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• Is there a modern free D?VCS that can ignore mainframe sequence numbers?

  - by Brent.Longborough

  I'm looking at migrating a large suite of IBM Assembler Language programs, from a vcs based on "filenames include version numbers", to a modern vcs which will give me, among other things, the ability to branch and merge. These files have 80-column records, the last 8 columns being an almost-meaningless sequence number. For a number of reasons which I don't really want to waste space by going into, I need the vcs to ignore (but hopefully preserve in some well-defined manner) the sequence number columns, and to diff and patch based only on the contents of the first 72 columns. Any ideas? Just to clarify "ignore but preserve": I accept it's a bit vague, as I haven't fully collected my ideas yet. It would be something along the lines of this: "When merging/patching, if one side has sequence numbers, output them; if more-than-one side has sequence numbers, use those present in file (1|2|3)" Why do I want to preserve sequence numbers? First, they really are sequence numbers. Second, I want to reintegrate this stuff back onto the mainframe, where sequence numbers can be terribly significant. (Those of you who know what "SMP/E" means will understand. Those who don't, be happy, but tremble...) I've just realised I hadn't accepted an answer. Difficult choice, but @Noldorin comes closest to where I have to go.

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• Is it possible to load an assembly targeting a different .NET runtime version in a new app domain?

  - by Notre

  Hello, I've an application that is based on .NET 2 runtime. I want to add a little bit of support for .NET 4 but don't want to (in the short term), convert the whole application (which is very large) to target .NET 4. I tried the 'obvious' approach of creating an application .config file, having this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> but I ran into some problems that I noted here. I got the idea of creating a separate app domain. To test it, I created a WinForm project targeting .NET 2. I then created a class library targeting .NET 4. In my WinForm project, I added the following code: AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup(); setup.ApplicationBase = "path to .NET 4 assembly"; setup.ConfigurationFile = System.Environment.CurrentDirectory + "\\DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config"; // Set up the Evidence Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence(baseEvidence); // Create the AppDomain AppDomain dotNet4AppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("DotNet4AppDomain", evidence, setup); try { Assembly doNet4Assembly = dotNet4AppDomain.Load( new AssemblyName("MyDotNet4Assembly, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=66f0dac1b575e793")); MessageBox.Show(doNet4Assembly.FullName); } finally { AppDomain.Unload(dotNet4AppDomain); } My DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config file looks like this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> Unfortunately, this throws the BadImageFormatException when dotNet4AppDomain.Load is executed. Am I doing something wrong in my code, or is what I'm trying to do just not going to work? Thank you!

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• How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

  - by Holli

  One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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• Error when compiling a WinForms project that uses SubSonic library

  - by Mike Devenney

  The code generation is working but I get the following errors when I try to build the project: Error 4 Source file '...Project Path...\Structs.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 5 Source file '...Project Path...\Context.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 6 Source file '...Project Path...\ActiveRecord.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 7 Source file '...Project Path...\StoredProcedures.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator I'm using VS2010 on a Windows 7 64 bit machine. Project is targeting Framework 3.5... any ideas? Also noticed the following warnings, but not sure that these are as important: Warning 1 The C# 2.0 and C# 3.5 compilers are no longer supported. Templates will always be compiled with the version 4 compiler instead of 'v3.5' as specified. ...ProjectPath...\Structs.tt 1 4 Warning 2 Multiple template directives were found in the template. All but the first one will be ignored. Multiple parameters to the template directive should be specified within one template directive. ...ProjectPath...\Settings.ttinclude 1 4 Warning 3 Compiling transformation: The variable 'parameters' is assigned but its value is never used ...ProjectPath...\SQLServer.ttinclude 92 15 Thanks! Mike D

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• WPF View/ViewModels using Generics- how?

  - by Investor5555

  New to WPF, so please bear with me... Suppose I have 2 tables in SQL Thing OtherThing Both have the exact same fields: ID (int) Name (string) Description (string) IsActive (bit/bool) DateModified (DateTime) So, I want to create one Model (not two) and do something like this: BaseModel<T>() { public int ID {get;set;} ... } etc. (of course, using the INotifyPropertyChanged, just trying to keep the code simple). I want to be able to create a BaseView and BaseViewModel that would work with whatever model conforms to the Thing/OtherThing. I am really at a loss as to what to do here to make this generic, so I don't have to have a ThingView/ThingViewModel and a OtherThingView/OtherThingViewModel... It seems that this should be simple, but I cannot seem to figure it out. Does anyone have a code example where they could interchange various items from a dropdown list using one view, one ViewModel, and one base datamodel (and switching out the type from a dropdown)? For example, a combobox has 3 identical table structures for Thing OtherThing SomeThing and on selection changed, I want to pull the data from whatever table was selected, to be able to do standard CRUD operations on any of these 3 tables, without having to create concrete classes for each view/viewmodel.

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• MySQL FULLTEXT not working

  - by Ross

  I'm attempting to add searching support for my PHP web app using MySQL's FULLTEXT indexes. I created a test table (using the MyISAM type, with a single text field a) and entered some sample data. Now if I'm right the following query should return both those rows: SELECT * FROM test WHERE MATCH(a) AGAINST('databases') However it returns none. I've done a bit of research and I'm doing everything right as far as I can tell - the table is a MyISAM table, the FULLTEXT indexes are set. I've tried running the query from the prompt and from phpMyAdmin, with no luck. Am I missing something crucial? UPDATE: Ok, while Cody's solution worked in my test case it doesn't seem to work on my actual table: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `uploads` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` text NOT NULL, `size` int(11) NOT NULL, `type` text NOT NULL, `alias` text NOT NULL, `md5sum` text NOT NULL, `uploaded` datetime NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=6 ; And the data I'm using: INSERT INTO `uploads` (`id`, `name`, `size`, `type`, `alias`, `md5sum`, `uploaded`) VALUES (1, '04 Sickman.mp3', 5261182, 'audio/mp3', '1', 'df2eb6a360fbfa8e0c9893aadc2289de', '2009-07-14 16:08:02'), (2, '07 Dirt.mp3', 5056435, 'audio/mp3', '2', 'edcb873a75c94b5d0368681e4bd9ca41', '2009-07-14 16:08:08'), (3, 'header_bg2.png', 16765, 'image/png', '3', '5bc5cb5c45c7fa329dc881a8476a2af6', '2009-07-14 16:08:30'), (4, 'page_top_right2.png', 5299, 'image/png', '4', '53ea39f826b7c7aeba11060c0d8f4e81', '2009-07-14 16:08:37'), (5, 'todo.txt', 392, 'text/plain', '5', '7ee46db77d1b98b145c9a95444d8dc67', '2009-07-14 16:08:46'); The query I'm now running is: SELECT * FROM `uploads` WHERE MATCH(name) AGAINST ('header' IN BOOLEAN MODE) Which should return row 3, header_bg2.png. Instead I get another empty result set. My options for boolean searching are below: mysql> show variables like 'ft_%'; +--------------------------+----------------+ | Variable_name | Value | +--------------------------+----------------+ | ft_boolean_syntax | + -><()~*:""&| | | ft_max_word_len | 84 | | ft_min_word_len | 4 | | ft_query_expansion_limit | 20 | | ft_stopword_file | (built-in) | +--------------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.02 sec) "header" is within the word length restrictions and I doubt it's a stop word (I'm not sure how to get the list). Any ideas?

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• special debugging lines (java)

  - by David

  Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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• Having an issue with org.hibernate.SessionException: Session is closed! in Hibernate

  - by hal10001

  I've done quite a bit a research on this with no luck, but all the answers have a tendency to point toward the session context settings in the config file. What is odd is that I get a session connection the very first time I hit the page (and therefore, a successful result set), but then when I reload I get the following exception: org.hibernate.SessionException: Session is closed! Here are my config settings that are not DB connection string related: <property name="hibernate.show_sql">false</property> <property name="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_minimal_puts">false</property> Here is an example of a call I make that produces the situation I described above. public T get(int id) { session.beginTransaction(); T type; try { type = getTypeClass().cast(session.get(getTypeClass(), id)); } catch (ClassCastException classCastException) { throw new ClassCastException(classCastException.getMessage()); } session.getTransaction().commit(); return type; } The session variable reference is to a static field that contains the current session. All of the session connection details are textbook reference manual. For example, here is my Hibernate session utility: import org.hibernate.SessionFactory; import org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration; public class HibernateSessionFactoryUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { return new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { System.err.println("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } }

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• sort outer array based on values in inner array, javascript

  - by ptrn

  I have an array with arrays in it, where I want to sort the outer arrays based on values in a specific column in the inner. I bet that sounded more than a bit confusing, so I'll skip straight to an example. Initial data: var data = [ [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 1 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(1); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 2 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(2); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ] ]; The big Q Is there an existing solution to this that you know of, or would I have to write one myself? If so, which would be the easiest sort algorithm to use? QuickSort? _L

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• How to display my server's current response time to an average user

  - by Jason

  Sorry, I'm not really sure of the right way to ask this one so bear with me... We have a web application that runs on a set of servers at a data center (not in our offices) We want to be able to somehow 'advertise' to our clients/users that the availability or response time of our servers has met a standard throughout the day. I am being asked to come up with a standard metric that we can easily advertise on our login screen that shows current "standard response time" checked every x minutes. My thinking is that I need to capture something like the results of a traceroute from a server (either in our office, amazon, etc..) to one of the data center servers and come up with a Red/Yellow/Green type of a notifier for the login screen to let the user know that our tests are responding normally and if they are having delay issues it could be their network or connection to the internet. We have lots of clients in rural areas that have poor connectivity and we are trying to let them know any slowness might be on their end, not ours. I've got the LAMP stack to work with, but this could also be some other system all together as long as it can update the main server with the results. I already have pingdom reports that are available, but that's a bit more than people want to read sometimes. Any ideas on what I can do?

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• Assembly unavailable after Web.config change

  - by tags2k

  I'm using a custom framework that uses reflection to do a GetTypeByName(string fullName) on the fully-qualified type name that it gets from the database, to create an instance of said type and add it to the page, resulting in a standard modular kind of thing. GetTypeByName is a utility function of mine that simply iterates through Thread.GetDomain().GetAssemblies(), then performs an assembly.GetType(fullName) to find the relevant type. Obviously this result gets cached for future reference and speed. However, I'm experiencing some issues whereby if the web.config gets updated (and, in some scarier instances if the application pool gets recycled) then it will lose all knowledge of certain assemblies, resulting in the inability to render an instance of the module type. Debugging shows that the missing assembly literally does not exist in the current thread assemblies list. To get around this I added a second check which is a bit dirty but recurses through the /bin/ directory's DLLs and checks that each one exists in the assemblies list. If it doesn't, it loads it using Assembly.Load and fixing the context issue thanks to 'Solving the Assembly Load Context Problem'. This would work, only it seems that (and I'm aware this shouldn't be possible) some projects still have access to the missing assembly, for example my actual web project rather than the framework itself - and it then complains that duplicate references have been added! Has anyone ever heard of anything like this, or have any ideas why an assembly would simply drop out of existence on a config change? Short of a solution, what is the most elegant workaround to get all the assemblies in the bin to reload? It needs to be all in one "hit" so that the site visitors don't see any difference other than a small delay, so an app_offline.htm file is out of the question. Programatically renaming a DLL in the bin and then naming it back does work, but requires "modify" permissions for the IIS user account, which is insane. Thanks for any pointers the community can gather!

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• PHP Serialize Function - Adding serialized data to mysql and then fetch and display

  - by Abhilash Shukla

  I want to know whether the PHP serialize function is 100% secure, also if we store serialized data into a database and want to do something after fetching it, will it be a nice way. For example:- I have a website with different user privileges, now i want to store the permissions settings for a particular privilege to my database (This data i want to store is to be done through php serialize function), now when a user logs in i want to fetch this data and set the privilege for the customer. Now i am ok to do this thing, what i want to know is, whether it is the best way to do or something more efficient can be done. Also, i was going through php manual and found this code, can anybody explain me a bit what's happening in this code:- [Specially why base64_encode is used?] <?php mySerialize( $obj ) { return base64_encode(gzcompress(serialize($obj))); } myUnserialize( $txt ) { return unserialize(gzuncompress(base64_decode($txt))); } ?> Also if somebody can provide me their own code to show me to do this thing in the most efficient manner. Thanks.

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• How can I modify a scalar reference passed to a subroutine reference

  - by Mark

  I have a function to convert documents into different formats, which then calls another function based on the type document. It's pretty straight forward for everything aside from HTML documents which require a bit of cleaning up, and that cleaning up is different based on where it's come from. So I had the idea that I could pass a reference to a subroutine to the convert function so the caller has the opportunity to modify the HTML, kinda like so (I'm not at work so this isn't copy-and-pasted): package Converter; ... sub convert { my ($self, $filename, $coderef) = @_; if ($filename =~ /html?$/i) { $self->_convert_html($filename, $coderef); } } sub _convert_html { my ($self, $filename, $coderef) = @_; my $html = $self->slurp($filename); $coderef->(\$html); #this modifies the html $self->save_to_file($filename, $html); } which is then called by: Converter->new->convert("./whatever.html", sub { s/<html>/<xml>/i }); I've tried a couple of different things along these lines but I keep on getting 'Use of uninitialized value in substitution (s///)'. Is there any way of doing what I'm trying to do? Thanks

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• URL rewriting to a common end point

  - by sunil

  I want to create an asp.net white-label site http://whitelabel.com, that could be styled for each of our clients according to their specific needs. So for example, client abc would see the site in their corporate colours and be accessed through their specific url http://abc.com. Likewise client xyz would see the site in their own styling and url http://xyz.com. Typing either url, in effect, takes the user to http://whitelabel.com where the styling is applied, and the client's url structure is retained. I was thinking of URL rewriting using URLRewriter.Net (http://urlrewriter.net/), or similar, mapping the incoming address to a client id and applying the theme accordingly. So, a url rewrite rule may be something like <rewrite url="http//abc.com/(.+)" to="~/$1?id=1" /> <rewrite url="http//xyz.com/(.+)" to="~/$1?id=2" /> I could then read the id, map it to the client, and with a bit of jiggery-pokery, apply the correct theme. I was wondering if: this is the right approach ? I've overlooked something ? there is a better way to do this ? Any suggestions would be appreciated.

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• Stale connection with Pheanstalk

  - by token47

  I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

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• .Net assembly references being lost as soon as project is compiled

  - by Truegilly

  I have a windows service project, one of many C# projects in a solution file. I add a reference to my "Data_objects" class library for my windows service. this is added to the references no problem. all the classes become available and I can begin to code. As soon a I compile the windows service it says "The type or namespace name 'Data_Objects' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" yet in the solution explorer the reference is fine, no yellow exclamation mark. I have to remove and add it again for it to pick it up, but then as soon as I compile it loses it. This reference works fine in my two other web application projects. what the hell is going on !! Truegilly Update there are no naming conflicts the only bit of code I have is a using statement - eg using Data_Objects.DataContext; also this only happens with a windows service project, i just created a new web app project and it works fine.

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• What is the best way to save the environment from before an alarm handler goes off when the alarm do

  - by EpsilonVector

  I'm trying to implement user threads on a 2.4 Linux kernel (homework) and the trick for context switch seems to be using an alarm that goes off every x milliseconds and sends us to an alarm handler from which we can longjmp to the next thread. What I'm having difficulties with is figuring out how to save the environment to return to later. Basically I have an array of jmp_buffs, and every time a "context switch" using the alarm happens I want to save the previous context to the appropriate entry of the array and longjmp to the next one. However, just the fact that I need to do this from the event handler means that just using setjmp in the event handler won't give me exactly the kind of environment I want (as far as stack and program counter are involved) because the stack has the event handler call in it and the pc is in the event handler. I suppose I can look at the stack and alter it to fit my needs, but that feels a bit cumbersome. Another idea I had is to somehow pass the environment before the jump to event handler as a parameter to the event handler, but I can't figure out if this is possible. So I guess my question is- how do I do this right?

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• Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

  - by Rob

  hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

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• Strange behavior with complex Q object filter queries in Django

  - by HWM-Rocker

  Hi I am trying to write a tagging system for Django, but today I encountered a strange behavior in filter or the Q object (django.db.models.Q). I wrote a function, that converts a search string into a Q object. The next step would be to filter the TaggedObject with these query. But unfortunately I get a strange behavior. when I search (id=20) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20)) and it returns 2 Taged Objects with the ID 1127 and 132 when I search (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 4)) and it returns also 2 Objects, but this time 1180 and 1127 until here is everything fine, but when i make a little bit more complex query like (id=4) or (id=20) = Q: (OR: ('tags__tag__id', 4), ('tags__tag__id', 20)) then it returns 4(!) Objects 1180, 1127, 1127, 132 But the object with the ID 1127 is returned twice, but thats not the behaviour I want. Do I have to live with it, and uniqify that list or can I do something different. The representation of the Q object looks fine for me. But the worst is now, when I search for (id=20) and (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20), ('tags__tag__id', 4)) then it returns no object at all. But why? The representation should be ok and the object with the id 1127 is tagged by both. What am I missing? Here are also the relevant parts of the classes, that are involved: class TaggedObject(models.Model): """ class that represent a tagged object """ tags = generic.GenericRelation('ObjectTagBridge', blank=True, null=True) class ObjectTagBridge(models.Model): """ Help to connect a generic object to a Tag. """ # pylint: disable-msg=W0232,R0903 content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') tag = models.ForeignKey('Tag') class Tag(models.Model): ... Thanks for your help

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• Delphi Performance: Case Versus If

  - by Andreas Rejbrand

  I guess there might be some overlapping with previous SO questions, but I could not find a Delphi-specific question on this topic. Suppose that you want to check if an unsigned 32-bit integer variable "MyAction" is equal to any of the constants ACTION1, ACTION2, ... ACTIONn, where n is - say 1000. I guess that, besides being more elegant, case MyAction of ACTION1: {code}; ACTION2: {code}; ... ACTIONn: {code}; end; if much faster than if MyAction = ACTION1 then // code else if MyAction = ACTION2 then // code ... else if MyAction = ACTIONn then // code; I guess that the if variant takes time O(n) to complete (i.e. to find the right action) if the right action ACTIONi has a high value of i, whereas the case variant takes a lot less time (O(1)?). Am I correct that switch is much faster? Am I correct that the time required to find the right action in the switch case actually is independent of n? I.e. is it true that it does not really take any longer to check a million cases than to check 10 cases? How, exactly, does this work?

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• A smarter way to do this jQuery?

  - by Nicky Christensen

  I have a a map on my site, and clicking regions a class should be toggled, on both hover and click, I've made a jQuery solution to do this, however, I think it can be done a bit smarter than i've done it? my HTML output is this: <div class="mapdk"> <a data-class="nordjylland" class="nordjylland" href="#"><span>Nordjylland</span></a> <a data-class="midtjylland" class="midtjylland" href="#"><span>Midtjylland</span></a> <a data-class="syddanmark" class="syddanmark" href="#"><span>Syddanmark</span></a> <a data-class="sjaelland" class="sjalland" href="#"><span>Sjælland</span></a> <a data-class="hovedstaden" class="hovedstaden" href="#"><span>Hovedstaden</span></a> </div> And my jQuery looks like: if ($jq(".area .mapdk").length) { $jq(".mapdk a.nordjylland").hover(function () { $jq(".mapdk").toggleClass("nordjylland"); }).click(function () { $jq(".mapdk").toggleClass("nordjylland"); }); $jq(".mapdk a.midtjylland").hover(function () { $jq(".mapdk").toggleClass("midtjylland"); }).click(function () { $jq(".mapdk").toggleClass("midtjylland"); }); } The thing is, that with what i've done, i have to make a hover and click function for every link i've got - I was thinking I might could keep it in one hover,click function, and then use something like $jq(this) ? But not sure how ?

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• Why am I getting "(304) Not Modified" error on some links when using HttpWebRequest?

  - by Greg

  Hi, Any ideas why on some links that I try to access using HttpWebRequest I am getting "The remote server returned an error: (304) Not Modified." in the code? The code I'm using is from Jeff's post here. Note the concept of the code is a simple proxy server, so I'm pointing my browser at this locally running piece of code, which gets my browsers request, and then proxies it on by creating a new HttpWebRequest, as you'll see in the code. It works great for most sites/links, but for some this error comes up. You will see one key bit in the code is where it seems to copy the http header settings from the browser request to it's request out to the site, and it copies in the header attributes. Not sure if the issue is something to do with how it mimics this aspect of the request and then what happens as the result comes back? case "If-Modified-Since": request.IfModifiedSince = DateTime.Parse(listenerContext.Request.Headers[key]); break; I get the issue for example from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Main_Page thanks

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• Intermittent SQL Server ODBC Timeout expired

  - by Wili

  We have a bunch of VB6 applications that access two different database servers (both 32-bit windows 2003, one SQL Server 2000, one SQL Server 2005). About every ten minutes or so, we are getting a few errors: [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]Timeout expired [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][DBNETLIB]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]ConnectionRead() This is happening on more than a dozen different computers at random times. We also have IP phones that all run through the same network and those are not having any problems. We can also VNC into a users computer and reproduce the error they were getting, but VNC still continues to work. Email also works. It just seems to be an ODBC connection to SQL Server that causes the issue. The errors happen for both of our SQL Servers. We have scoured google, but haven't been able to come up with a solution. Is there anything we can try to diagnose the problem? Is there any fix out there?

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• Hidden div height

  - by fudgey

  Ok, I was going to answer someone's question here on SO about why their script wasn't working. They loaded content into a hidden div, then got the height so they could animate the wrapping div. But I always try to test the code I provide. So I made this demo to prove it to them. So, umm, have I entered the twilight zone or am I dreaming right now? pinches self OUCH! I tried that demo in Firefox, IE and Chrome and both methods return the same value. Firebug says zero! I rebooted my computer and I even changed the code a bit (removed the height function) and tried it with jQuery 1.3.2 and it still worked! I know hidden elements USED to return a zero value. Even this SO Answer is giving the advice I would have! So I guess my question is... did I miss something or are we giving bad advice?

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• Unable to change URL for .NET reference to dynamic web service

  - by Malvineous

  Hi all, I have a web reference added to a C# .NET project. The URL for the web reference needs to change depending on whether I'm building for a development, staging or production environment. I've set the web service to be dynamic, which supposedly means it takes the URL from my app.config file. When I perform a build it overwrites the app.config with the required file which contains the correct URL (different file for each of dev/staging/production.) I then go into the solution properties and make sure the Settings.settings file is updated with the app.config changes. However when I view the properties for the web service, it is still showing the old URL, despite it being dynamic, and supposed to be reading from my settings file (even after closing and reopening the project/solution.) The app.config and the settings file all have the new URL, but the web reference doesn't notice it has changed. If I do a build it ignores the URL in the settings file and tries to connect to the last URL manually typed into the web reference's properties. Typing a URL into these properties correctly updates the app.config and .settings files, so the link is definitely there. I'm a bit new to .NET but it seems to me the purpose of setting the service to be dynamic is so that you can change the URL elsewhere, but when I do this it just gets ignored! Am I doing something wrong?

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