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  • Listbox of comboboxes and binding them WPF

    - by Bashawy
    Hello, I have a situation where i have a listbox of comboboxes , mainly it binds to a bridge entity so the object contains foreign keys . What i need to do is that i need to bind the display of the combos to the respective entities and their value members to the foreign key values in the bridge entity that i bind the listbox to. the code i have now is : <ListBox Name="lstServices" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Margin="2" DataContext="{Binding ElementName=wndMain,Path=DataContext}"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ComboBox Name="cmbService" SelectedIndex="0" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectedValuePath="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Mode=TemplatedParent}, Path=FK_ServiceID}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=AllServices}" Grid.Column="0"></ComboBox> <ComboBox Name="cmbService_Role" Margin="2,0,0,0" SelectedValuePath="{Binding Path=FK_ServiceRoleID}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=AllService_Roles}" Grid.Column="1"></ComboBox> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I could manage to display the values that i needed but since the List Item context changed i can't get to the listbox itemSource . Any help is appreciated Bishoy

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  • WPF DataTemplate - Overlay

    - by David Ward
    I have a class that I need to provide the datatemplate for. Currently I have two datatemplates, one for when Enabled == true and one for when Enabled == false. The datatemplate for the class is actually the one below which changes the template used based on a trigger: <DataTemplate x:Key="ActionNodeTemplateSelector"> <ContentPresenter Content="{Binding}" Name="cp" /> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Enabled}" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="cp" Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource ActionNodeTemplate}" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Enabled}" Value="False"> <Setter TargetName="cp" Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource ActionNodeDisabledTemplate}" /> </DataTrigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> This all works well. However, now I want to also display an image overlay if the "Completed" property is true and a different image if it is incomplete. I could easily carry on using my approach to trigger on the Completed property as well but this would double the number of templates and feels wrong. Is there a way that I could have a trigger on my DataTemplate that will allow me to overlay the correct image over the existing template which is based on the Enabled property?

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  • Snow Leopard & LSUIElement -> application not activating properly, window not "active" despite being

    - by Frank R.
    Hi, I'm running into a few problem with a background application that uses LSUIElement=1 to hide its dock item, menu bar and prevent it from appearing in the Command-Tab application switcher. It seems to be a Snow Leopard only problem. The application places an NSStatusItem in the menu bar and pops up a menu when clicked on. Selecting "Preferences..." should bring up an NSWindow with the preferences. The first thing that doesn't seem to work is that the Window does not get ordered in at the front, but appears behind all other application windows. I tried to fix this by calling [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps: YES] but that didn't work. After a while I figured out that the menu is blocking the message to the run loop from being sent, so I wrote another method on the MainController and sent the message with a delay: [self performSelector:@selector(setFront:) withObject: [preferencesController window] afterDelay:1.0]; -(void)setFront: (id) theWindow { [[NSApplication sharedApplication]activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; [theWindow orderFrontRegardless]; [theWindow makeKeyWindow]; [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; } Note the send-every-possible-message-to-make-it-do-what-it-should-be-doing-approach. This works, kind-of, the window is brought to the front on top of all other windows from all apps, BUT most of the time it isn't active, meaning it's title bar is greyed out. Clicking on the title bar won't make the window active either. Clicking INSIDE of the window will make it active!? This all didn't seem to be a problem in Leopard; just calling activateIgnoringOtherApps and making the window key seemed to work just fine. In Snow Leopard there is a new API designed to replace LSUIElement that is supposed to emulate its behaviour: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/releasenotes/cocoa/appkit.html I've played around with that, but it's SL-only and I haven't been able to get LSUIElement being set. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Setting article properties for a publication using RMO in C# .NET

    - by Pavan Kumar
    I am using transaction replication with push subscription. I am developing a UI for replication using RMO in C#.NET between different instances of the same database within same machine holding similar schema and structure. I am using Single subscriber and multiple publisher topology. During creation of publication i want to set a few article properties such as Keep the existing object unchanged ,allow schema changes at subscriber to false a,copy foriegn key constarint and copy check constraints to true. How do i set the article properties using RMO in C# .NET. I am using Visual Studio 2008 SP1.I also want to know as how we can select all the objects including Tables,Views,Stored Procedures for publishing at one stretch. I could do it for one table but i want to select all the tables at one stretch. This is the code snippet i used for selecting single table for publishing. TransArticle ta = new TransArticle(); ta.Name = "Article_1"; ta.PublicationName = "TransReplication_DB2"; ta.DatabaseName = "DB2"; ta.SourceObjectName = "person"; ta.SourceObjectOwner = "dbo"; ta.ConnectionContext = conn; ta.Create();

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  • PHP set timeout for script with system call, set_time_limit not working

    - by tehalive
    I have a command-line PHP script that runs a wget request using each member of an array with foreach. This wget request can sometimes take a long time so I want to be able to set a timeout for killing the script if it goes past 15 seconds for example. I have PHP safemode disabled and tried set_time_limit(15) early in the script, however it continues indefinitely. Update: Thanks to Dor for pointing out this is because set_time_limit() does not respect system() calls. So I was trying to find other ways to kill the script after 15 seconds of execution. However, I'm not sure if it's possible to check the time a script has been running while it's in the middle of a wget request at the same time (a do while loop did not work). Maybe fork a process with a timer and set it to kill the parent after a set amount of time? Thanks for any tips! Update: Below is my relevant code. $url is passed from the command-line and is an array of multiple URLs (sorry for not posting this initially): foreach( $url as $key => $value){ $wget = "wget -r -H -nd -l 999 $value"; system($wget); }

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  • Vimeo Desktop App OAuth

    - by Barry
    Hi Guys, I'm currently having massive trouble with Vimeo's Oauth implementation and my desktop app. My program does the following correctly. 1- Requests a Unauthorized Request Token with my key and secret and returns - a Token and a Token secret. 2- Generates a URL for the user to go to using the token which then shows our application's name and allows the user to Authorize us to use his/her account. It then shows a verifier which the user returns and puts into our app. The problem is the third step and actually exchanging the tokens for the access tokens. Basically every time we try and get them we get a "Invalid / expired token - The oauth_token passed was either not valid or has expired" I looked at the documentation and there's supposed to be a callback to a server when deployed like that which gives the user an "authorized token" but as im developing a desktop app we can't do this. So I assume the token retrieved in 1 is valid for this step. (actually it seems it is: http://vimeo.com/forums/topic:22605) So I'm wondering now am I missing something here on my actual vimeo application account now? is it treating it as a web hosted app with callbacks? all the elements are there for this to work and I've used this same component to create a twitter Oauth login in exactly the same way and it was fine. Thanks in advance, Barry

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  • JQUERY, AutoSuggest that doesn't kill the Server on ever keyup

    - by nobosh
    I'm working to build a JQUERY enabled AutoSuggest plugin, inspired by Apple's spotlight. Here is the general code: $(document).ready(function() { $('#q').bind('keyup', function() { if( $(this).val().length == 0) { // Hide the q-suggestions box $('#q-suggestions').fadeOut(); } else { // Show the AJAX Spinner $("#q").css("background-image","url(/images/ajax-loader.gif)"); $.ajax({ url: '/search/spotlight/', data: {"q": $(this).val()}, success: function(data) { $('#q-suggestions').fadeIn(); // Show the q-suggestions box $('#q-suggestions').html(data); // Fill the q-suggestions box // Hide the AJAX Spinner $("#q").css("background-image","url(/images/icon-search.gif)"); } }); } }); The issue I want to solve well & elegantly, is not killing the sever. Right now the code above hits the server every time you type a key and does not wait for you to essentially finish typing. What's the best way to solve this? A. Kill previous AJAX request? B. Some type of AJAX caching? C. Adding some type of delay to only submit .AJAX() when the person has stopped typing for 300ms or so? Thanks

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  • how to write this typical mysql query( ho to use subquery column into main query)

    - by I Like PHP
    I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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  • Linq to SQL with INSTEAD OF Trigger and an Identity Column

    - by Bob Horn
    I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column? This is the Linq-to-SQL: internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode) { ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord() { ProcessCode = processCode, SubId = workflowCreated.SubId, EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead. }; this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord); } This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null. And here is the trigger: ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger] ON [Master].[ProcessLogging] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON; INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser) SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF; END Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error: InvalidOperationException Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert. I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used. Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs? Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons: 1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure) 2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.

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  • Single Sign On for WebServices, WCS, WFS, WMS (Geoserver), etc.

    - by lajuette
    I'm trying to implement a Single Sign On (SSO) for a web application. Maybe you can help me find a proper solution, give me a direction or tell me, that solutions already exist. The scenario: A GeoExt (ExtJS for geodata/map based apps) webapp (JavaScript only) has a login form to let the user authenticate himself. The authentication is not implemented yet, so i'm flexible with respect to that. After authenticating to the main webapp the user indirectly accesses multiple 3rd-party services like WebServices, GeoServer WFS, Google Maps, etc. These services might require additional authentication like credentials or keys. We are (so far) not talking about additional login screens, just some kind of "machine to machine"-authentication. The main problem: I'm unable to modify the 3rd party services (e.g. Google) to add a SSO mechanism. I'd like to have a solution that allows the user to log in once to have access to all the services required. My first idea was a repository that stores all the required credentials or keys. The user logs in and can retrieve all required information to acces sthe other services. Does anybody know of existing implementations, papers, maybe implementations of such services? Other requirements: The communication between the JS application and the repository must be secure. The credentials must be stored in a secure manner. But the JS app must be able to use them to access the services (no chance to store a decryption key in a JS-app securely, eh? *g).

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  • How do I set the default selection for NSTreeController at startup?

    - by John Gallagher
    The Background I've built a source list (similar to iTunes et al.) in my Cocoa app. I've got an NSOutlineView, with Value column bound to arrangedObjects.name key path of an NSTreeController. The NSTreeController accesses JGSourceListNode entities in a Core Data store. I have three subclasses of JGSourceListNode - JGProjectNode, JGGroupNode and JGFolderNode. I have selectedIndexPaths on NSTreeController bound to an NSArray called selectedIndexPaths in my App Delegate. On startup, I search for group nodes and if they're not found in the core data store I create them: if ([allGroupNodes count] == 0) { JGGroupNode *rootTrainingNode = [JGGroupNode insertInManagedObjectContext:context]; [rootTrainingNode setNodeName:@"TRAIN"]; JGProjectNode *childUntrainedNode = [JGProjectNode insertInManagedObjectContext:context]; [childUntrainedNode setParent:rootTrainingNode]; [childUntrainedNode setNodeName:@"Untrained"]; JGGroupNode *rootBrowsingNode = [JGGroupNode insertInManagedObjectContext:context]; [rootBrowsingNode setNodeName:@"BROWSE"]; JGFolderNode *childFolder = [JGFolderNode insertInManagedObjectContext:context]; [childFolder setNodeName:@"Folder"]; [childFolder setParent:rootBrowsingNode]; [context save:nil]; } What I Want When I start the app, I want both top level groups to be expanded and "Untrained" to be highlighted as shown: The Problem I put the following code in the applicationDidFinishLaunching: method of the app delegate: [sourceListOutlineView expandItem:[sourceListOutlineView itemAtRow:0]]; [sourceListOutlineView expandItem:[sourceListOutlineView itemAtRow:2]]; NSIndexPath *rootIndexPath = [NSIndexPath indexPathWithIndex:0]; NSIndexPath *childIndexPath = [rootIndexPath indexPathByAddingIndex:0]; [self setSelectedIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:childIndexPath]]; but the outline view seems to not have been prepared yet, so this code does nothing. Ideally, eventually I want to save the last selection the user had made and restore this on a restart. The Question I'm sure it's possible using some crazy KVO to observe when the NSTreeController or NSOutlineView gets populated then expand the items and change the selection, but that feels clumsy and too much like a work around. How would I do this elegantly?

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  • Replacing specific HTML tags using Regex

    - by matthewpe
    Alright, an easy one for you guys. We are using ActiveReport's RichTextBox to display some random bits of HTML code. The HTML tags supported by ActiveReport can be found here : http://www.datadynamics.com/Help/ARNET3/ar3conSupportedHtmlTagsInRichText.html An example of what I want to do is replace any match of <div style="text-align:*</div> by <p style=\"text-align:*</p> in order to use a supported tag for text-alignment. I have found the following regex expression to find the correct match in my html input: <div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div> However, I can't find a way to keep the previous text contained in the tags after my replacement. Any clue? Is it me or Regex are generally a PITA? :) private static readonly IDictionary<string, string> _replaceMap = new Dictionary<string, string> { {"<div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div>", "<p style=\"text-align:(.*?)</p>"} }; public static string FormatHtml(string html) { foreach(var pair in _replaceMap) { html = Regex.Replace(html, pair.Key, pair.Value); } return html; } Thanks!

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  • AsyncPostBackTrigger disables buttons...

    - by afsharm
    I've a simple UpdatePanel and a button outside of it. I've introduced the button as an AsyncPostBackTrigger in the UpdatePanel. UpdatePanel itself works fine but the button does not. Whenever the button is clicked, its click handler does not run just like the button is not clicked at all! Why the button is not working and how can it be fixed? UPDATE: here is the markup: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upGridView" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:GridView ID="grdList" SkinID="SimpleGridView" DataKeyNames="Key" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" PageSize="15" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Caption="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, grdListCaption %>" EmptyDataText="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, grdListEmptyDataText %>" OnRowEditing="grdList_RowEditing" OnPageIndexChanging="grdList_PageIndexChanging" OnRowCreated="grdList_RowCreated"> <Columns> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnDelete" EventName="Click" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnNew" EventName="Click" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnForward" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Button ID="btnDelete" runat="server" SkinID="Button" Text="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, btnDelete %>" OnClick="btnDelete_Click" /> <asp:Button ID="btnNew" runat="server" SkinID="Button" Text="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, btnNew %>" OnClick="btnNew_Click" /> <asp:Button ID="btnForward" runat="server" SkinID="Button" meta:resourcekey="btnForward" OnClick="btnForward_Click" />

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  • LinqToSQL Double Insert issue

    - by Vaccano
    I have a WCF service with an object structure similar to this: public class MyClass { public List<MySubItem> SubItems { get; set; } } public class MySubItem { public List<MySubSubItem> SubSubItems { get; set; } } public class MySubSubItem { public string DataValue { get; set; } } public class MyClassDAL { public void InsertMyClass(MyClass myClass) { ctx.MyClasses.InsertOnSubmit(myClass); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } Sometimes my client will call in with a MyClass that submits only half of the values that it has in the list SubSubItems. Later it calls the insert with the rest of the list. The problem is that when it does this I get a Primary Key violation. The reason is that it is trying to insert the MySubItem again (because there are more items in the SubSubItems owned by the same MySubItem object). How do I deal with this? Do I just call an Update? Do I have to try to separate them out (updates from inserts)? SQL Server 2008 has a really cool Merge functionally. Is there some way to access that from LinqToSQL?

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  • Slow MySQL Query Breaking my back!

    - by Chris n
    so, I have tried everything I can think of, and can't get this query to happen in less than 3 seconds on my local server. I know the problem has to do with the OR referencing both the owner_id and the person_id. if I run one or the other it happens instantly, but together with an or I can't seem to make it work - I looked into rewriting the code, but the way the app was designed it won't be easy. is there a way I can call an equivalent or that won't take so long? here is the sql: SELECT event_types.name as event_type_name,event_types.id as id, count(events.id) as count,sum(events.estimated_duration) as time_sum FROM events,event_types WHERE event_types.id = events.event_type_id AND events.event_type_id != '4' AND ( events.status!='cancelled') AND events.event_type_id != 64 AND ( events.owner_id = 161 OR events.person_id = 161 ) GROUP BY event_types.name ORDER BY event_types.name DESC; Here's the Explain soup, although I'm guessing it's unnecessary cause there is probably a better way to structure that or that is obvious: thanks so much! chris. +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+-- | 1 | SIMPLE | event_types | range | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | NULL | 78 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | SIMPLE | events | ref | index_events_on_status,index_events_on_event_type_id,index_events_on_person_id,index_events_on_owner_id | index_events_on_event_type_id | 5 | thenumber_production.event_types.id | 907 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+

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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Testing background audio in the simulator

    - by Cactuar
    I'm experimenting with the new background audio service in iPhone OS 4.0 but I can't get it to work in the simulator. According to this page: iPhone Application Programming Guide: Executing Code in the Background it seems that all I have to do is add the a UIBackgroundModes key with an array containing audio to my Info.plist file and the audio my application plays should automatically continue when I switch to another app. I have done this but the audio still pauses as I switch to another app, when I switch back it continues where it left off. This is the code I'm using to play the sound: NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/audio.mp3", [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]]]; NSError *error; audioPlayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url error:&error]; audioPlayer.numberOfLoops = -1; if (audioPlayer == nil) NSLog(@"%@", [error userInfo]); else [audioPlayer play]; Has anyone gotten this to work? Could it be that it would work on an actual device and it's just a problem with the simulator? I'm a bit hesitant to install 4.0 on my phone since I've heard it's still very buggy. Wish I had another device to use only for development.

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  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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  • Strange activity stack behavior when using MapActivity

    - by AndroidDev
    I have the following activity structure in my application A simple "splash screen" activity is started when the application is fired up (let's call it "Splash"). This activity starts the main activity when the user presses a button (I will call it "Main"). Main can in turn start two activities from the menu. The first activity presents a simple form (let's call this one "Form"), the second is a MapActivity that presents a map (it is called "Map"). Main, Form, and Map are declared exactly the same in the manifest: <activity android:name="fully qualified activity class" android:screenOrientation="landscape" android:configChanges="keyboard|keyboardHidden|orientation" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.DEFAULT" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> When Main is active and I start Form and press "back", Main comes up again. Pressing "back" again brings up "Splash". Nothing strange here. Now comes the strange part: when I am in Main, start Map, and press "back", Main comes up as expected. But pressing "back" again just restarts Main. A second press on "back" is needed to bring me back to Splash! So it seems that starting the Map activity somehow results in Main ending up on the activity stack twice while starting the Form activity does not! Both Form and Map are started like this: startActivity(new Intent(this, MyActivity.class)); I don not catch the back key in any activity. Any clues on what is going on or how to debug this?

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  • Improve Efficiency for This Text Processing Code

    - by johnv
    I am writing a program that counts the number of words in a text file which is already in lowercase and separated by spaces. I want to use a dictionary and only count the word IF it's within the dictionary. The problem is the dictionary is quite large (~100,000 words) and each text document has also ~50,000 words. As such, the codes that I wrote below gets very slow (takes about 15 sec to process one document on a quad i7 machine). I'm wondering if there's something wrong with my coding and if the efficiency of the program can be improved. Thanks so much for your help. Code below: public static string WordCount(string countInput) { string[] keywords = ReadDic(); /* read dictionary txt file*/ /*then reads the main text file*/ Dictionary<string, int> dict = ReadFile(countInput).Split(' ') .Select(c => c) .Where(c => keywords.Contains(c)) .GroupBy(c => c) .Select(g => new { word = g.Key, count = g.Count() }) .OrderBy(g => g.word) .ToDictionary(d => d.word, d => d.count); int s = dict.Sum(e => e.Value); string k = s.ToString(); return k; }

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  • How Does a COM Program Locate a .NET DLL Registered for COM Interop?

    - by Eric J.
    One customer wants to consume our .NET DLLs from VB6. They are designed to support reverse interop and all works fine... except: There are two separate VB6 programs in two different directories. It seems it's necessary to do one of: Copy the .NET DLL into both directories, or Install the .NET DLL in the GAC This is the customer's observation and also supported by the RegAsm documentation: After registering an assembly using Regasm.exe, you can install it in the global assembly cache so that it can be activated from any COM client. If the assembly is only going to be activated by a single application, you can place it in that application's directory. I'm confused on this point. First point of confusion: As far as I understand, the COM runtime locates the DLL using the Prog ID / Class ID. When I look in the registry at the Class ID entry, I see the full path to the .NET DLL in the CodeBase key. Why is it that a COM program using the Prog ID / Class ID doesn't locate the .NET DLL using the CodeBase? Second point of confusion: The GAC is specific to .NET. How is it involved in resolving COM references?

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  • How to pass multiple parameter in DomainService - WCF

    - by S.Amani
    Hi, Let's say I have a window which should submit 3 model in client side (Silverlight Client Application). My problem is each time I submit the form, data on the server side which I passed them from client are empty. I've used nested class which contains my models, instead of passing multiple object as parameter, but it didn't work again. My Personnel Data Transfer Object Code is something like this : [DataContract] public class PersonnelDTO : EntityObject { [Key] [DataMember] public int PersonnelId { get; set; } [Include] [DataMember] [Association("Personnel_ID", "PersonnelId", "Personnel_ID")] public Personnel Personnel { get; set; } [Include] [DataMember] [Association("Personnel_Info_ID", "PersonnelId", "Personnel_Info_ID")] public Personnel_Info PersonnelInfo { get; set; } } I fill up this model to pass data from client to server (DomainService). and also my domain service code is : [Invoke] public void AddPersonnel(PersonnelDTO personnelDTO) { // Model are EMPTY in DTO ObjectContext.AddToPersonnels(personnelDTO.Personnel); ObjectContext.AddToPersonnel_Info(personnelDTO.PersonnelInfo); ObjectContext.SaveChanges(); } I don't know if there is a way to pass multiple parameter in WCF Service method include Generic List. Any advice will be graceful. Thanks.

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  • How to invalidate layout of listbox from custom children

    - by Stephen Price
    I have a custom panel for a listbox <ItemsPanelTemplate x:Key="FloatPanelTemplate"> <Controls:FloatPanel x:Name="CardPanel" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> The panel lays out its children using its X and Y dependency properties. This all works nicely when the FloatPanel is used by itself - I'm using FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsArrange | FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsMeasure on the dependency properties of the child items to tell the FloatPanel to redraw its layout. When I use it in a Listbox (code above) then it draws fine the first time, but when I drag the children (which modifies the item's X and Y) it is not notifying the Listbox that it needs to redraw the FloatPanel's children. I think the issue is related to the fact that each item in the bound collection is wrapped with a ListBoxItem. Hopefully I've described what i'm doing well enough that someone can tell me how to make the panel (or its children) tell it needs to do the Layout routines again. As I said it works once (initial draw) but then dragging items doesn't work (Listbox isnt aware that its children have changed and needs to relayout.) If I drag an item and then resize the window, the listbox does a layout and the items are drawn in their new locations. How do I notify the ListBox (or more importantly the FloatPanel in the ItemsPanelTemplate) that it needs to do a Layout pass?

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  • Nhibernate get collection by ICriteria

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at getting my entity. MApping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> </class> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } I want get query such as SELECT * FROM sales s INNER JOIN sales_users su on su.sales_id=s.id WHERE su.user_id=:N How can i do this through ICriterion object? Thanks a lot.

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  • Defining a variable in a class and using it in functions

    - by Josh
    I am trying to learn PHP classes so I can begin coding more OOP projects. To help me learn I am building a class that uses the Rapidshare API. Here's my class: <?php class RS { public $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; function apiCall($params) { echo $baseUrl; } } ?> $params will contain a set of key pair values, like this: $params = array( 'sub' => 'listfiles_v1', 'type' => 'prem', 'login' => '746625', 'password' => 'not_my_real_pass', 'realfolder' => '0', 'fields' => 'filename,downloads,size', ); Which will later be appended to $baseUrl to make the final request URL, but I can't get $baseUrl to appear in my apiCall() method. I have tried the following: var $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; private $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; And even tried $this->baseUrl = $baseUrl; in my apiCall() methid, I don't know what the hell I was thinking there though lol. Any help is appreciated thanks :)

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