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• Website. VoteUp or VoteDown Videos. How to restrict users voting multiple times?

  - by DJDonaL3000

  Im working on a website (html,css,javascript, ajax, php,mysql), and I want to restrict the number of times a particular user votes for a particular video. Its similar to the YouTube system where you can voteUp or voteDown a particular video. Each vote involves adding a row to the video.votes table, which logs the time, vote direction(up or down), the client IPaddress( using PHP: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; ), and of course the ID of the video in question. Adding votes is as simple as; (pseudocode): Javascript:onClick( vote( a,b,c,d ) ), which passes variables to PHP insertion script via ajax, and finally we replace the voteing buttons with a "Thank You For Voting" message. THE PROBLEM: If you reload/refresh the page after voting, you can vote again, and again, and again, you get the point. MY QUESTION: How do you limit the amount of times a particular user votes for a particular video?? MY THOUGHTS: Do you use cookies, and add a new cookie with the id of the video. And check for a cookie before you insert a new vote.? OR Before you insert the vote, do you use the IPaddress and the videoID to see if this same user(IP) has voted for this same video(vidID) in the past 24hrs(mktime), and either allow or dissallow the voteInsertion based on this query? OR Do you just not care? Take the assumption that most users are sane, and have better things to do than refresh pages and vote repeatedly.?? Any suggestions or ideas welcome.

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• PHP output results on to one page

  - by linda

  i have a system where a user searches for a film and reviews appear on a page with a button next to each review. The button can be selected to look at the individual review but i basically want a button that when selected it will look at all reviews on one page, the code i am using for the individual review is this <?php ini_set ('display_errors', 1); error_reporting (E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE); $searchfilm=$_POST['searchfilm']; //Connect to database //Filter search $searchfilm = strtoupper($searchfilm); $searchfilm = strip_tags($searchfilm); $searchfilm = trim ($searchfilm); $query = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query("SELECT filmreview FROM review WHERE id = '$id'")); $data = mysql_query("SELECT film.filmname, review.filmreview, review.reviewtitle, review.id FROM film, review WHERE film.filmid = review.filmid AND filmname = '$searchfilm'"); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($data)) { // echo $row['filmname']; // echo "<b>Film Name:</b> " .$searchfilm; echo "<table border=\"2\" align=\"left\">"; echo "<tr><td>"; echo "<b>Review Title:</b> " .$row['reviewtitle']; echo "<tr><td>"; echo $row['filmreview']; echo "<p>"; echo "<form method='post' action='analyse1.php'>"; echo "<input type='hidden' name='reviewid' value='".$row['id']."'>"; echo "<input type='submit' name='submit' value='Analyse'>"; echo "</form>"; echo "</table>"; } ?>

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• How would you organize this in asp.net mvc?

  - by chobo

  I have an asp.net mvc 2.0 application that contains Areas/Modules like calendar, admin, etc... There may be cases where more than one area needs to access the same Repo, so I am not sure where to put the Data Access Layers and Repositories. First Option: Should I create Data Access Layer files (Linq to SQL in my case) with their accompanying Repositories for each area, so each area only contains the Tables, and Repositories needed by those areas. The benefit is that everything needed to run that module is one place, so it is more encapsulated (in my mind anyway). The downside is that I may have duplicate queries, because other modules may use the same query. Second Option Or, would it be better to place the DAL and Repositories outside the Area's and treat them as Global? The advantage is I won't have any duplicate queries, but I may be loading a lot of unnecessary queries and DAL tables up for certain modules. It is also more work to reuse or modify these modules for future projects (though the chance of reusing them is slim to none :)) Which option makes more sense? If someone has a better way I'd love to hear it. Thanks!

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• Are ternary operators not valid for linq-to-sql queries?

  - by KallDrexx

  I am trying to display a nullable date time in my JSON response. In my MVC Controller I am running the following query: var requests = (from r in _context.TestRequests where r.scheduled_time == null && r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0 select new { id = r.id, name = r.name, start = DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue ? DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value) : string.Empty }); When I run requests.ToArray() I get the following exception: Could not translate expression ' Table(TestRequest) .Where(r => ((r.scheduled_time == null) AndAlso (r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0))) .Select(r => new <>f__AnonymousType18`4(id = r.id, name = r.name, start = value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = IIF(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue, value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value), Invoke(value(System.Func`1[System.String])))))' into SQL and could not treat it as a local expression. If I comment out the end = line, everything seems to run correctly, so it doesn't seem to be the use of my local DateAndTimeDisplayString method, so the only thing I can think of is Linq to Sql doesn't like Ternary operators? I think I've used ternary operators before, but I can't remember if I did it in this code base or another code base (that uses EF4 instead of L2S). Is this true, or am I missing some other issue?

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• GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

  - by David Veeneman

  This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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• Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

  - by geekzlla

  I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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• Is encrypting session id (or other authenticate value) in cookie useful at all?

  - by Ji

  In web development, when session state is enabled, a session id is stored in cookie(in cookieless mode, query string will be used instead). In asp.net, the session id is encrypted automatically. There are plenty of topics on the internet regarding how you should encrypt your cookie, including session id. I can understand why you want to encrypt private info such as DOB, but any private info should not be stored in cookie at first place. So for other cookie values such as session id, what is the purpose encryption? Does it add security at all? no matter how you secure it, it will be sent back to server for decryption. Be be more specific, For authentication purpose, turn off session, i don't want to deal with session time out any more store some sort of id value in the cookie, on the server side, check if the id value exists and matches, if it is, authenticate user. let the cookie value expire when browser session is ended, this way. vs Asp.net form authentication mechanism (it relies on session or session id, i think) does latter one offer better security?

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• Scalable Full Text Search With Per User Result Ordering

  - by jeremy

  What options exist for creating a scalable, full text search with results that need to be sorted on a per user basis? This is for PHP/MySQL (Symfony/Doctrine as well, if relevant). In our case, we have a database of workouts that have been performed by users. The workouts that the user has done before should appear at the top of the results. The more frequently they've done the workout, the higher it should appear in search matches. If it helps, you can assume we know the number of times a user has done a workout in advance. Possible Solutions Sphinx - Use Sphinx to implement full text search, do all the querying and sorting in MySQL. This seems promising (and there's a Symfony Plugin!) but I don't know much about it. Lucene - Use Lucene to perform full text search and put the users' completions into the query. As is suggested in this Stack Overflow thread. Alternatively, use Lucene to retrieve the results, then reorder them in PHP. However, both solutions seem clunky and potentially unscalable as a user may have completed hundreds of workouts. Mysql - No native full text support (InnoDB), so we'd have use LIKE or REGEX, which isn't scalable.

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• Reporting Services 2005 - Parameter reliant on cascading parameters

  - by sHr0oMaN

  Good day I have the following: In a SSRS 2005 report I have three report parameters: FinancialPeriodType ("Month" or "Week" in a DropDownList), FinancialPeriod (cascading DropDownList populated depending on first selection) and another parameter, OpeningBalance, of type float. The first two parameters are cascading i.e. the first parameter is used by the query populating the second's available values. This works fine. What I'm attemping to do is default the value of OpeningBalance to a value from a dataset populated by a stored procedure which takes in the first two parameters. However as soon as I select a value for the first parameter, I get the following error: An error occurred during report processing. The value for the report parameter 'OpeningBalance' is not valid for its type.' I've tried setting the default of the second parameter to be a meaningful default (something like 200901) as well as defaulting the second parameter in the SQL store procedure with no affect. Using SQL Profiler I've noticed that selecting a value for the first parameter doesn't even execute the SQL used to obtain available values for the second parameter.

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• How to duplicate all data in a table except for a single column that should be changed.

  - by twiga

  I have a question regarding a unified insert query against tables with different data structures (Oracle). Let me elaborate with an example: tb_customers ( id NUMBER(3), name VARCHAR2(40), archive_id NUMBER(3) ) tb_suppliers ( id NUMBER(3), name VARCHAR2(40), contact VARCHAR2(40), xxx, xxx, archive_id NUMBER(3) ) The only column that is present in all tables is [archive_id]. The plan is to create a new archive of the dataset by copying (duplicating) all records to a different database partition and incrementing the archive_id for those records accordingly. [archive_id] is always part of the primary key. My problem is with select statements to do the actual duplication of the data. Because the columns are variable, I am struggling to come up with a unified select statement that will copy the data and update the archive_id. One solution (that works), is to iterate over all the tables in a stored procedure and do a: CREATE TABLE temp as (SELECT * from ORIGINAL_TABLE); UPDATE temp SET archive_id=something; INSERT INTO temp (select * from temp); DROP TABLE temp; I do not like this solution very much as the DDL commands muck up all restore points. Does anyone else have any solution?

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• How can I make hundreds of simultaneously running processes communicate with a database through one

  - by Olfan

  Long speech short: How can I make hundreds of simultaneously running processes communicate with a database through one or few permanent sessions? The whole story: I once built a number crunching engine that handles vast amounts of large data files by forking off one child after another giving each a small number of files to work on. File locking, progress monitoring and result propagation happen in an Oracle database which all (sub-)processes access at various times using an application-specific module which encapsulates DBI. This worked well at first, but now with higher volumes of input data, the number of database sessions (one per child, and they can be very short-lived) constantly being opened and closed is becoming an issue. I now want to centralise database access so that there are only one or few fixed database sessions which handle all database access for all the (sub-)processes. The presence of the database abstraction module should make the changes easy because the function calls in the worker instances can stay the same. My problem is that I cannot think of a suitable way to enhance said module in order to establish communication between all the processes and the database connector(s). I thought of message queueing, but couldn't come up with a way of connecting a large herd of requestors with one or few database connectors in a way so that bidirectional communication is possible (for collecting the query result). An asynchronous approach could help here in that all requests are written to the same queue and the database connector servicing the request will "call back" to submit the result. But my mind fails me in generating an image clear enough so that I can paint into code. Threading instead of forking might have given me an easier start, but this would now require massive changes to the code base that I'm not prepared to do to a live system. The more I think of it, the more the base idea looks like a pre-forked web server to me only that it doesn't serve web pages but database queries. Any ideas on what to dig into, and where? Sample (pseudo) code to inspire me, links to possibly related articles, ready solutions on CPAN maybe?

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• XPath: limit scope of result set

  - by Laramie

  Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

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• logic before dispatcher + controller?

  - by Spoonface

  I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

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• Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

  - by chrisj

  Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

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• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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• Hosting an Access DB

  - by Mitciv

  Hey, So I'm inexperienced in hosting DB's and I've always had the luxury of someone else getting the db setup. I was going to help a friend out with getting a webpage setup, I've got experience in Asp.Net MVC so I'm going with that. They want to setup a search page to query a db and display the results. My question I have is in getting the DB setup and hosted. They currently just have the Access DB on a local computer. There is basically only one table that would need to be queried for the search. What is the best approach to getting this table/db accessible? They would like to keep the main copy of the db on the local machine, so copying the entire db over to the hosted site would be time consuming, could the lone table needed be solely copied to the host? Should I try to convince them to make changes on the hosted db and just make copies of that for their local machines? Any suggestions are welcome, Again I'm a total noob when it comes to hosting databases. Thanks

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• Php JSON Response Array

  - by Nick Kl

  I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

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• Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

  - by Jim Geurts

  I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

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• Why does the WCF 3.5 REST Starter Kit do this?

  - by Brandon

  I am setting up a REST endpoint that looks like the following: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "?format=json", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] and [WebInvoke(Method = "DELETE", UriTemplate = "?token={token}&format=json", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] The above throws the following error: UriTemplateTable does not support '?format=json' and '?token={token}&format=json' since they are not equivalent, but cannot be disambiguated because they have equivalent paths and the same common literal values for the query string. See the documentation for UriTemplateTable for more detail. I am not an expert at WCF, but I would imagine that it should map first by the HTTP Method and then by the URI Template. It appears to be backwards. If both of my URI templates are: ?token={token}&format=json This works because they are equivalent and it then appears to look at the HTTP Method where one is POST and the other is DELETE. Is REST supposed to work this way? Why are the URI Template Tables not being sorted first by HTTP Method and then by URI Template? This can cause some serious frustrations when 1 HTTP Method requires a parameter and another does not, or if I want to do optional parameters (e.g. if the 'format' parameter is not passed, default to XML).

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• Approach for caching data from data logger

  - by filip-fku

  Greetings, I've been working on a C#.NET app that interacts with a data logger. The user can query and obtain logs for a specified time period, and view plots of the data. Typically a new data log is created every minute and stores a measurement for a few parameters. To get meaningful information out of the logger, a reasonable number of logs need to be acquired - data for at least a few days. The hardware interface is a UART to USB module on the device, which restricts transfers to a maximum of about 30 logs/second. This becomes quite slow when reading in the data acquired over a number of days/weeks. What I would like to do is improve the perceived performance for the user. I realize that with the hardware speed limitation the user will have to wait for the full download cycle at least the first time they acquire a larger set of data. My goal is to cache all data seen by the app, so that it can be obtained faster if ever requested again. The approach I have been considering is to use a light database, like SqlServerCe, that can store the data logs as they are received. I am then hoping to first search the cache prior to querying a device for logs. The cache would be updated with any logs obtained by the request that were not already cached. Finally my question - would you consider this to be a good approach? Are there any better alternatives you can think of? I've tried to search SO and Google for reinforcement of the idea, but I mostly run into discussions of web request/content caching. Thanks for any feedback!

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• unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

  - by draconis

  Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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• How do I implement Hibernate Pagination using a cursor (so the results stay consistent, despite new

  - by hunterae

  Hey all, Is there any way to maintain a database cursor using Hibernate between web requests? Basically, I'm trying to implement pagination, but the data that is being paged is consistently changing (i.e. new records are added into the database). We are trying to set it up such that when you do your initial search (returning a maximum of 5000 results), and you page through the results, those same records always appear on the same page (i.e. we're not continuously running the query each time next and previous page buttons are clicked). The way we're currently implementing this is by merely selecting 5000 (at most) primary keys from the table we're paging, storing those keys in memory, and then just using 20 primary keys at a time to fetch their details from the database. However, we want to get away from having to store these keys in memory and would much prefer a database cursor that we just keep going back to and moving backwards and forwards over the cursor to generate pages. I tried doing this with Hibernate's ScrollableResults but found that I could not call methods like next() and previous() would cause an exception if you within a different web request / Hibernate session (no surprise there). Is there any way to reattach a ScrollableResults object to a Session, much the same way you would reattach a detached database object to make it persistent? Are there any other approaches to implement this data paging with consistent paging results without caching the primary keys?

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• How to work with CTE. There is some error related to anchor.

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I am creating a hierarchy representaion of a column. But an error occurs Details are Msg 240, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Types don't match between the anchor and the recursive part in column "DISPLAY" of recursive query "CTE". I know there is some typecasting error. But I dont know how to remove error. Please just dont only sort out my error. I need explanation why this error is coming. When this error occurs. I am trying to sort table on the basis of sort col that i m introducing. I want to add '-' at every level and want to sort accordingly. Please help WITH CTE (PK_CATEGORY_ID, [DESCRIPTION], FK_CATEGORY_ID, DISPLAY, SORT, DEPTH) AS ( SELECT PK_CATEGORY_ID, [DESCRIPTION], FK_CATEGORY_ID, '-' AS DISPLAY, '--' AS SORT, 0 AS DEPTH FROM dbo.L_CATEGORY_TYPE WHERE FK_CATEGORY_ID IS NULL UNION ALL SELECT T.PK_CATEGORY_ID, T.[DESCRIPTION], T.FK_CATEGORY_ID, CAST(DISPLAY+T.[DESCRIPTION] AS VARCHAR(1000)), '--' AS SORT, C.DEPTH +1 FROM dbo.L_CATEGORY_TYPE T JOIN CTE C ON C.PK_CATEGORY_ID = T.FK_CATEGORY_ID --SELECT T.PK_CATEGORY_ID, C.SORT+T.[DESCRIPTION], T.FK_CATEGORY_ID --, CAST('--' + C.SORT AS VARCHAR(1000)) AS SORT, CAST(DEPTH +1 AS INT) AS DEPTH --FROM dbo.L_CATEGORY_TYPE T JOIN CTE C ON C.FK_CATEGORY_ID = T.PK_CATEGORY_ID ) SELECT PK_CATEGORY_ID, [DESCRIPTION], FK_CATEGORY_ID, DISPLAY, SORT, DEPTH FROM CTE ORDER BY SORT

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• can I add properties to a typo3 extbase domain model object?

  - by The Newbie Qs

  I want to store a username in a coupon object, each coupon object already has the uid of the user who created it. I can loop over the coupon objects and read the associated usernames from fe_users but how then will I save those usernames into the coupons so when they are passed to the template the usernames can be read like so coupon.username, or in some other easy way so each username will appear on the page with the right coupon as they are all printed out in a table? If I was doing basic php instead of typo3 i would just define a query but what is the typo3 v4.5 way? My code so far - which dies on the line where I try to assign the new property --creatorname -- to the $coup object. public function listAction() { $coupons = $this->couponRepository->findAll(); // @var Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository $userRepository */ $userRepository = $this->objectManager->get("Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository"); foreach ($coupons as $coup) { echo '<br />test '.$coup->getCreator(); echo '<br />count = '.$userRepository->countAll().'<br />'; $newObject = $userRepository->findByUid( intval($coup->getCreator())); //var_dump($newObject); var_dump($coup); echo '<br />getUsername '.$newObject->getUsername() ; $coup['creatorname'] = $newObject->getUsername(); echo '<br />creatorname '.$coup['creatorname'] ; } $this->view->assign('coupons', $coupons); }

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• How can I make Access think there is a primary key

  - by user3692757

  I have a table and I'm trying to join it with another table, but it doesn't have a distinctive primary key. The two tables do share similarities, “Acct” and “Location”. If I could concatenate “Acct&Location” it would become a primary key, but Access won’t let me make a primary key from a calculation. I provided a small sample below. Each hospital has an “Acct”, but the “Acct” will show up once for each “Location”. How can I make join these in a relationship? I connected the two in a relationships and tried to “Enforce Referential Integrity”, but it indicated “No unique index found for the referenced field of the primary key”. Also, if I run a “Find UnMatched Query” it doesn’t find anything. I think its because I can’t make it realize that in combination “Acct” and “Location” can be perceived as primary keys when used in conjunction of each other. Acct 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3| Location ABI ABI ABI NHO NHO NHO NTX NTX NTX I tried to load an image to illustrate it better, but I haven't made enough post.

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