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Use of SAX parser in Android - OutOfMemory Issue

- by Sephy

Hi everybody, I have been using a SAX parser for a while now to get data from various XML, but today i'm banging my head on a new problem with a hudge XML (compared to the previous ones . here around 12k lines) with a lot of repetitive items in it. Most of the time, the items are part of a block : <content> <item lbl="blabla"> <item lbl="blabla"/> <item lbl="blabla"/> </item> <item lbl="blabla"> <item lbl="blabla"/> <item lbl="blabla"/> <item lbl="blabla"/> <item lbl="blabla"/> <item lbl="blabla"/> <item lbl="blabla"/> </item> </content> The blabla part is of course changing...But, I would like to keep the structure of items (they are titles and subtitles). And for that, I append each blabla with a starting and ending tag blabla, where x is the position in the tree of items (1, 2, 3 or 4). The slightly problematic part is that with that, I'm creating thousands of useless objects and the garbage collector doesn't have time to clean after the parser, and the inevitable OutOfMemory comes in my face... I have no idea of how to deal with it; The best technique would be if I could take the whole content of , but i'm not sure that this is possible with a SAX parser. Any help is welcome and any solution deeply thanked...

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Render User Controls and call their Page_Load

- by David Murdoch

The following code will not work because the controls (page1, page2, page3) require that their "Page_Load" event gets called. using System; using System.IO; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using iTextSharp.text; using iTextSharp.text.html.simpleparser; using iTextSharp.text.pdf; public partial class utilities_getPDF : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // add user controls to the page AddContentControl("controls/page1"); AddContentControl("controls/page2"); AddContentControl("controls/page3"); // set up the response to download the rendered PDF... Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.ContentEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=FileName.pdf"); Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); // get the rendered HTML of the page System.IO.StringWriter stringWrite = new StringWriter(); System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter htmlWrite = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWrite); this.Render(htmlWrite); StringReader reader = new StringReader(stringWrite.ToString()); // write the PDF to the OutputStream... Document doc = new Document(PageSize.A4); HTMLWorker parser = new HTMLWorker(doc); PdfWriter.GetInstance(doc, Response.OutputStream); doc.Open(); parser.Parse(reader); doc.Close(); } // the parts are probably irrelevant to the question... private const string contentPage = "~/includes/{0}.ascx"; private void AddContentControl(string page) { content.Controls.Add(myLoadControl(page)); } private Control myLoadControl(string page) { return TemplateControl.LoadControl(string.Format(contentPage, page)); } } So my question is: How can I get the controls HTML?

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jQuery Validation Plugin: Invoke errorPlacement function when onfocusout, keyup and click

- by th3hamburgler

Hi, I am using the jquery validation plugin and want to use the errorPlacement function to add error messages to the fields title attribute and display just a ? next to the field. This works great when the form is submitted with the submit button but when any of the following events are triggered: - onfocusout - click - onkeyup The validation checks are run but it skips the errorPlacement function and adds the full error message after the field, like the default behaviour. I am using the following code: $("#send-mail").validate({ debug: true, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set text as tick label.html("✔").addClass("valid"); }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { console.log("errorPlacement called for "+element.attr("name")+" field"); // check for blank/success error if(error.text() == "") { // remove field title/error message from element element.attr("title", ""); console.log("error check passed"); } else { // get error message var message = error.text(); // set as element title element.attr("title", message); // clear error html and add cross glyph error.html("✘"); console.log("error check failed: "+message); } // add error label after form element error.insertAfter(element); }, ignoreTitle: true, errorClass: "invalid" });

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How to add an image when generating a pdf-file with javascript. When adding the imageLoadFromURL no pdf is generated

- by Angu Handschuh

I've got a problem with adding an image when generating a pdf-file with javascript. Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="base64.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="sprintf.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jspdf.js"></script> <script> function demo1() { var name = prompt('Name: '); var nachname=prompt('Nachname: '); var doc = new jsPDF(); doc.setFontSize(22); doc.text(20, 20, 'Der eingegebene Text'); doc.setFontSize(16); doc.imageLoadFromUrl('image.jpg'); doc.imagePlace(20, 40); doc.text(20, 30, 'Name: ' + name); doc.text(20,40,'Nachname:'+nachname); // Output as Data URI doc.output('datauri'); } </script> </head> <body> <h2> Ein Document </h2> <a href="javascript:demo1()"> PDF erstellen </a> </body> </html> Before adding doc.imageLoadFromUrl('image.jpg'); doc.imagePlace(20, 40); the code runs without picture. It starts with a demand note for the name and the second name, after this it generates a pdf-file. But when adding the imageLoad-Method there is no pdf-file generated. Does anyone konws how to solve this problem?

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Overlay just a part of an external page with jquery

- by rolando

Hi, How can i load a part of an external page with jquery overlay? I have an aspx call TipoFactor.aspx wich has a div inside a contentplaceholder like this: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="Server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <div id="DivGeneral" runat="server" class="tablaPaddingFiveCeleste"> as you can see the "DivGeneral" is the one i want to load into the overlay, wich is defined like this: <a href="TipoFactorSeleccion.aspx" rel="#overlay"> <button type="button"> Pagina Externa</button> </a>  <div class="apple_overlay" id="overlay">  <div class="contentWrap"> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // if the function argument is given to overlay, // it is assumed to be the onBeforeLoad event listener $("a[rel]").overlay({ expose: 'darkred', effect: 'apple', onBeforeLoad: function() { // grab wrapper element inside content var wrap = this.getContent().find(".contentWrap"); // load the page specified in the trigger wrap.load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")); } }); }); </script> As it is now its loading the entire page into the overlay and that's not good for me cause it inherites from the same masterpage as the other. I need to keep that masterpage because it has some important aplication functionality. What can I do ? Thank you very much.

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jQuery's getScript and the local file system-- limitations/alternatives?

- by user210099

Right now I'm working on a help-system which is based on a local file system. It is intended to be shipped with a product which is not used on internet-enabled machines, so it must be a stand alone webpage, without any dependencies on a web server. This introduces a few challenges. Namely, the directory structure that the files exist in require navigating "up and over" to access some .js files which are required to display the help system. This use to be implemented using the jQuery getScript function, but I have ran into some problems using this on the local file system. At first glance, it seemed that if my webpage was being served out of the C:/dev/webpage/html/ directory, and the files I needed were in C:/dev/webpage/js/(topic)/file.js, I could just build an absolute path (file:///...) and pass that into the getScript function. However, after testing this, it does not seem that the getScript function will let me go up a level from the html directory (where the html file is located which has the main code for the webpage). Unfortunately, I can not change the directory structure, nor can I change the .js file structure/format. Is there an alternative for loading/executing javascript files that are in a file structure where I need to go "up and over"? Thanks,

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Setting up a "cookieless domain" to improve site performance

- by Django Reinhardt

I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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Explicit script end tag always converted to self-closing

- by Jonas

I'm using xslt to transform xml to an aspx file. In the xslt, I have a script tag to include a jquery.js file. To get it to work with IE, the script tag must have an explicit closing tag. For some reason, this doesn't work with xslt below. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:asp="remove"> <xsl:output method="html"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>TEST</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.js"></script> But if I change the script tag as shown below, it works. <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.js"> // <![CDATA[ // ]]> </script> I thought that the <xsl:output method="html" /> would do the trick, but it doesn't seem to work? /Jonas

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Is the load order for external javascript files different in IE8 compared to IE7?

- by Benny

Hello, I ask because I'm running an application in which I load an external script file in the HEAD section of the page, and then attempt to call a function from it in the onLoad section of the BODY tag. external.js function someFunction() { alert("Some message"); } myPage.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="external.js"></script> </head> <body onLoad="someFunction();"> </body> </html> Using the developer tools in IE8, I get an exception thrown at the onLoad statement because, apparently, the external javascript file hasn't been loaded yet. I haven't had this problem come up in IE7 before, thus my question. Did they change the load order between IE7 and IE8? If so, is there a better way to do this? (the real function references many other functions and constants, which look much better in an external file) Thanks, B.J.

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How can I make an AJAX link work once it is moved out of the iFrame?

- by KcYxA

Hi, I am using an iFrame with a form that return some content with an AJAX link. I am then moving the returned content out of the iFrame into the main page. However, then the ajax link does not work and the error "Element is null" is created once the link is clicked. How can I move content from the iFrame and still have the AJAX link working? Here's the code returned by the iFrame: <span id="top"> <a id="link8" onclick=" event.returnValue = false; return false;" href="/item_pictures/delete/7"> <img src="/img/delete.bmp"/> </a> <script type="text/javascript"> parent.Event.observe('link8', 'click', function(event) { new Ajax.Updater('top','/item_pictures/delete/3', { asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onCreate:function(request, xhr) { document.getElementById("top").innerHTML = "<img src=\"/img/spinner_small.gif\">"; }, requestHeaders:['X-Update', 'top'] }) }, false); </script> </span>

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jQuery validator not working in unit testing

- by Dbugger

I have this small HTML file: <html> <head></head> <body> <form id='MyForm'> <input type='text' required /> <input type='submit' /> </form> <script src="/js/jquery-1.9.0.js"></script> <script src="/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script> var validator = $("#MyForm").validate(); alert(validator.form()); </script> </body> </html> This alerts me with "false", which is the expected behaviour. The problem comes when I go to unit testing, with js-test-driver: TestCase("MyTests", { setUp: function() { this.myform = "<form id='MyForm'><input type='text' required /><input type='submit' /></form>"; this.validator = $(this.myform).validate(); jstestdriver.console.log("Does the form validate? " + this.validator.form()); }, test_empty: function() { }, }); This code returns me the string Does the form validate? true This is a simplified version of my project of course, but the point is that I dont seem to be able to unit test the validation module im developing, since the jQuery validate plugin doesnt seem to work. What am I missing?

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jQuery AJAX call not working in Webkit

- by Brian

I've run into a strange issue with Webkit based browsers (both Safari and Chrome - I'm testing on a Mac) and I am not sure what is causing it. Here's a small script I've created that replicates the issue: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function doRequest() { document.test.submit(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", cache: false, url: 'ajax.php?tmp=1', success: doSuccess }); } function doSuccess(t_data,t_status,req) { alert('Data is: '+ t_data +', XMLHTTPRequest status is: '+ req.status); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="test" method="post" action="ajax.html" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="file" name="file_1"> <br><input type="button" value="upload" onclick="doRequest();"> </form> </body> </html> ajax.php is: <?php echo $_REQUEST['tmp']; ?> This works as is on Firefox, but the XMLHTTPRequest status is always "0" on both Safari and Chrome. If I remove this line: document.test.submit(); then it works, but of course the form is not submitted. I've tried changing the form submit button from "button" to "submit", but that also prevents it from working on Safari or Chrome. What I am trying to accomplish is: submit the form call another script to get status on the file being uploaded via the form (it's for a small upload progress meter). Any help is really appreciated - I'm hopeful it is just a quirk I'm not familiar with. Thanks! Brian

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Jasper report exports empty data in PDF format when there is more data

- by stanley

I have a report to be exported in excel, pdf and word using jasper reports. I use xml file as the DataSource for the report, but when the data increases jasper report exports empty file in only for PDF format, when i reduce the data content it export the data available correctly. is there any limitation to pdf size? , how can we manage the size in jasper reports from java? My jrxml is really big, so i cannot add it here, i have added my java code which i use to export the content:- JRAbstractExporter exporter = null; if (format.equals("pdf")) { exporter = new JRPdfExporter(); jasperPrint.setPageWidth(Integer.parseInt( pWidth )); } else if (format.equals("xls")) { exporter = new JRXlsExporter(); } else if (format.equals("doc")) { jasperPrint.setPageWidth(Integer.parseInt( pWidth )); } exporter.setParameter(JRExporterParameter.JASPER_PRINT, jasperPrint); exporter.setParameter(JRExporterParameter.OUTPUT_STREAM, outputStream_); exporter.exportReport(); contents = outputStream_.toByteArray(); response.setContentType("application/"+format); response.addHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment;filename=" + name.toString() + "."+format);

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Is there a more useful explanation for UITableViewStylePlain?

- by mystify

From the docs: In the plain style, section headers and footers float above the content if the part of a complete section is visible. A table view can have an index that appears as a bar on the right hand side of the table (for example, "a" through "z"). You can touch a particular label to jump to the target section. I find that very hard to grasp. First, this one: if the part of a complete section is visible What do they mean by this? This is paradox. Which one is it? A) Table must be exactly the height of that section. If I have 5 Rows, and each row is 50px high, I must make it 5*50 high. The full section must be visible on the screen. Otherwise, if I have 100 rows but my table view is only 400 high, this will not apply. Nothing will float above my content. Sounds wrong. B) It doesn't matter how high my table view actually is. Header and Footer is floating above the content and I can scroll the section. Makes more sense. But is completely against this nonsense making sentence: 'if the part of a complete section is visible' Can anyone explain it better than they did?

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convert VB code to C# help please??

- by ilkdrl

var aktif=0, gosterim_adeti=5; var dizi = new Array(); $(document).ready(function(){ var boyut = $("#alan p").length; for(var i=0; i<boyut; i++) { dizi[i] = $("#alan p:eq("+i+")").html(); } $("#alan").html(""); for(var i=0; i<gosterim_adeti; i++) { $("#alan").append("<p>"+dizi[i]+"</p>"); } setInterval(degistir, 2000); function degistir() { aktif = (aktif + 1)%boyut; $("#alan").html(""); var ilk = aktif-1; if(ilk<0)ilk = ilk+boyut; $("#alan").append("<p>"+dizi[ilk]+"</p>"); for(var i=aktif; i<aktif + gosterim_adeti;i++) { $("#alan").append("<p>"+dizi[(i%boyut)]+"</p>"); } $("#alan p:first").slideUp(500); $("#alan p:last").css("height","0px").animate({height:"40px"},600);

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how to handle base tag target attribute in iphone uiwebview to open new window

- by user217428

When the links are supposed to open a new window, iphone uiwebview won't trigger an event when user click these links. We had to use javascript to do some trick to the target attribute of the links. I can handle 'a' tag to open in the '_self' window with the trick without problem. But when I do it the same way with the 'base' tag. it doesn't work. I believe the base target is set by the javascript. But the base tag is in the head, which may be handled by the uiwebview before my javascript executed, so the target change may not reflected in the webkit engine. Could someone please give some suggestion, so I can open the link in the same uiwebview? The following is the sample HTML opened in the uiwebview <html> <head> <base target='_blank'> </head> <body> <a href='http://google.ca'>google</a> </body> </html> The following is the code to be executed in the (void) webViewDidFinishLoad: (UIWebView*)webView static NSString* js = @"" "function bkModifyBaseTargets()" "{" "var allBases = window.document.getElementsByTagName('base');" "if (allBases)" "{" "for (var i = 0; i < allBases.length; i++)" "{" "base = allBases[i];" "target = base.getAttribute('target');" "if (target)" "{" "base.setAttribute('target', '_self');" "}" "}" "}" "}"; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: js]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: @"bkModifyBaseTargets()"];

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Django: Odd mark_safe behaviour?

- by Mark

I wrote this little function for writing out HTML tags: def html_tag(tag, content=None, close=True, attrs={}): lst = ['<',tag] for key, val in attrs.iteritems(): lst.append(' %s="%s"' % (key, escape_html(val))) if close: if content is None: lst.append(' />') else: lst.extend(['>', content, '</', tag, '>']) else: lst.append('>') return mark_safe(''.join(lst)) Which worked great, but then I read this article on efficient string concatenation (I know it doesn't really matter for this, but I wanted consistency) and decided to update my script: def html_tag(tag, body=None, close=True, attrs={}): s = StringIO() s.write('<%s'%tag) for key, val in attrs.iteritems(): s.write(' %s="%s"' % (key, escape_html(val))) if close: if body is None: s.write(' />') else: s.write('>%s</%s>' % (body, tag)) else: s.write('>') return mark_safe(s.getvalue()) But now my HTML get escaped when I try to render it from my template. Everything else is exactly the same. It works properly if I replace the last line with return mark_safe(unicode(s.getvalue())). I checked the return type of s.getvalue(). It should be a str, just like the first function, so why is this failing?? Also fails with SafeString(s.getvalue()) but succeeds with SafeUnicode(s.getvalue()). I'd also like to point out that I used return mark_safe(s.getvalue()) in a different function with no odd behavior. The "call stack" looks like this: class Input(Widget): def render(self): return html_tag('input', attrs={'type':self.itype, 'id':self.id, 'name':self.name, 'value':self.value, 'class':self.itype}) class Field: def __unicode__(self): return mark_safe(self.widget.render()) And then {{myfield}} is in the template. So it does get mark_safed'd twice, which I thought might have been the problem, but I tried removing that too..... I really have no idea what's causing this, but it's not too hard to work around, so I guess I won't fret about it.

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Silverlight 3 - HeaderedItemsControl ControlTemplate

- by user208662

Hello, I am trying to create a HeaderedItemsControl where the headers are frozen. In an attempt to accomplish this, I have been trying to build on the default control template generated by Blend. I am using this default template in the following manner: <controls:HeaderedItemsControl x:Name="informationItemsControl"> <controls:HeaderedItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate> <Grid x:Name="Root"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="*"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <ContentControl x:Name="HeaderContent" Content="{TemplateBinding Header}" ContentTemplate="{TemplateBinding HeaderTemplate}"/> <ItemsPresenter x:Name="Items" Grid.Row="1"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </controls:HeaderedItemsControl.Template> ... </controls:HeaderedItemsControl> Oddly, when I use the default template, a blank screen appears in my application. A JavaScript error bubbles up that says: Error: Unhandled Error in Silverlight Application Code: 2012 Category: ParserError Message: Unknown attribute Content on element ContentControl. File: Line: 6 Position: 107 Source File: http://localhost:2995/ Line: 60 I noticed that this error appears as long as either Content="{TemplateBinding Header}" or ContentTemplate="{TemplateBinding HeaderTemplate}" exist in the ControlTemplate. If I remove both of those, the items appear just fine (but no header). I tried with a simple header that was just a TextBlock and I still received the error. What am I doing wrong? How do I get the Header to display within the ControlTemplate?

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What is the correct way to pass an object to WebApi RC controller

- by Diver Dan

I have a webapi project running rc I have a very basic controlller like [System.Web.Http.HttpPost] public void Update(Business business) { //if (business.Id == Guid.Empty) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business ID not provided", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest); //} _repository.Update(business); //if (!isUpdated) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business not found", HttpStatusCode.NotFound); //} } I found an example using HttpClient however it doesnt work with rc using (var client = new HttpClient()) { try { string url = string.Format("{0}{1}", ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiBaseUrl"].ToString(),apiMethod); HttpRequestMessage request = new HttpRequestMessage(); MediaTypeFormatter[] formatter = new MediaTypeFormatter[] { new JsonMediaTypeFormatter() }; var content = request.CreateContent<Business>( business, MediaTypeHeaderValue.Parse("application/json"), formatter, new FormatterSelector()); HttpResponseMessage response = client.PostAsync(url, content).Result; return response.Content.ToString(); } catch (Exception ex) { return null; } } I get an error Method not found: 'Void System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpHeaders.AddWithoutValidation(System.String, System.String)'. Passing the data from jquery is a piece of cake however I need call the api from code behind vs client side. Can someone point me in the right direction for calling the webapi? Thank you

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using a PHP print_r array result in javascript/jquery

- by Phil Jackson

Hello all.I have a simple jquery/ajax request to the server which returns the structure and data of an array. I was wondering if there was a quick way in which I can use this array structure and data using jquery; A simple request; var token = $("#token").val(); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: './', data: 'token=' + token + '&re=8', cache: false, timeout: 5000, success: function(html){ // do something here with the html var } }); the result ( actual result from PHP's print_r(); ); Array ( [0] => Array ( [username] => Emmalene [contents] => <ul><li class="name">ACTwebDesigns</li><li class="speech">helllllllo</li></ul> <ul><li class="name">ACTwebDesigns</li><li class="speech">sds</li></ul> <ul><li class="name">ACTwebDesigns</li><li class="speech">Sponge</li><li class="speech">dick</li></ul> <ul><li class="name">ACTwebDesigns</li><li class="speech">arghh</li></ul> ) ) I was thinking along the lines of var demo = Array(html); // and then do something with the demo var Not sure if that would work it just sprang to mind. Any help is much appreciated.

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Django Class Views and Reverse Urls

- by kalhartt

I have a good many class based views that use reverse(name, args) to find urls and pass this to templates. However, the problem is class based views must be instantiated before urlpatterns can be defined. This means the class is instantiated while urlpatterns is empty leading to reverse throwing errors. I've been working around this by passing lambda: reverse(name, args) to my templates but surely there is a better solution. As a simple example the following fails with exception: ImproperlyConfigured at xxxx The included urlconf mysite.urls doesn't have any patterns in it mysite.urls from mysite.views import MyClassView urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^$' MyClassView.as_view(), name='home') ) views.py class MyClassView(View): def get(self, request): home_url = reverse('home') return render_to_response('home.html', {'home_url':home_url}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) home.html <p><a href={{ home_url }}>Home</a></p> I'm currently working around the problem by forcing reverse to run on template rendering by changing views.py to class MyClassView(View): def get(self, request): home_url = lambda: reverse('home') return render_to_response('home.html', {'home_url':home_url}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) and it works, but this is really ugly and surely there is a better way. So is there a way to use reverse in class based views but avoid the cyclic dependency of urlpatterns requiring view requiring reverse requiring urlpatterns...

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Post a form from asp to asp.Net

- by Atomiton

I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

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Tabs in asp.net mvc

- by Xulfee

I have three tabs on page and one user control. I want to RenderPartial on each tab. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#tabs").tabs(); }); </script> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Text 1</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Text 2</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-3">Text 3</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <% Html.RenderPartial("usercontrol", Model); %> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <% Html.RenderPartial("usercontrol", Model); %> </div> <div id="tabs-3"> <% Html.RenderPartial("usercontrol", Model); %> </div> </div> how can i get values from different tabs.

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A problem of trying to implement scrolling inertia with jQuery

- by gargantaun

I'm trying to add some iPhone style scrolling inertia to a web page that will only be viewed on the iPad. I have the scrolling working in one direction (scrollLeft), but it doesn't work in the other direction. It's a pretty simple function function onTouchEnd(event){ event.preventDefault(); inertia = (oldMoveX - touchMoveX); // Inertia Stuff if( Math.abs(inertia) > 10 ){ $("#feedback").html(inertia); $("#container").animate({ 'scrollLeft': $("#container").scrollLeft() + (inertia * 10) }, inertia * 20); }else{ $("#feedback").html("No Inertia"); } } I've bound it to the 'touchend' event on the body. The intertia is the difference betweent he old moveX position and the latest moveX position when a touch ends. I then try to animate the scrollLeft property of a div that contains a bunch of thumbnails. As I've said, this works when scrolling to the left, but not when scrolling to the right. You can view the full source code (all in one page) or test it on your iPhone or iPad (or in the simulator) here http://www.appliedworks.co.uk/files/times/swipegal.html Any ideas?

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How to unencode escaped XML with xQuery

- by mbrevoort

I have a variable in xQuery of type xs:string with the value of an encoded HTML snippet (the content of a twitter tweet). It looks like this: Headlines-Today • AP sources: <b>Obama</b> pick for Justice post withdraws : News - Rest Of World - <a href="http://shar.es/mqMAG">http://shar.es/mqMAG</a> When I try to write this out in an HTML block, I need the string to be unescaped so that the HTML snippet will be interpreted by the browser. Instead the string is getting written out as is and the browser is rendering it as just text (so you see <a href="blah.... ). Here's how I'm writing out this string: {$entry/atom:content/text()} How can I have the escaped characters unencoded so it writes < rather tha < ? I've tried to do a replacelike this but it always replaces the < with < ! fn:replace($s, "<", "<")

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