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  • CSS text-decoration rule ignored

    - by Ferdy
    I have found similar questions to mine but none of the suggestions seems to apply to my situation, so here goes... I have a webpage with a buch of images on them. Each image has a title which in markup is between h2 tags. The title is a link, so the resulting markup is like this: <ul class="imagelist"> <li> <a href=""><h2>Title 1</h2></a> <a href=""><img src="" /></a> </li> <li> Image 2, etc... </li> </ul> All I want is for the title links to not be underlined. I tried to address this like this: .imagelist li a h2 { color:#333; text-decoration:none; } It completely ignores the text-decoration rule, yet respects the color rule. From other questions I learned that this could be because a child element cannot overrule the text-decoration of any of its parents. So, I went looking for the parent elements to see if any explicit text-decoration rules are applied. I found none. This is driving me crazy, any help? For the sake of completeness, here is the Firebug CSS output, which shows the full inheritance and such. Probably more than you want, but I cannot see anything conflicting here. .imagelist li a h2 { color:#333333; text-decoration:none; } main.css (line 417) h2 { font-size:14px; } main.css (line 40) h1, h2, h3, h4, h5, h6 { display:block; font-weight:bold; margin-bottom:10px; } main.css (line 38) h1, h2, h3, h4, h5, h6 { font-size:100%; font-weight:normal; } reset-min.css (line 7) body, div, dl, dt, dd, ul, ol, li, h1, h2, h3, h4, h5, h6, pre, code, form, fieldset, legend, input, textarea, p, blockquote, th, td { margin:0; padding:0; } reset-min.css (line 7) Inherited froma /apps/ju...mage/745 a { color:#0063E2; } main.css (line 55) Inherited fromli .imagelist li { list-style-type:none; } main.css (line 411) li { list-style:none outside none; } reset-min.css (line 7) Inherited fromul.imagelist .imagelist { border-collapse:collapse; font-size:9px; } main.css (line 410) Inherited frombody body, form { color:#333333; font:12px arial,helvetica,clean,sans-serif; } main.css (line 36) Inherited fromhtml html { color:#000000;

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  • VS2008 C++ MFC Access Violation ONLY when stepping through debug mode

    - by HotOil
    Hi. This is crazy. It started happening in my main project, so I created a tiny sample brand-new project to reproduce it in and sure enough.. It does NOT happen in a sample project I created that is only a Win32 console app. I'm running this on Win7x64, if that matters. VS2008 SP1. Here goes. I create a small dialog app with a button. Put a breakpoint in the handler function for that button. The button handler function looks like this: void CTestProjectDlg::OnBnClickedButton1() { int i=2; m_csHello.Format(_T("Hello World!")); << breakpoint here UpdateData(FALSE); } Click the button, hit the breakpoint. F10 to step, and boom: "First-chance exception at 0x0398f77b in TestProject.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation." It gives me the option to Break or Continue. If I Continue, it just hits it again, only not "First Chance". Yes I have that exception checked in the Debug-Exceptions dlg. If I Break, the call stack just shows me the line where the breakpoint is. If I F10 again.. I get the exception again, only now the callstack shows me in the _AfxDispatchCmdMsg() function, and my original OnBnClickedButton1() is not in the callstack anymore. It doesn't matter where I put the breakpoint. If, instead of F10, I just continue with F5, it works normally. Now.. if I build a Release version and run in debugging mode: I hit the breakpoint, and all the pointers, variable values look normal. F10, and these turn to garbage. The this pointer is now zero. The m_csHello is now However, in Release mode, an exception is not caught, and it all runs fine. The "hello World string gets displayed in the dialog box as it should. I have put in an inquiry to see if some patch was installed on my box by the IT dept in the last day or two. This wasn't happening 2 days ago. What do you think? Is VS2008 corrupted? Thanks.

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  • Lightbox image / link URL

    - by GSTAR
    Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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  • Install Trac on 64bits Windows 7

    - by Tufo
    I'm configuring a new Developing Server that came with Windows 7 64bits. It must have installed Trac with Subversion integration. I install Subversion with VisualSVN 2.1.1, clients with TortoiseSVN 1.6.7 and AnkhSVN 2.1.7 for Visual Studio 2008 SP1 integration. All works fine! my problem begun when going to Trac installation. I install python 2.6 all fine. Trac hasn't a x64 windows installer, so I installed it manually by compiling it with python console (C:\Python26\python.exe C:/TRAC/setup.py install). After that, I can create TRAC projects normally, the Trac core is working fine. And so the problem begins, lets take a look at the Trac INSTALL file: Requirements To install Trac, the following software packages must be installed: Python, version = 2.3. Subversion, version = 1.0. (= 1.1.xrecommended) Subversion SWIG Python bindings (not PySVN). PySQLite,version 1.x (for SQLite 2.x) or version 2.x (for SQLite 3.x) Clearsilver, version = 0.9.3 (0.9.14 recommended) Python: OK Subverion: OK Subversion SWIG Python bindings (not PySVN): Here I face the first issue, he asks me for 'cd' to the swig directory and run the 'configure' file, and the result is: C:\swigwin-1.3.40> c:\python26\python.exe configure File "configure", line 16 DUALCASE=1; export DUALCASE # for MKS sh ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax PySQLite, version 1.x (for SQLite 2.x) or version 2.x (for SQLite 3.x): Don't need, as Python 2.6 comes with SQLLite Clearsilver, version = 0.9.3 (0.9.14 recommended): Second issue, Clearsilver only has 32bit installer wich does not recognize python installation (as registry keys are in different places from 32 to 64 bits). So I try to manually install it with python console. It returns me a error of the same kind as SWIG: C:\clearsilver-0.10.5>C:\python26\python.exe ./configure File "./configure", line 13 if test -n "${ZSH_VERSION+set}" && (emulate sh) >/dev/null 2>&1; then ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax When I simulate a web server using the "TRACD" command, it runs fine when I disable svn support but when I try to open the web page it shows me a error regarding ClearSilver is not installed for generating the html content. AND (for making me more happy) This TRAC will run over IIS7, I mustn't install Apache... I'm nearly crazy with this issue... HELP!!!

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  • OSGI classcast exception on felix

    - by Nico
    Hi, i'm fairly new to osgi and am trying to get a functional proof of concept together. The setup is that my common api is created in a bundle creatively named common-api.jar with no bundle activator, but it exports all it's interfaces. the one of interest in this situation is DatabaseService.java. I then have a Second bundle called systemx-database-service. That implements the database service interface. this works fine as in the activator of the implementation bundle i test the connection to the database and select some arbitraty values. I also register the service i want to be available to the other bundle's like so: context.registerService(DatabaseService.class.getName(), new SystemDatabaseServiceImpl(context), new Properties()); The basic idea being when you look for a service reference for a Database service you'll get back the SystemDatabaseService implementation. When i do a inspect service the output it this: -> inspect s c 69 System Database Service (69) provides services: ---------------------------------------------- objectClass = za.co.xxx.xxx.common.api.DatabaseService service.id = 39 which would lead me to believe that if i do this in a test bundle: context.getService(context.getServiceReference(DatabaseService.class)); i should get back an instance of DatabaseService.class, but alas no such luck. it simply seems like it cannot find the service. stick with me here my story gets stranger. figuring there is no where to go but up i wrote this monstrosity: for (Bundle bundle : bundles) { if (bundle.getSymbolicName().equals("za.co.xxx.xxx.database-service")) { ServiceReference[] registeredServices = bundle.getRegisteredServices(); for (ServiceReference ref : registeredServices) { DatabaseService service = (DatabaseService) context.getService(ref); // use service here. } } } } now i can actually see the service reference, but i get this error java.lang.ClassCastException: za.co.xxx.xxx.database.service.impl.SystemDatabaseServiceImpl cannot be cast to za.co.xxx.xx.common.api.DatabaseService which is crazy since the implementation clearly implements the interface! Any help would be appreciated. Please keep in mind i'm very new at the osgi way of thinking so my whole approach here might be flawed. oh. if anyone wants the manifests i can post them. and i'm using the maven-bnd-plugin to build and executing on felix. thanks Nico

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  • Calculate # of Rowspans and Colspans based on keys in a Multi-Array

    - by sologhost
    Ok, I have these 2 types of layouts, basically, it can be any layout really. I have decided to use tables for this, since using div tags cause undesirable results in some possible layout types. Here are 2 pics that describe the returned results of row and column: This would return the $layout array like so: $layout[0][0] $layout[0][1] $layout[1][1] In this layout type: $layout[1][0] is NOT SET, or doesn't exist. Row 1, Column 0 doesn't exist in here. So how can we use this to help us determine the rowspans...? Ok, this layout type would now return the following: $layout[0][0] $layout[0][1] $layout[1][0] $layout[2][0] $layout[2][1] $layout[3][1] Again, there are some that are NOT SET in here: $layout[1][1] $layout[3][0] Ok, I have an array called $layout that does a foreach on the row and column, but it doesn't grab the rows and columns that are NOT SET. So I created a for loop (with the correct counts of how many rows there are and how many columns there are). Here's what I got so far: // $not_set = array(); for($x = 0; $x < $cols; $x++) { $f = 0; for($p = 0; $p < $rows; $p++) { // $f = count($layout[$p]); if(!isset($layout[$p][$x])) { $f++; // It could be a rowspan or a Colspan... // We need to figure out which 1 it is! /* $not_set[] = array( 'row' => $p, 'column' => $x, ); */ } // if ($rows - count($layout[$p])) } } Ok, the $layout array has 2 keys. The first 1 is [ row ] and the 2nd key is [ column ]. Now looping through them all and determining whether it's NOT SET, tells me that either a rowspan or a colspan needs to be put into something somewhere. I'm completely lost here. Basically, I would like to have an array returned here, something like this: $spans['row'][ row # ][ column # ] = Number of rowspans for that <td> element. $spans['column'][ row # ][ column # ] = Number of colspans for that <td> element. It's either going to need a colspan or a rowspan, it will definitely never need both for the same element. Am I going about this whole thing the wrong way? Any help at all would be greatly appreciated!! I've been driving myself crazy with this for days! Pllleaase...

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  • Hidden Features of PHP?

    - by George Mauer
    EDIT: This didn't really start as a hidden features of PHP topic, but thats what it ended up as, so go nuts. I know this sounds like a point-whoring question but let me explain where I'm coming from. Out of college I got a job at a PHP shop. I worked there for a year and a half and thought that I had learned all there was to learn about programming. Then I got a job as a one-man internal development shop at a sizable corporation where all the work was in C#. In my commitment to the position I started reading a ton of blogs and books and quickly realized how wrong I was to think I knew everything. I learned about unit testing, dependency injection and decorator patterns, the design principle of loose coupling, the composition over inheritance debate, and so on and on and on - I am still very much absorbing it all. Needless to say my programming style has changed entirely in the last year. Now I find myself picking up a php project doing some coding for a friend's start-up and I feel completely constrained as opposed to programming in C#. It really bothers me that all variables at a class scope have to be referred to by appending '$this-' . It annoys me that none of the IDEs that I've tried have very good intellisense and that my SimpleTest unit tests methods have to start with the word 'test'. It drives me crazy that dynamic typing keeps me from specifying implicitly which parameter type a method expects, and that you have to write a switch statement to do method overloads. I can't stand that you can't have nested namespaces and have to use the :: operator to call the base class's constructor. Now I have no intention of starting a PHP vs C# debate, rather what I mean to say is that I'm sure there are some PHP features that I either don't know about or know about yet fail to use properly. I am set in my C# universe and having trouble seeing outside the glass bowl. So I'm asking, what are your favorite features of PHP? What are things you can do in it that you can't or are more difficult in the .Net languages?

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  • How to get jQuery to work with Prototype

    - by thinkfuture
    Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris BTW: when I try this, from the jQuery site: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); // Use jQuery via jQuery(...) jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("div").hide(); }); // Use Prototype with $(...), etc. $('someid').hide(); </script> my page disappears!

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  • Can I make Axis2 generate a WSDL with 'unwrapped' types?

    - by Bedwyr Humphreys
    I'm trying to consume a hello world AXIS2 SOAP web service using a PHP client. The Java class is written in Netbeans and the AXIS2 aar file is generated using the Netbeans AXIS2 plugin. You've all seen it before but here's the java class: public class SOAPHello { public String sayHello(String username) { return "Hello, "+username; } } The wsdl genereated by AXIS2 seems to wrap all the parameters so that when I consume the service i have to use a crazy PHP script like this: $client = new SoapClient("http://myhost:8080/axis2/services/SOAPHello?wsdl"); $parameters["username"] = "Dave"; $response = $client->sayHello($parameters)->return; echo $response."!"; When all I really want to do is echo $client->sayHello("Dave")."!"; My question is two-fold: why is this happening? and what can I do to stop it? :) Here's are the types, message and porttype sections of the generated wsdl: <wsdl:types> <xs:schema attributeFormDefault="qualified" elementFormDefault="qualified" targetNamespace="http://soap.axis2.myhost.co.uk"> <xs:element name="sayHello"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" name="username" nillable="true" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="sayHelloResponse"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" name="return" nillable="true" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> </wsdl:types> <wsdl:message name="sayHelloRequest"> <wsdl:part name="parameters" element="ns:sayHello"/> </wsdl:message> <wsdl:message name="sayHelloResponse"> <wsdl:part name="parameters" element="ns:sayHelloResponse"/> </wsdl:message> <wsdl:portType name="SOAPHelloPortType"> <wsdl:operation name="sayHello"> <wsdl:input message="ns:sayHelloRequest" wsaw:Action="urn:sayHello"/> <wsdl:output message="ns:sayHelloResponse" wsaw:Action="urn:sayHelloResponse"/> </wsdl:operation> </wsdl:portType>

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  • jquery ajax error cannot find url outside of debug mode

    - by John Orlandella Jr.
    I inherited some code two weeks ago that is using the jquery.ajax method to connect to a .NET web service. Here is the piece of code give me the trouble... if (MSCTour.AppSettings.OFFLINE !== 'TRUE') { $.ajax({ url: url, data: json, type: "POST", contentType: "application/json", timeout: 10000, dataType: "json", // not "json" we'll parse success: function(res){ if (!callback) { return; } /* // *** Use json library so we can fix up MS AJAX dates */ var result = ""; if (res !== "") { try { result = $.evalJSON(res); } catch (e) { result = {}; bare = true; } } /* // *** Bare message IS result */ if (bare) { callback(result); return; } /* // *** Wrapped message contains top level object node // *** strip it off */ for (var property in result) { callback(result[property]); break; } }, error: function(xhr,status,error){ if (status === 'parsererror') {} else {return error;} }, complete: function(res, status){ if (callback) { if ((status != 'success' && status != 'error') || status === 'parsererror' || (status === 'timeout' && res !== '')) { try { result = $.secureEvalJSON(res); } catch (e) { result = {}; bare = true; } callback(res); } } return; } }); } The url variable at this point equals /testsite/service.svc/GetItems Now here is where my problem lies... When running this site out of debug mode through visual studio I am not having any problem connecting to the database through the web service and seeing all my data, for both viewing and updating. When I go through the normal web server for the same site, on the same page, no data is showing up. When I put a break on the error portion of the code above in firebug this is information I am getting in the image linked below. link text I am getting what appears to be a 404 error, but when I look on the server all of the files are in the right place... coupled with the fact that it works when in debug mode, I think I am slowly going crazy staring at these same lines of code trying to find the needle in the haystack. Any help or just a direction to look in would be greatly appreciated.

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  • WPF - Random hanging with file browser attached behaviour.

    - by Stimul8d
    Hi, I have an attached behavior defined thusly,.. public static class FileBrowserBehaviour { public static bool GetBrowsesOnClick(DependencyObject obj) { return (bool)obj.GetValue(BrowsesOnClickProperty); } public static void SetBrowsesOnClick(DependencyObject obj, bool value) { obj.SetValue(BrowsesOnClickProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for BrowsesOnClick. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty BrowsesOnClickProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("BrowsesOnClick", typeof(bool), typeof(FileBrowserBehaviour), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(false, new PropertyChangedCallback(BrowsesOnClickChanged))); public static void BrowsesOnClickChanged(DependencyObject obj, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs args) { FrameworkElement fe = obj as FrameworkElement; if ((bool)args.NewValue) { fe.PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown += new MouseButtonEventHandler(OpenFileBrowser); } else { fe.PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown -= new MouseButtonEventHandler(OpenFileBrowser); } } static void OpenFileBrowser(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { var tb = sender as TextBox; if (tb.Text.Length < 1 || tb.Text=="Click to browse..") { OpenFileDialog ofd = new OpenFileDialog(); ofd.Filter = "Executables | *.exe"; if (ofd.ShowDialog() == true) { Debug.WriteLine("Setting textbox text-" + ofd.FileName); tb.Text = ofd.FileName; Debug.WriteLine("Set textbox text"); } } } } It's a nice simple attached behavior which pops open an OpenFileDialog when you click on a textbox and puts the filename in the box when you're done. It works maybe 40% of the time but the rest of the time the whole app hangs. The call stack at this point looks like this - [Managed to Native Transition] WindowsBase.dll!MS.Win32.UnsafeNativeMethods.GetMessageW(ref System.Windows.Interop.MSG msg, System.Runtime.InteropServices.HandleRef hWnd, int uMsgFilterMin, int uMsgFilterMax) + 0x15 bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.GetMessage(ref System.Windows.Interop.MSG msg, System.IntPtr hwnd, int minMessage, int maxMessage) + 0x48 bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.PushFrameImpl(System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherFrame frame = {System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherFrame}) + 0x8b bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.PushFrame(System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherFrame frame) + 0x49 bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.Run() + 0x4c bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Application.RunDispatcher(object ignore) + 0x1e bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Application.RunInternal(System.Windows.Window window) + 0x6f bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Application.Run(System.Windows.Window window) + 0x26 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Application.Run() + 0x19 bytes Debugatron.exe!Debugatron.App.Main() + 0x5e bytes C# [Native to Managed Transition] [Managed to Native Transition] mscorlib.dll!System.AppDomain.nExecuteAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly assembly, string[] args) + 0x19 bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Runtime.Hosting.ManifestRunner.Run(bool checkAptModel) + 0x6e bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Runtime.Hosting.ManifestRunner.ExecuteAsAssembly() + 0x84 bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Runtime.Hosting.ApplicationActivator.CreateInstance(System.ActivationContext activationContext, string[] activationCustomData) + 0x65 bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Runtime.Hosting.ApplicationActivator.CreateInstance(System.ActivationContext activationContext) + 0xa bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Activator.CreateInstance(System.ActivationContext activationContext) + 0x3e bytes Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.Utilities.dll!Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssemblyDebugInZone() + 0x23 bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(object state) + 0x66 bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(System.Threading.ExecutionContext executionContext, System.Threading.ContextCallback callback, object state) + 0x6f bytes mscorlib.dll!System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() + 0x44 bytes Now, I've seen this kind of thing before when doing some asynchronous stuff but there's none of that going on at that point. The only thread alive is the UI thread! Also, I always get that last debug statement when it does hang. Can anyone point me in the right direction? This one's driving me crazy!

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  • Avoiding stack overflows in wrapper DLLs

    - by peachykeen
    I have a program to which I'm adding fullscreen post-processing effects. I do not have the source for the program (it's proprietary, although a developer did send me a copy of the debug symbols, .map format). I have the code for the effects written and working, no problems. My issue now is linking the two. I've tried two methods so far: Use Detours to modify the original program's import table. This works great and is guaranteed to be stable, but the user's I've talked to aren't comfortable with it, it requires installation (beyond extracting an archive), and there's some question if patching the program with Detours is valid under the terms of the EULA. So, that option is out. The other option is the traditional DLL-replacement. I've wrapped OpenGL (opengl32.dll), and I need the program to load my DLL instead of the system copy (just drop it in the program folder with the right name, that's easy). I then need my DLL to load the Cg framework and runtime (which relies on OpenGL) and a few other things. When Cg loads, it calls some of my functions, which call Cg functions, and I tend to get stack overflows and infinite loops. I need to be able to either include the Cg DLLs in a subdirectory and still use their functions (not sure if it's possible to have my DLLs import table point to a DLL in a subdirectory) or I need to dynamically link them (which I'd rather not do, just to simplify the build process), something to force them to refer to the system's file (not my custom replacement). The entire chain is: Program loads DLL A (named opengl32.dll). DLL A loads Cg.dll and dynamically links (GetProcAddress) to sysdir/opengl32.dll. I now need Cg.dll to also refer to sysdir/opengl32.dll, not DLL A. How would this be done? Edit: How would this be done easily without using GetProcAddress? If nothing else works, I'm willing to fall back to that, but I'd rather not if at all possible. Edit2: I just stumbled across the function SetDllDirectory in the MSDN docs (on a totally unrelated search). At first glance, that looks like what I need. Is that right, or am I misjudging? (off to test it now) Edit3: I've solved this problem by doing thing a bit differently. Instead of dropping an OpenGL32.dll, I've renamed my DLL to DInput.dll. Not only does it have the advantage of having to export one function instead of well over 120 (for the program, Cg, and GLEW), I don't have to worry about functions running back in (I can link to OpenGL as usual). To get into the calls I need to intercept, I'm using Detours. All in all, it works much better. This question, though, is still an interesting problem (and hopefully will be useful for anyone else trying to do crazy things in the future). Both the answers are good, so I'm not sure yet which to pick...

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  • Programming graphics and sound on PC - Total newbie questions, and lots of them!

    - by Russel
    Hello, This isn't exactly specifically a programming question (or is it?) but I was wondering: How are graphics and sound processed from code and output by the PC? My guess for graphics: There is some reserved memory space somewhere that holds exactly enough room for a frame of graphics output for your monitor. IE: 800 x 600, 24 bit color mode == 800x600x3 = ~1.4MB memory space Between each refresh, the program writes video data to this space. This action is completed before the monitor refresh. Assume a simple 2D game: the graphics data is stored in machine code as many bytes representing color values. Depending on what the program(s) being run instruct the PC, the processor reads the appropriate data and writes it to the memory space. When it is time for the monitor to refresh, it reads from each memory space byte-for-byte and activates hardware depending on those values for each color element of each pixel. All of this of course happens crazy-fast, and repeats x times a second, x being the monitor's refresh rate. I've simplified my own likely-incorrect explanation by avoiding talk of double buffering, etc Here are my questions: a) How close is the above guess (the three steps)? b) How could one incorporate graphics in pure C++ code? I assume the practical thing that everyone does is use a graphics library (SDL, OpenGL, etc), but, for example, how do these libraries accomplish what they do? Would manual inclusion of graphics in pure C++ code (say, a 2D spite) involve creating a two-dimensional array of bit values (or three dimensional to include multiple RGB values per pixel)? Is this how it would be done waaay back in the day? c) Also, continuing from above, do libraries such as SDL etc that use bitmaps actual just build the bitmap/etc files into machine code of the executable and use them as though they were build in the same matter mentioned in question b above? d) In my hypothetical step 3 above, is there any registers involved? Like, could you write some byte value to some register to output a single color of one byte on the screen? Or is it purely dedicated memory space (=RAM) + hardware interaction? e) Finally, how is all of this done for sound? (I have no idea :) )

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  • is it possible to extract certain strings based off a predefined white-space count?

    - by s2xi
    So after several Advil's I think I need help I am trying to make a script that lets the user upload a .txt file, the file will look like this as an example EXT. DUNKIN' DONUTS - DAY Police vehicles remain in the parking lot. The determined female reporter from the courthouse steps, MELINDA FUENTES (32), interviews Comandante Chitt, who holds a napkin to his jaw, like he cut himself shaving. MELINDA < Comandante Chitt, how does it feel to get shot in the face? > COMANDANTE CHITT < Not too different than getting shot in the arm or leg. > MELINDA < Tell us what happened. > COMANDANTE CHITT < I parked my car. (indicates assault vehicle in donut shop) He aimed his weapon at my head. I fired seven shots. He stopped aiming his weapon at my head. > Melinda waits for more, but Chitt turns and walks away into the roped-off crime scene. Melinda is confused for a second, then resumes smiling. MELINDA < And there you have it... A man of few words. > Ok, so based off of this what I want to do is this: The PHP script looks at the file and counts 35 white spaces, since all files will have the same layout and never differ in white spaces I chose this as the best way to go. for every 35 white spaces extract character 36 until the end of line. Then tally up $character++ so in the end the output would look like ----------------------------------- It looks like you have 2 characters in your script Melinda Commandante Chitt ----------------------------------- using PHP to select distinct names, and use the strtolower() to lower case the strings and ucfirst() to make the first letter upper-case thats my project, I'm at the stage where I'm going crazy trying to figure out how to count white-spaces and everything after that white space until the first white-space after the word IS a character name

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  • PHP max_execution_time not timing out

    - by Joey Ezekiel
    This is not one of the regular questions if sleep is counted for timeout or stuff like that. Ok, here's the problem: I've set the max_execution_time for PHP as 15 seconds and ideally this should time out when it crosses the set limit, but it doesn't. Apache has been restarted after the change to the php.ini file and an ini_get('max_execution_time') is all fine. Sometimes the script runs for upto 200 seconds which is crazy. I have no database communication whatsoever. All the script does is looking for files on the unix filesystem and in some cases re-directing to another JSP page. There is no sleep() on the script. I calculate the total execution time of the PHP script like this: At the start of the script I set : $_mtime = microtime(); $_mtime = explode(" ",$_mtime); $_mtime = $_mtime[1] + $_mtime[0]; $_gStartTime = $_mtime; and the end time($_gEndTime) is calculated similarly. The total time is calculated in a shutdown function that I've registered: register_shutdown_function('shutdown'); ............. function shutdown() { .............. .............. $_total_time = $_gEndTime - $_gStartTime; .............. switch (connection_status ()) { case CONNECTION_NORMAL: .... break; .... case CONNECTION_TIMEOUT: .... break; ...... } } Note: I cannot use $_SERVER['REQUEST_TIME'] because my PHP version is incompatible. That sucks - I know. 1) Well, my first question obviously is is why is my PHP script executing even after the set timeout limit? 2) Apache has the Timeout directive which is 300 seconds but the PHP binary does not read the Apache config and this should not be a problem. 3) Is there a possibility that something is sending PHP into a sleep mode? 4) Am I calculating the execution time in a wrong way? Is there a better way to do this? I'm stumped at this point. PHP Wizards - please help.

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  • Is there a path of least resistance that a newcomer to graphics-technology-adoption can take at this point in the .NET graphics world?

    - by Rao
    For the past 5 months or so, I've spent time learning C# using Andrew Troelsen's book and getting familiar with stuff in the .NET 4 stack... bits of ADO.NET, EF4 and a pinch of WCF to taste. I'm really interested in graphics development (not for games though), which is why I chose to go the .NET route when I decided choose from either Java or .NET to learn... since I heard about WPF and saw some sexy screenshots and all. I'm even almost done with the 4 WPF chapters in Troelsen's book. Now, all of a sudden I saw some post on a forum about how "WPF was dead" in the face of something called Silverlight. I searched more and saw all the confusion going on at present... even stuff like "Silverlight is dead too!" wrt HTML5. From what I gather, we are in a delicate period of time that will eventually decide which technology will stabilize, right? Even so, as someone new moving into UI & graphics development via .NET, I wish I could get some guidance from people more experienced people. Maybe I'm reading too much? Maybe I have missed some pieces of information? Maybe a path exists that minimizes tears of blood? In any case, here is a sample vomiting of my thoughts on which I'd appreciate some clarification or assurance or spanking: My present interest lies in desktop development. But on graduating from college, I wish to market myself as a .NET developer. The industry seems to be drooling for web stuff. Can Silverlight do both equally well? (I see on searches that SL works "out of browser"). I have two fair-sized hobby projects planned that will have hawt UIs with lots of drag n drop, sliding animations etc. These are intended to be desktop apps that will use reflection, database stuff using EF4, networking over LAN, reading-writing of files... does this affect which graphics technology can be used? At some laaaater point, if I become interested in doing a bit of 3D stuff in .NET, will that affect which technologies can be used? Or what if I look up to the heavens, stick out my middle finger, and do something crazy like go learn HTML5 even though my knowledge of it can be encapsulated in 2 sentences? Sorry I seem confused so much, I just want to know if there's a path of least resistance that a newcomer to graphics-technology-adoption can take at this point in the graphics world.

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  • deleted gen folder, eclipse isn't generating it now :(

    - by LuxuryMode
    I accidentally deleted my gen folder and now, predictably, my resources are all messed up. I just created a gen folder myself and tried to project clean - that didn't work. Tried right-clicking project and going to android tools fix project properties - didn't work. Tried unchecking build automatically...didn't work. cleaned, closed project, closed eclipse, restarted, etc, etc. Nothing is working and I keep seeing this error: gen already exists but is not a source folder. Convert to a source folder or rename it. EDIT - OK was able to generate R.java, but now I'm getting crazy stuff in the console: [2011-06-14 17:06:11 - fastapp] Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 [2011-06-14 17:06:42 - fastapp] Dx trouble processing "java/awt/font/NumericShaper.class": Ill-advised or mistaken usage of a core class (java.* or javax.*) when not building a core library. This is often due to inadvertently including a core library file in your application's project, when using an IDE (such as Eclipse). If you are sure you're not intentionally defining a core class, then this is the most likely explanation of what's going on. However, you might actually be trying to define a class in a core namespace, the source of which you may have taken, for example, from a non-Android virtual machine project. This will most assuredly not work. At a minimum, it jeopardizes the compatibility of your app with future versions of the platform. It is also often of questionable legality. If you really intend to build a core library -- which is only appropriate as part of creating a full virtual machine distribution, as opposed to compiling an application -- then use the "--core-library" option to suppress this error message. If you go ahead and use "--core-library" but are in fact building an application, then be forewarned that your application will still fail to build or run, at some point. Please be prepared for angry customers who find, for example, that your application ceases to function once they upgrade their operating system. You will be to blame for this problem. If you are legitimately using some code that happens to be in a core package, then the easiest safe alternative you have is to repackage that code. That is, move the classes in question into your own package namespace. This means that they will never be in conflict with core system classes. JarJar is a tool that may help you in this endeavor. If you find that you cannot do this, then that is an indication that the path you are on will ultimately lead to pain, suffering, grief, and lamentation. [2011-06-14 17:06:42 - fastapp] Dx 1 error; aborting [2011-06-14 17:06:42 - fastapp] Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 And eclipse can't resolve the import of my resources import com.me.fastapp.R;

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  • Fleunt NHibernate not working outside of nunit test fixtures

    - by thorkia
    Okay, here is my problem... I created a Data Layer using the RTM Fluent Nhibernate. My create session code looks like this: _session = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile("Data.s3db")) .Mappings( m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductMap>(); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductLogMap>(); }) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory(); When I reference the module in a test project, then create a test fixture that looks something like this: [Test] public void CanAddProduct() { var product = new Product {Code = "9", Name = "Test 9"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); using (ISession session = OrmHelper.OpenSession()) { var fromDb = session.Get<Product>(product.Id); Assert.IsNotNull(fromDb); Assert.AreNotSame(fromDb, product); Assert.AreEqual(fromDb.Id, product.Id); } My tests pass. When I open up the created SQLite DB, the new Product with Code 9 is in it. the tables for Product and ProductLog are there. Now, when I create a new console application, and reference the same library, do something like this: Product product = new Product() {Code = "10", Name = "Hello"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); Console.WriteLine(product.Id); Console.ReadLine(); It doesn't work. I actually get pretty nasty exception chain. To save you lots of head aches, here is the summary: Top Level exception: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail.\r\n\r\n The PotentialReasons collection is empty The Inner exception: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Both the unit test library and the console application reference the exact same version of System.Data.SQLite. Both projects have the exact same DLLs in the debug folder. I even tried copying SQLite DB the unit test library created into the debug directory of the console app, and removed the build schema lines and it still fails If anyone can help me figure out why this won't work outside of my unit tests it would be greatly appreciated. This crazy bug has me at a stand still.

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  • WCF facility : Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled

    - by cvista
    I asked this before and got no where so i'm asking again as i'm now desperate!! Hey if i create a new wcf project i can browse the meta instantly. if I try - when using the WCF facility - i get the following: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. i followed the instructions there and in a million other places and get no where. if i copy the contents of my faciltity service into the newly created project it complains that aspNetCompatibilityEnabled isnt enabled. so i enable it and then mex is disabled again and i get: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. again!! this is driving me crazy - i have tried tried tried to follow every example on the web!! here is my current configuration - there is no client yet: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="IbzStar.WebServices.UserServices" behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- Service Endpoints --> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="IbzStar.WebServices.IUserServices"> <!-- Upon deployment, the following identity element should be removed or replaced to reflect the identity under which the deployed service runs. If removed, WCF will infer an appropriate identity automatically. --> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> please someone help me out before my laptop gets launched into orbit!! w://

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  • Java Runtime.freeMemory() returning bizarre results when adding more objects

    - by Sotirios Delimanolis
    For whatever reason, I wanted to see how many objects I could create and populate a LinkedList with. I used Runtime.getRuntime().freeMemory() to get the approximation of free memory in my JVM. I wrote this: public static void main(String[] arg) { Scanner kb = new Scanner(System.in); List<Long> mem = new LinkedList<Long>(); while (true) { System.out.println("Max memory: " + Runtime.getRuntime().maxMemory() + ". Available memory: " + Runtime.getRuntime().freeMemory() + " bytes. Press enter to use more."); String s = kb.nextLine(); if (s.equals("m")) for (int i = 0; i < 1000000; i++) { mem.add(new Long((new Random()).nextLong())); } } } If I write in m, the app adds a million Long objects to the list. You would think the more objects (to which we have references, so can't be gc'ed), the less free memory. Running the code: Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 127257696 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 108426520 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 139873296 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 210632232 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 137268792 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 239504784 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 169507792 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 259686128 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 189293488 bytes. m Max memory: 1897725952. Available memory: 387686544 bytes. The available memory fluctuates. How does this happen? Is the GC cleaning up other things (what other things are there on the heap to really clean up?), is the freeMemory() method returning an approximation that's way off? Am I missing something or am I crazy?

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  • NSOperation inside NSOperationQueue not being executed

    - by Martin Garcia
    I really need help here. I'm desperate at this point. I have NSOperation that when added to the NSOperationQueue is not being triggered. I added some logging to see the NSOperation status and this is the result: Queue operations count = 1 Queue isSuspended = 0 Operation isCancelled? = 0 Operation isConcurrent? = 0 Operation isFinished? = 0 Operation isExecuted? = 0 Operation isReady? = 1 Operation dependencies? = 0 The code is very simple. Nothing special. LoadingConflictEvents_iPad *loadingEvents = [[LoadingConflictEvents_iPad alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoadingConflictEvents_iPad" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; loadingEvents.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFormSheet; loadingEvents.conflictOpDelegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:loadingEvents animated:NO]; [loadingEvents release]; ConflictEventOperation *operation = [[ConflictEventOperation alloc] initWithParameters:wiLr.formNumber pWI_ID:wiLr.wi_id]; [queue addOperation:operation]; NSLog(@"Queue operations count = %d",[queue operationCount]); NSLog(@"Queue isSuspended = %d",[queue isSuspended]); NSLog(@"Operation isCancelled? = %d",[operation isCancelled]); NSLog(@"Operation isConcurrent? = %d",[operation isConcurrent]); NSLog(@"Operation isFinished? = %d",[operation isFinished]); NSLog(@"Operation isExecuted? = %d",[operation isExecuting]); NSLog(@"Operation isReady? = %d",[operation isReady]); NSLog(@"Operation dependencies? = %d",[[operation dependencies] count]); [operation release]; Now my operation do many things on the main method, but the problem is never being called. The main is never executed. The most weird thing (believe me, I'm not crazy .. yet). If I put a break point in any NSLog line or in the creation of the operation the main method will be called and everything will work perfectly. This have been working fine for a long time. I have been making some changes recently and apparently something screw things up. One of those changes was to upgrade the device to iOS 5.1 SDK (iPad). To add something, I have the iPhone (iOS 5.1) version of this application that use the same NSOperation object. The difference is in the UI only, and everything works fine. Any help will be really appreciated. Regards,

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  • Zend Table Relationship Modeling with Composite Key

    - by emeraldjava
    I have a table with a composite primary key using four columns. mysql> describe leaguesummary; +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | leagueid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | leaguetype | enum('I','T') | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueparticipantid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leaguestandard | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | | leaguedivision | varchar(5) | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueposition | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | I have the league object modelled as so (all plain enough mappings) <?php class Model_DbTable_League extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'league'; protected $_primary = 'id'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary'); And I've started like this on the new model class. I've mapped a simple reference map which returns all rows linked to the league id. // http://files.zend.com/help/Zend-Framework/zend.db.table.relationships.html // http://naneau.nl/2007/04/21/a-zend-framework-tutorial-part-one/ class Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = "leaguesummary"; protected $_primary = array('leagueid', 'leaguetype','leagueparticipantid','leaguedivision'); protected $_referenceMap = array( 'Summary' => array( 'columns' => array('leagueid'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), ..... ); } ?> The simple case works when called from my controller public function listAction() { // action body $leagueTable = new Model_DbTable_League(); $this->view->leagues = $leagueTable->getLeagues(); $league = $leagueTable->getLeague(6); // work $summary = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','Summary'); Zend_Debug::dump($summary,"",true); I'm not sure how i can define extra _referenceMap keys which will take extra contraint ket values. I would like to be able to define a set called 'MenA' in which the type and division values are hardcoded, and the league id is taken from the initial rowset. 'MenA' =>array( 'columns' => array('leagueid','leaguetype','leaguedivision'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array("id","I","A") ) Is this style of mapping possible ie hardcoding the values into the 'refColumns'. The second crazy idea i had was to pass the variable values in as part of the third param of the findDependentRowset() method. $menA = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','MenA',array("I","A")); Any suggestions on how I might use the Zend DB Table Relationship mapping correctly to do this would be appreciated. I'm not interested in the plain, old and ugly $db-select(a,b,c)-where(..) style solution.

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  • PHP - Cannot modify header information...

    - by Scott W.
    Hi, I am going crazy with this error: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by... Please note that I know about the gazillion results on google and on stack overflow. My problem is the way I've constructed my pages. To keep html separate from php, I use include files. So, for example, my pages look something like this: <?php require_once('web.config.php'); ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Login</title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.gif"/> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.ico"/> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="<?php echo SITE_STYLE; ?>"/> </head> <body> <div id="page_effect" style="display:none;"> <?php require_once('./controls/login/login.control.php'); ?> </div> </body> </html> So, by the time my php file is included, the header is already sent. Part of the include file looks like this: // redirect to destination if($user_redirect != 'default') { $destination_url = $row['DestinationUrl']; header('Location:'.$user_redirect); } elseif($user_redirect == 'default' && isset($_GET['ReturnURL'])) { $destination_url = $_GET['ReturnURL']; header('Location:'.$destination_url); } else { header('Location:'.SITE_URL.'login.php'); } But I can't figure out how to work around this. I can't have the header redirect before the output so having output buffering on is the only thing I can do. Naturally it works fine that way - but having to rely on that just stinks. It would be nice if PHP had an alternative way to redirect or had additional parameters to tell it to clear the buffer.

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  • Ruby: Parse, replace, and evaluate a string formula

    - by Swartz
    I'm creating a simple Ruby on Rails survey application for a friend's psychological survey project. So we have surveys, each survey has a bunch of questions, and each question has one of the options participants can choose from. Nothing exciting. One of the interesting aspects is that each answer option has a score value associated with it. And so for each survey a total score needs to be calculated based on these values. Now my idea is instead of hard-coding calculations is to allow user add a formula by which the total survey score will be calculated. Example formulas: "Q1 + Q2 + Q3" "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 3" "(10 - Q1) + Q2 + (Q3 * 2)" So just basic math (with some extra parenthesis for clarity). The idea is to keep the formulas very simple such that anyone with basic math can enter them without resolving to some fancy syntax. My idea is to take any given formula and replace placeholders such as Q1, Q2, etc with the score values based on what the participant chooses. And then eval() the newly formed string. Something like this: f = "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 2" # some crazy formula for this survey values = {:Q1 => 1, :Q2 => 2, :Q3 => 2} # values for substitution result = f.gsub(/(Q\d+)/) {|m| values[$1.to_sym] } # string to be eval()-ed eval(result) So my questions are: Is there a better way to do this? I'm open to any suggestions. How to handle formulas where not all placeholders were successfully replaced (e.g. one question wasn't answered)? Ex: {:Q3 = 2} wasn't in values hash? My idea is to rescue eval()... any thoughts? How to get proper result? Should be 2.5, but due to integer arithmetic, it will truncate to 2. I can't expect people who provide the correct formula (e.g. / 2.0 ) to understand this nuance. I do not expect this, but how to best protect eval() from abuse (e.g. bad formula, manipulated values coming in)? Thank you!

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Linq to SQL entity w/ ForeignKey relationship and Default ModelBinder strangeness

    - by Simon
    Once again I'm having trouble with Linq to Sql and the MVC Model Binder. I have Linq to Sql generated classes, to illustrate them they look similar to this: public class Client { public int ClientID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Site { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class User { public int UserID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int? ClientID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Client> Client { get; set; } public int? SiteID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Site> Site { get; set; } } The 'User' has a relationship with the 'Client' and 'Site . The User class has nullable ClientIDs and SiteIDs because the admin users are not bound to a Client or Site. Now I have a view where a user can edit a 'User' object, the view has fields for all the 'User' properties. When the form is submitted, the appropiate 'Save' action is called in my UserController: public ActionResult Save(User user, FormCollection form) { //form['SiteID'] == 1 //user.SiteID == 1 //form['ClientID'] == 1 //user.ClientID == null } The problem here is that the ClientID is never set, it is always null, even though the value is in the FormCollection. To figure out whats going wrong I set breakpoints for the ClientID and SiteID getters and setters in the Linq to Sql designer generated classes. I noticed the following: SiteID is being set, then ClientID is being set, but then the Client EntityRef property is being set with a null value which in turn is setting the ClientID to null too! I don't know why and what is trying to set the Client property, because the Site property setter is never beeing called, only the Client setter is being called. Manually setting the ClientID from the FormCollection like this: user.ClientID = int.Parse(form["ClientID"].ToString()); throws a 'ForeignKeyReferenceAlreadyHasValueException', because it was already set to null before. The only workaround I have found is to extend the generated partial User class with a custom method: Client = default(EntityRef<Client>) but this is not a satisfying solution. I don't think it should work like this? Please enlighten me someone. So far Linq to Sql is driving me crazy! Best regards

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