editmainmenulist, null); holder.caption = (EditText) convertView .findViewById(R.id.editmaimenu); holder.caption1=(ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.menuimage); convertView.setTag(holder); } else { holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } //Fill EditText with the value you have in data source holder.caption.setText(itemnames[position]); holder.caption.setId(position); holder.caption1.setImageBitmap(bmps[position]); arr.add(holder.caption.getText().toString());//here i get menunames data only not changed edittext values return convertView; } } class ViewHolder { EditText caption; ImageView caption1; } class ListItem { String caption; } please help me

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  • Ruby array, javascript and json issue

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, I am unable to get a highcharts plugin to render a chart in a rails application: http://github.com/loudpixel/highcharts-rails I believe it has something to do with the sql queries to the database placed in a ruby array, which the javascript is unable to intepret. This is what I have: def panels pass = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 1') fail = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 2') student_data = [ {:name => 'Pass', :y => pass}, {:name => 'Fail', :y => fail} ] pie_label_formatter = ' function() { if (this.y > 15) return this.point.name; }' pie_tooltip_formatter = ' function() { return "<strong>" + this.point.name + "</strong>: " + this.y + " %"; }' @pie_chart = Highchart.pie({ :chart => { :renderTo => "pie-chart-container", :margin => [50, 30, 0, 30] }, :plotOptions => { :pie => { :dataLabels => { :formatter => pie_label_formatter, :style => { :textShadow => '#000000 1px 1px 2px' } } } }, :series => [ { :type => 'pie', :data => student_data } ], :subtitle => { :text => 'April 2010' }, :title => { :text => 'Student Status Chart' }, :tooltip => { :formatter => pie_tooltip_formatter }, }) Note if I put this: :data = student_data.to_json It actually returns a json string of my query as text in the browser. Also, if I hard code values (e.g. :y = 1), it will render the chart properly. However, any database query will not render the chart properly. So I'm not sure exactly what the issue is. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • retrieving object information with Doctrine

    - by ajsie
    i want to fetch information from the database using objects. i really like this approach cause this is more OOP: $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->find(1); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]->phonenumber; rather than: $q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->from('User u') ->leftJoin('u.Email e') ->leftJoin('u.Phonenumbers p') ->where('u.id = ?', 1); $user = $q->fetchOne(); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]['phonenumber']; the problem is that the first one uses 3 queries (3 different tables), while the second one uses only 1 (and is therefore recommended technique). but i feel that it destroys the object oriented design. cause ORM is meant to give us an OOP approach so that we could focus on objects and not the relational database. but now they want us to go back to use SQL like pattern. there isn't a way to get information form multiple tables not using DQL? the above examples are taken from the documentation: doctrine

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  • Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

    - by Jason Marsell
    My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

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  • Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

    - by Gael
    Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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  • Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found - how to correct?

    - by Ash Kim
    Eclipse STS is reporting I have problem with my spring project. It's a fresh project generated from the Spring Web MVC Project Template (File-New-Spring Template Project-Spring Web MVC ). When I create the project it has no problems - it's only once I modify the pom (by adding the hibernate dependencies) that STS then picks up the spring problem. Strangely if I revert the pom the problem remains. Also I can run the project on a spring tc server and all works correctly. Any ideas how I can satisfy this problem report? "Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found" mvc-config.xml /src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/spring line 9 Spring Beans Problem mvc-config.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <!-- <= PROBLEMATIC LINE REPORTED BY STS --> <!-- Resolves view names to protected .jsp resources within the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

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  • Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

    - by Pandafox
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

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  • proper use of volatile keyword

    - by luke
    I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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  • Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

    - by kanchirk
    Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

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  • Why is it not good to use $_SESSION in Restful Implementations?

    - by keisimone
    Original Question: i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i properly authenticate users without looking up database all the time to check for the user's roles? I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

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  • Best way to test a Delphi application

    - by Osama ALASSIRY
    I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

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  • g++ problem with -l option and PostgreSQL

    - by difek
    Hi I've written simple program. Here a code: #include <iostream> #include <stdio.h> #include <D:\Program Files\PostgreSQL\8.4\include\libpq-fe.h> #include <string> using namespace std; int main() { PGconn *conn; PGresult *res; int rec_count; int row; int col; cout << "ble ble: " << 8 << endl; conn = PQconnectdb("dbname=db_pm host=localhost user=postgres password=postgres"); if (PQstatus(conn) == CONNECTION_BAD) { puts("We were unable to connect to the database"); exit(0); } } I'm trying to connect with PostgreSQL. I compile this code with following command: gcc -I/"d:\Program Files\PostgreSQL\" -L/"d:\Program Files\PostgreSQL\8.4\lib\" -lpq -o firstcpp.o firstcpp.cpp This command is from following site: http://www.mkyong.com/database/how-to-building-postgresql-libpq-programs/ And when I compile it I get following error: /cygnus/cygwin-b20/H-i586-cygwin32/i586-cygwin32/bin/ld: cannot open -lpq: No such file or directory collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Does anyone help me? Difek

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  • Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

    - by Bar
    I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

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  • First site going live real soon. Last minute questions

    - by user156814
    I am really close to finishing up on a project that I've been working on. I have done websites before, but never on my own and never a site that involved user generated data. I have been reading up on things that should be considered before you go live and I have some questions. 1) Staging... (Deploying updates without affecting users). I'm not really sure what this would entail, since I'm sure that any type of update would affect users in some way. Does this mean some type of temporary downtime for every update? can somebody please explain this and a solution to this as well. 2) Limits... I'm using the Kohana framework and I'm using the Auth module for logging users in. I was wondering if this already has some type of limit (on login attempts) built in, and if not, what would be the best way to implement this. (save attempts in database, cookie, etc.). If this is not whats meant by limits, can somebody elaborate. 3) Caching... Like I said, this is my first site built around user content. Considering that, should I cache it? 4) Back Ups... How often should I backup my (MySQL) database, and how should I back it up (MySQL export?). The site is currently up, yet not finished, if anybody wants to look at it and see if something pops out to you that should be looked at/fixed. Clashing Thoughts. If there is anything else I overlooked, thats not already in the list linked to above, please let me know. Thanks.

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  • Undefined method `add' on a cucumber step that usually works.

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I have a path defined: when /the admin home\s?page/ "/admin/" I have scenario that is passing: Scenario: Let admins see the admin homepage Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" And I am on the admin home page Then I should see "Hi there." And I have a scenario that is failing: Scenario: Review flagged photo Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" ...bunch of steps that create stuff in the database... And I am on the admin home page Then ... the rest of the steps The step that fails in the second one is "And I am on the admin home page" which passes just fine in the first scenario. Here's the error I get: And I am on the admin home page # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:18 undefined method `add' for {}:Hash (NoMethodError) ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:13:in `index' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `each' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `index' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:308:in `realtime' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:19:in `/^(?:|I )am on (.+)$/' features/admin.feature:52:in `And I am on the admin home page' This is very odd... why would it be fine in the first case, and not in the second where the only difference are a bunch of steps that create records in the db? [edit] Here's the add stuff to database step: Given /^there is a "([^\"]*)" with the following:$/ do |model, table| model.constantize.create!(table.rows_hash) end

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