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• exit /B 0 does not work...

  - by murxx

  Hi, I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat - in there I call: start startServer.bat - wait 30 seconds - check is server is started - exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat - call scriptA.bat ----- in there I call: start startServer.bat ----- wait 30 seconds ----- check is server is started ----- exit /B 0 - scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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• HTML Double Click Selection Oddity

  - by Aren B

  I didn't post this on DocType because it's not really a design thing, the visual representation isn't my problem, the behaviour is. I'm sorry if this is misplaced but I don't feel it's a designer issue. The following DOM: <ul style="overflow: hidden;"> <li style="float: left;"><strong>SKU:</strong>123123</li> <li style="float: left;"><strong>ILC:</strong>asdasdasdasd</li> </ul> Or <div style="overflow: hidden;"> <div style="float: left; width: 49%"><strong>SKU:</strong>123123</div> <div style="margin-left: 50%; width: auto;"><strong>ILC:</strong>asdasdasdasd</div> </div> Or <p> <span><strong>SKU:</strong>123123</span> <span><strong>ILC:</strong>asdasdasdasd</span> </p> All present me an odd problem in IE 6 IE 7 Firefox 3.x Chrome But not in IE 8 When you double click '123123' after 'SKU:', it selects '123123' AND 'ILC:' from the next dom element. Take any text on this page (here in SO), double click a word, it only selects THAT WORD, even in the middle of a paragraph. These examples have dom elements closing them, anyone know why this is happening. My fellow employees use the 'double click' mechanism to select the relevant product ID's to do their job, and this dosen't make sense to me what soever.

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• Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

  - by Thor84no

  I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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• Why is T() = T() allowed?

  - by Rimo

  I believe the expression T() creates an rvalue (by the Standard). However, the following code compiles (at least on gcc4.0): class T {}; int main() { T() = T(); } I know technically this is possible because member functions can be invoked on temporaries and the above is just invoking the operator= on the rvalue temporary created from the first T(). But conceptually this is like assigning a new value to an rvalue. Is there a good reason why this is allowed? Edit: The reason I find this odd is it's strictly forbidden on built-in types yet allowed on user-defined types. For example, int(2) = int(3) won't compile because that is an "invalid lvalue in assignment". So I guess the real question is, was this somewhat inconsistent behavior built into the language for a reason? Or is it there for some historical reason? (E.g it would be conceptually more sound to allow only const member functions to be invoked on rvalue expressions, but that cannot be done because that might break some existing code.)

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• Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

  - by Miron Brezuleanu

  We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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• At what point is it worth using a database?

  - by radix07

  I have a question relating to databases and at what point is worth diving into one. I am primarily an embedded engineer, but I am writing an application using QT to interface with our controller. We are at an odd point where we have enough data that it would be feasible to implement a database (around 700+ items and growing) to manage everything, but I am not sure it is worth the time right now to deal with. I have no problems implementing the GUI with files generated from excel and parsed in, but it gets tedious and hard to track even with VBA scripts. I have been playing around with converting our data into something more manageable for the application side with Microsoft Access and that seems to be working well. If that works out I am only a step (or several) away from using an SQL database and using the QT library to access and modify it. I don't have much experience managing data at this level and am curious what may be the best way to approach this. So what are some of the real benefits of using a database if any in this case? I realize much of this can be very application specific, but some general ideas and suggestions on how to straddle the embedded/application programming line would be helpful. Thanks

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• C#: Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture not working consistently

  - by xTRUMANx

  I've been working on a pet project on the weekends to learn more about C# and have encountered an odd problem when working with localization. To be more specific, the problem I have is with System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture. I've set up my app so that the user can quickly change the language of the app by clicking a menu item. The menu item in turn, saves the two-letter code for the language (e.g. "en", "fr", etc.) in a user setting called 'Language' and then restarts the application. Properties.Settings.Default.Language = "en"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); Application.Restart(); When the application is started up, the first line of code in the Form's constructor (even before InitializeComponent()) fetches the Language string from the settings and sets the CurrentUICulture like so: public Form1() { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(Properties.Settings.Default.Language); InitializeComponent(); } The thing is, this doesn't work consistently. Sometimes, all works well and the application loads the correct language based on the string saved in the settings file. Other times, it doesn't, and the language remains the same after the application is restarted. At first I thought that I didn't save the language before restarting the application but that is definitely not the case. When the correct language fails to load, if I were to close the application and run it again, the correct language would come up correctly. So this implies that the Language string has been saved but the CurrentUICulture assignment in my form constructor is having no effect sometimes. Any help? Is there something I'm missing of how threading works in C#? This could be machine-specific, so if it makes any difference I'm using Pentium Dual-Core CPU.

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• Why does VS2005 skip execution of lines when debugging managed C++ without optimizations?

  - by Sakin

  I ran into a rather odd behavior that I don't even know how to start describing. I wrote a piece of managed C++ code that makes calls to native methods. A (very) simplified version of the code would look like this (I know it looks like a full native function, just assume there is managed stuff being done all over the place): int somefunction(ptrHolder x) { // the accessptr method returns a native pointer if (x.accessptr() != nullptr) // I tried this with nullptr, NULL, 0) { try { x->doSomeNativeVeryImportantStuff(); // or whatever, doesn't matter } catch (SomeCustomExceptionClass &) { return 0; } } SomeOtherNativeClass::doStaticMagic(); return 1; } I compiled this code without optimizations using the /clr flag (VS.NET 2005, SP2) and when running it in the debugger I get to the if statement, since the pointer is actually null, I don't enter the if, but surprisingly, the cursor jumps directly to the return 1 statement, ignoring the doStaticMagic() method completely!!! When looking at the assembly code, I see that it really jumps directly to that line. If I force the debugger to enter the if block, I also jump to the return 1 statement after I press F10. Any ideas why this is happening? Thanks, Ariel

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• power and modulo on the fly for big numbers

  - by user unknown

  I raise some basis b to the power p and take the modulo m of that. Let's assume b=55170 or 55172 and m=3043839241 (which happens to be the square of 55171). The linux-calculator bc gives the results (we need this for control): echo "p=5606;b=55171;m=b*b;((b-1)^p)%m;((b+1)^p)%m" | bc 2734550616 309288627 Now calculating 55170^5606 gives a somewhat large number, but since I have to do a modulooperation, I can circumvent the usage of BigInt, I thought, because of: (a*b) % c == ((a%c) * (b%c))%c i.e. (9*7) % 5 == ((9%5) * (7%5))%5 => 63 % 5 == (4 * 2) %5 => 3 == 8 % 5 ... and a^d = a^(b+c) = a^b * a^c, therefore I can divide b+c by 2, which gives, for even or odd ds d/2 and d-(d/2), so for 8^5 I can calculate 8^2 * 8^3. So my (defective) method, which always cut's off the divisor on the fly looks like that: def powMod (b: Long, pot: Int, mod: Long) : Long = { if (pot == 1) b % mod else { val pot2 = pot/2 val pm1 = powMod (b, pot, mod) val pm2 = powMod (b, pot-pot2, mod) (pm1 * pm2) % mod } } and feeded with some values, powMod (55170, 5606, 3043839241L) res2: Long = 1885539617 powMod (55172, 5606, 3043839241L) res4: Long = 309288627 As we can see, the second result is exactly the same as the one above, but the first one looks quiet different. I'm doing a lot of such calculations, and they seem to be accurate as long as they stay in the range of Int, but I can't see any error. Using a BigInt works as well, but is way too slow: def calc2 (n: Int, pri: Long) = { val p: BigInt = pri val p3 = p * p val p1 = (p-1).pow (n) % (p3) val p2 = (p+1).pow (n) % (p3) print ("p1: " + p1 + " p2: " + p2) } calc2 (5606, 55171) p1: 2734550616 p2: 309288627 (same result as with bc) Can somebody see the error in powMod?

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• My IF statement is changing variables in PHP

  - by user1902509

  I am fairly new to the whole programming thing, so forgive me if this is a stupid question. It seems odd that I haven't run into it before. I am trying to make an order form for a cake. You fill out the form, submit it, and it will then display the order in a new window, where you then hit "submit," and upload it to the Database. I have a series of If Statements to check for errors in the form before submitting it. Here is a simplified version of the code. Writing means any writing you want on the cake, Name is your name, and cake is what type of cake you want (the default is "None"). try { $name = trim($params->name); $cake = trim($params->cake); $writing = trim($params->writing); if (strlen($name) < 3){ throw new Exception("Please enter Your name."); } if ($cake = "None") { throw new Exception("Please select a Cake" } if ($cake = "Caramel Apple Pie" or $cake = "Pumpkin Pie" or $cake = "Eggnog Pie" and strlen($writing) > 1) { throw new Exception("We are sorry, but you can't write on any of our specialty pies."); } } catch(Exception $x) { $error = $x->getmessage(); } So what is happening is that when I go and hit submit the first time, the correct cake type comes up, but when you submit it the second time, the error comes up saying that I have "None" selected. All the other values are there and remain the same. I think the problem is that the first "IF" statement (Where it says "If($cake = "None")) is automatically changing $cake to "None" because I have tried commenting just that statement out, and it will then change the cake to be "Caramel Apple Pie," which is in the top of the next IF statement. Anyone know why it is doing this? And how to fix it?

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• Cast base class object to derived class

  - by Popgalop

  Lets say I have two classes, animal and dog like this. class Animal { }; class Dog : public Animal { }; And I have an animal object named animal, that is actually an instance of dog, how would I cast it back to dog? This may seem like an odd question, but I need it because I am writing a programming language interpreter, and on the stack everything is stored as a BaseObject, and all the other datatypes extend BaseObject. How would I cast the base object from the stack, to a specific data type? I have tried something like this Dog dog = static_cast<Dog>(animal); But it gives me an error 1>------ Build started: Project: StackTests, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> StackTests.cpp 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'Animal' to 'Dog' 1> No constructor could take the source type, or constructor overload resolution was ambiguous 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2512: 'Dog' : no appropriate default constructor available ========== Build: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 up-to-date, 0 skipped ==========

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• When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

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• MVC JsonResult with the [Authorize] attribute going to Logon but not displaying the view

  - by likestoski

  I am seeing odd behavior with MVC 3 methods that return a JsonResult when used with the Authorize attribute. What looks like happens is the Authorize is correctly evaluated when I am not logged in but instead of redirecting to the logon form the Json response is the logon form. Is there an addition attribute that directs the response to not return a value but instead redirect the user to the logon form, preferebly with the correct returnUrl value? What I did as a demo was to setup a new MVC3 site and added AspNetMembership to my DB using the aspnet_regsql.exe command. All that is setup and logging me in correctly. The behavior of the JsonResult doesn't seem right and I'm hoping I have just missed an attribute to make it work properly. Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks in advance. Here is the Account Controller (leaving out the Post action which is not part of this question). public class AccountController : Controller { public ActionResult LogOn() { return View(); } [Authorize] public JsonResult AuthorizedAction() { return Json("Only returns if I am authorized"); } } Here is the Html markup: <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.11.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#btnTest").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Account/AuthorizedAction", data: {}, success: function (result) { $("#testMe").html(result); }, error: function (result) { $("#testMe").html('Something broke in the ajax request'); } }); }); }); </script> <input type="button" id="btnTest" value="Test me" /> <div id="testMe">I have initial text</div> The Result: 1) When logged in I get 'Only returns if I am authorized' in my test div 2) When not logged and I have a break point in my Logon() method I see this value Request["returnUrl"] "/Account/AuthorizedAction" The test div I have displays the logon form :) this seems like I'm just not handling this properly.

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• PHP: Extract direct sub directory from path string

  - by Nebs

  I need to extract the name of the direct sub directory from a full path string. For example, say we have: $str = "dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4/filename.ext"; $dir = "dir1/dir2"; Then the name of the sub-directory in the $str path relative to $dir would be "dir3". Note that $dir never has '/' at the ends. So the function should be: $subdir = getsubdir($str,$dir); echo $subdir; // Outputs "dir3" If $dir="dir1" then the output would be "dir2". If $dir="dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4" then the output would be "" (empty). If $dir="" then the output would be "dir1". Etc.. Currently this is what I have, and it works (as far as I've tested it). I'm just wondering if there's a simpler way since I find I'm using a lot of string functions. Maybe there's some magic regexp to do this in one line? (I'm not too good with regexp unfortunately). function getsubdir($str,$dir) { // Remove the filename $str = dirname($str); // Remove the $dir if(!empty($dir)){ $str = str_replace($dir,"",$str); } // Remove the leading '/' if there is one $si = stripos($str,"/"); if($si == 0){ $str = substr($str,1); } // Remove everything after the subdir (if there is anything) $lastpart = strchr($str,"/"); $str = str_replace($lastpart,"",$str); return $str; } As you can see, it's a little hacky in order to handle some odd cases (no '/' in input, empty input, etc). I hope all that made sense. Any help/suggestions are welcome.

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• Parallel doseq for Clojure

  - by andrew cooke

  I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

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• Can I split a single SQL 2008 DB Table into multiple filegroups, based on a discriminator column?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I've got a SQL Server 2008 R2 database which has a number of tables. Two of these tables contains a lot of large data .. mainly because one of them is VARBINARY(MAX) and the sister table is GEOGRAPHY. (Why two tables? Read Below if you're interested***) The data in these tables are geospatial shapes, such as zipcode boundaries. Now, the first 70K odd rows are for DataType = 1 the rest 5mil rows are for DataType = 2 Now, is it possible to split the table data into two files? so all rows that are for DataType != 2 goes into File_A and DataType = 2 goes into File_B? This way, when I backup the DB, I can skip adding File_B so my download is waaaaay smaller? Is this possible? I guessing you might be thinking - why not keep them as TWO extra tables? Mainly because in the code, the data is conceptually the same .. it's just happens that I want to split the storage of this model data. It really messes up my model if I now how two aggregates in my model, instead of one. ***Entity Framework doesn't like Tables with GEOGRAPHY, so i have to create a new table which transforms the GEOGRAPHY to VARBINARY, and then drop that into EF.

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• When to define SDD(System Sequence Diagram) operations System->Actor?

  - by devoured elysium

  I am having some trouble understanding how to make System Sequence Diagrams, as I don't fully grasp why in some cases one should define operations for System - Actor and in others don't. Here is an example: Let's assume the System is a Cinema Ticket Store and the Actor is a client that wants to buy a ticket. 1) The User tells the System that wants to buy some tickets, stating his client number. 2) The System confirms that the given client number is valid. 3) The User tells the System the movie that wants to see. 4) The System shows the set of available sessions and seats for that movie. 5) The System asks the user which session/seat he wants. 6) The User tells the System the chosen session/seat. This would be converted to: a) -----> tellClientNumber(clientNumber) b) <----- validClientNumber c) -----> tellMovieToSee(movie) d) <----- showsAvailableSeatsHours e) -----> tellSystemChosenSessionSeat(session, seat) I know that when we are dealing with SDD's we are still far away from coding. But I can't help trying to imagine how it how it would have been had I to convert it right away to code: I can understand 1) and 2). It's like if it was a C#/Java method with the following signature: boolean tellClientNumber(clientNumber) so I put both on the SDD. Then, we have the pair 3) 4). I can imagine that as something as: SomeDataStructureThatHoldsAvailableSessionsSeats tellSystemMovieToSee(movie) Now, the problem: From what I've come to understand, my lecturer says that we shouldn't make an operation on the SDD for 5) as we should only show operations from the Actor to the System and when the System is either presenting us data (as in c)) or validating sent data (such as in b)). I find this odd, as if I try to imagine this like a DOS app where you have to put your input sequencially, it makes sense to make an arrow even for 5). Why is this wrong? How should I try to visualize this? Thanks

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• Cached data accessed by reference?

  - by arthurdent510

  I am running into an odd problem, and this is the only thing I can think of. I'm storing a list in cache, and I am randomly losing items from my list as users use the site. I have a class that is called that either goes to cache and returns the list from there, or if the cache is over a certain time frame old, it goes to the database and refreshes the cache. So when I pull the data from cache, this is what it looks like.... results = (List<Software>)cache["software"]; And then I return results and do some processing, filter for security, and eventually it winds up on the screen. For each Software record, there can be multiple resources attached to it, and based on how the security goes they may see some, all, or none of the records. So in the security check it will remove some of those resources from the software record. So my question is.... when I return my results list, is it a reference directly to the cache object? So when I remove a resource from the software object, it is really removing from cache as well? If that is the case, is there any way to not return it as a reference? Thanks!

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• Yeoman 'grunt test' fails on clean project with 'port already in use'

  - by XMLilley

  With: Mac OS 10.8.4 Node 0.10.12 npm 1.3.1 grunt-cli 0.1.9 yo 1.0.0-rc.1 bower 0.9.2 [email protected] I encounter the following error with a clean yo angular project, followed by grunt server then grunt test: Running "connect:test" (connect) task Fatal error: Port 9000 is already in use by another process. I'm new to Yeoman and am stumped. I've deleted my original project and created a new one in a fresh folder just to make sure I wasn't overlooking any invisible configs. I restarted the machine to make sure I wasn't running any temporary server processes I had forgotten about. After all attempts, the basic server starts fine, attaches to Chrome, and the watcher updates the browser on any changes. (Notably, the server is running on 9000, which seems odd for the test-runner to also be trying to use 9000.) But I get that same error on attempting to start the test runner. Is this something I can fix, or an issue I should report to the Yeoman team? Thanks.

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• Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

  - by NhibernateIdiot

  This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

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• Can't get Dialog hosting a WebView to layout properly

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to host a webview on a dialog, without a titlebar, but I'm getting odd layout results. Example test: @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); WindowManager wm = (WindowManager)getContext().getSystemService(Context.WINDOW_SERVICE); Display display = wm.getDefaultDisplay(); LinearLayout ll = new LinearLayout(getContext()); ll.setOrientation(LinearLayout.VERTICAL); ll.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); ll.setMinimumWidth(display.getWidth() - 10); ll.setMinimumHeight(display.getHeight() - 10); WebView wv = new WebView(getContext()); wv.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); wv.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); ll.addView(mWebView); setContentView(ll, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); } the dialog is inflated at startup, but the webview is not visible. If I rotate the device, it becomes visible, and fills the whole parent layout as requested. What is the right way to do this? I simply want a dialog which occupies most of the device screen, and has a WebView on it which fills the entire space. Thanks

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• my web service works locally but, not when it is deployed

  - by rogdawg

  When I deploy my web service, I get the following error: There is no build provider registered for the extension '.svc'. You can register one in the section in machine.config or web.config. Make sure is has a BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute attribute which includes the value 'Web' or 'All'. I found one thread (http://forums.asp.net/t/1228638.aspx) that suggested a solution but, I can not get it to work. If I make the changes to my web config file as suggested in the thread, I then get a configuration error. One odd thing is that, if I check the machine.config file on my machine, located at C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config, I don't see any of the config settings described in the thread. As a matter of fact, there is no mention of "compilation" or "buildProviders" at all. The on-line documents I have found regarding BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute have not been of any help. Thanks in advance for any advice you can give. Here is my entire config file listing: <?xml version="1.0"?>

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• Large free block of english non-pronoun text

  - by Tom

  As part of teaching myself python I've written a script which allows a user to play hangman. At the moment, the hangman word to be guessed is simply entered manually at the start of the script's code. I want instead for the script to choose randomly from a large list of english words. This I know how to do - my problem is finding that list of words to work from in the first place. Does anyone know of a source on the net for, say, 1000 common english words where they can be downloaded as a block of text or something similar that I can work with? (My initial thought was grabbing a chunk of a novel from project gutenburg [this project is only for my own amusement and won't be available anywhere else so copyright etc doesn't matter hugely to me btw], but anything like that is likely to contain too many names or non-standard words that wouldn't be suitable for hangman. I need text that only has words legal for use in scrabble, basically). It's a slightly odd question for here I suppose, but actually I thought the answer might be of use not just to me but anyone else working on a project for a wordgame or similar that needs a large seed list of words to work from. Many thanks for any links or suggestions :)

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• Using "margin: 0 auto;" in Internet Explorer 8

  - by stusmith

  I'm in the process of doing some advance IE8 testing, and it seems that the old technique of using "margin: 0 auto;" doesn't work in all cases in IE8. The following piece of HTML gives a centered button in FF3, Opera, Safari, Chrome, IE7, and IE8 compat, but NOT in IE8 standard: <div style="height: 500px; width: 500px; background-color: Yellow;"> <input type="submit" style="display: block; margin: 0 auto;" /> </div> (As a work-around I can add an explicit width to the button). So the question is: which browsers are correct? Or is this one of those cases where the behaviour is undefined? (My thinking is that all the browsers are incorrect - shouldn't the button be 100% width if it's "display: block"?) UPDATE: I'm being a dunce. Since input isn't a block-level element, I should have just contained it within a div with "text-align: center". Having said that, for curiosity's sake, I'd still like to know whether the button should or shouldn't be centered in the example above. FOR THE BOUNTY: I know I'm doing odd things in the example, and as I point out in the update, I should have just aligned it center. For the bounty, I'd like references to the specs that answer: If I set "display: block", should the button be width 100%? Or is this undefined? Since the display is block, should "margin: 0 auto;" center the button, or not, or undefined?

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• C++ new memory allocation fragmentation

  - by tamulj

  I was trying to look at the behavior of the new allocator and why it doesn't place data contiguously. My code: struct ci { char c; int i; } template <typename T> void memTest() { T * pLast = new T(); for(int i = 0; i < 20; ++i) { T * pNew = new T(); cout << (pNew - pLast) << " "; pLast = pNew; } } So I ran this with char, int, ci. Most allocations were a fixed length from the last, sometimes there were odd jumps from one available block to another. sizeof(char) : 1 Average Jump: 64 bytes sizeof(int): 4 Average Jump: 16 sizeof(ci): 8 (int has to be placed on a 4 byte align) Average Jump: 9 Can anyone explain why the allocator is fragmenting memory like this? Also why is the jump for char so much larger then ints and a structure that contains both an int and char.

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