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• Gridview looses ItemTemplate after columns are removed

  - by Middletone

  I'm trying to bind a datatable to a gridview where I've removed some of the autogenerated columns in the code behind. I've got two template columns and it seems that when I alter the gridview in code behind and remove the non-templated columns that the templates loose the controls that are in them. Using the following as a sample, "Header A" will continue to be visible but "Header B" will dissapear after removing any columsn that are located at index 2 and above. I'm creating columns in my codebehind for the grid as a part of a reporting tool. If I don't remove the columns then there doesn't seem to be an issue. <asp:GridView ID="DataGrid1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowPaging="True" PageSize="10" GridLines="Horizontal"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Header A" > <ItemTemplate > Text A </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> Header B </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> Text B </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> For i = 2 To DataGrid1.Columns.Count - 1 DataGrid1.Columns.RemoveAt(2) Next EDIT So from what I've read this seems to be a problem that occurs when the grid is altered. Does anyone know of a good workaround to re-initialize the template columns or set them up again so that when the non-template columns are removed that hte templates don't get removed as well?

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• how to redirect user depending on user type at time of login (codeignitor)

  - by Anam Tahir

  im facing problem while redirecting my user according to its type. how can do it here's my code plz suggest how to do it. <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class VerifyLogin extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function index() { $this->load->model('user','',TRUE); //This method will have the credentials validation $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->load->library('session'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Username','trim|required|xss_clean'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'Password' 'trim|required|xss_clean|callback_check_database'); if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { //Field validation failed.&nbsp; User redirected to login page validation_errors(); $this->load->view('error'); } else { //Go to private area basically here i want to redirect if user is admin then redirect to admin page else redirect to home how can i do this ??? redirect('home', 'refresh'); } } function check_database($password) { //Field validation succeeded.&nbsp; Validate against database $username = $this->input->post('username'); //query the database $result = $this->user->login($username, $password); if($result) { $sess_array = array(); foreach($result as $row) { $sess_array = array( 'id' => $row->id, 'username' => $row->username ); $this->session->set_userdata('logged_in', $sess_array); } return TRUE; } else { $this->form_validation->set_message('check_database', 'Invalid username or password'); return false; } } } ?>

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• Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

  - by Matt

  Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

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• association of more than one model to a listview

  - by Veer

  I have 3 Tables in my database. Each table has 3 fields each, excluding the ID field. out of which 2 fields are of type nvarchar. None of the tables are related. My ListView in the application helps the user to search my database, the search being incremental. The search includes the nvarchar fields of the 3 tables ie, 6 fields in total. Eg: PhoneBook: Name, PhoneNo Notes: Title, Content Bookmarks: Name, url I've the models generated for the 3 tables. Now the ListBox should display the Ph.Name, Title and the Bo.Name fields. ie, It should be bound to them. But they are from different models. I also should be able to perform CRUD operation on the item searched. How would i do that? P.S: Separate ViewModels are created for each Model which are used for their respective views for handling those tables individually. But this is an integrated view where the user should be able to search everything. Also please somebody suggest me a better Title for this question:)

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• Form validation

  - by kielie

  Hi guys, I need to create a form that has many of the same fields, that have to be inserted into a database, but the problem I have is that if a user only fills in one or two of the rows, the form will still submit the blank data of the empty fields along with the one or two fields the user has filled in. How can I check for the rows that have not been filled in and leave them out of the query? or check for those that have been filled in and add them to the query. . . The thank_you.php file will capture the $_POST variables and add them to the database. <form method="post" action="thank_you.php"> Name: <input type="text" size="28" name="name1" /> E-mail: <input type="text" size="28" name="email1" /> <br /> Name: <input type="text" size="28" name="name2" /> E-mail: <input type="text" size="28" name="email2" /> <br /> Name: <input type="text" size="28" name="name3" /> E-mail: <input type="text" size="28" name="email3" /> <br /> Name: <input type="text" size="28" name="name4" /> E-mail: <input type="text" size="28" name="email4" /> <input type="image" src="images/btn_s.jpg" /> </form> I am assuming that I could use javascript or jQuery to accomplish this, how would I go about doing this? Thanx in advance for the help.

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• An Erroneous SQL Query makes browser hang until script timeout exceeded

  - by Jimbo

  I have an admin page in a Classic ASP web application that allows the admin user to run queries against the database (SQL Server 2000) Whats really strange is that if the query you send has an error in it (an invalid table join, a column you've forgotten to group by etc) the BROWSER hangs (CPU usage goes to maximum) until the SERVER script timeout is exceeded and then spits out a timeout exceeded error (server and browser are on different machines, so not sure how this happens!) I have tried this in IE 8 and FF 3 with the same result. If you run that same query (with errors) directly from SQL Enterprise Manager, it returns the real error immediately. Is this a security feature? Does anyone know how to turn it off? It even happens when the connection to the database is using 'sa' credentials so I dont think its a security setting :( Dim oRS Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oRS.ActiveConnection = sConnectionString // run the query - this is for the admin only so doesnt check for sql safe commands etc. oRS.Open Request.Form("txtSQL") If Not oRS.EOF Then // list the field names from the recordset For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).name & "&nbsp;" Next // show the data for each record in the recordset While Not oRS.EOF For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).value & "&nbsp;" Next Response.Write "<br />" oRS.Movenext() Wend End If

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• PHP driven site needs password change.

  - by Drea

  I have inherited a website that needs the password changed that accesses the database. I can see that there are two tables within the database but neither of them have username or password info. The previous web guy moved out of the country and can't be reached. I am not up-to-speed enough to figure this out. I have gone through all the files to try and find the answer but can't get it. It's hosted by goDaddy.com and I have changed the passwords there but it didn't change this login info. www.executivehomerents.com/cpanel <-this brings up the prompt for the username & password which I won't give out but the page only gives you 5 choices and none of them deal with changing the password. They are simply to change the data in the tables. If you go to: http://www.websitedatabases.com/ <=this is the company that the PHPMagic program was purchased from-- They have no contact number. Here is another page that might help: http://www.executivehomerents.com/cpanel/dbinput/setup.php I don't think I'll get an answer to this but it's worth a try... thanks.

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• C# Linq to SQL connection string (newbie)

  - by Chris'o

  i am a new linq to sql learner and this is my very first attempt to create a data viewer program. The idea is simple, i'd like to create a software that is able to view content of a table in a database. That's it. I got an early problem here already and i have seen many tutes and articles online but I still cant fix the bug. Here is my code: static void Main(string[] args) { string cs = "Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=somedb;Integrated Security=SSPI;"; var db = new DataClasses1DataContext(cs); db.Connection.Open(); foreach (var b in db.Mapping.GetTables()) Console.WriteLine(b.TableName); Console.ReadKey(true); } When I tried to check db.connection.equals(null); it returns false, so i thought i have connected successfully to the database since there is no error at all. But the code above doesn't print anything out to the screen. I kind of lost and don't know what's going on here. Does anyone know what is going wrong here?

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• T-SQL: Dynamic Query by Selected Column in ASP.NET GridView

  - by jp2code

  I'm trying to modify a stored procedure used in an ASP.NET page. By default, the stored procedure returns all of the data, which can be overwhelming for employees in the plant. I want to add a drop down menu item for the column name and a text box for a value to allow our employees to search the data for their specific items. What I would like to add is the ability to pass in a Column Name and Column Value to search, similar to the following: DECLARE @colName nVarChar(50), @colValue nVarChar(50) SET @colName='EmployeeID' SET @colValue='007135' SELECT Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4, Column5, Column6, Column7 FROM viewNum1 WHERE ((@colName IS NULL) OR (@colValue IS NULL) OR ('['+@colName+']'=@colValue)) If all values passed in (@colValue and @colName), all records return; however, if I try specifying that @colName=EmployeeID and @colValue='007135' (a value that does exist in the database), no records are returned. Next is the problem that I am running an old SQL Server 2000 database that does not allow the stored procedure to access the table column names, and the whole technique looks prone to SQL Injection. Finally, I don't see how to bind my GridView control to this and still have the ability to display all records. How would I write such a filtering stored procedure?

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• Access denied from another thread

  - by Lobuno

  Hello! In a program I span a thread ("the working thread"). Hera I copy some files write some data to a database and eventually, delete some other files or directories. Everything works fine. The problem is now, that I decided to move the deleting operation to some other thread. So the working thread now copies the files or directories, writes to the database, and , if there is a need to delete some other files this thread spans another thread and that second thread deleted the needed files or directories. The problem is that,the deletion used to work 100% when done in the working thread, now when the same is done in the secondary thread, I sometimes get an "Access denied" error and the files cannot be deleted. And no, the working thread is definitely NOT acceding the files and directories to delete at this moment. Sometimes (but not always) the main thread is impersonating some user, so if needed , the deleting thread is also running under impersonation just to grant the needed permissions to delete the files, so that should not be the problem. Anybody has a clue why this could be happening?

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• The question about the basics of LINQ to SQL working

  - by Alex

  I just started learning LINQ to SQL, and so far I'm impressed with the easy of use and good performance. I used to think that when doing LINQ queries like from Customer in DB.Customers where Customer.Age > 30 select Customer Get all customers from the database ("SELECT * FROM Customers"), move them to the Customers array and then make a search in that Array using .NET methods. This is very inefficient, what if there are hundreds of thousands of customers in the database? Making such big SELECT queries would kill the web application. Now after experiencing how actually fast LINQ to SQL is, I start to suspect that when doing that query I just wrote, LINQ somehow converts it to a SQL Query string SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Age > 30 And only when necessary it will run the query. So my question is: am I right? And when is the query actually run? The reason why I'm asking is not only because I want to understand how it works in order to build good optimized applications, but because I came across the following problem. I have 2 tables, one of them is Books, the other has information on how many books were sold on certain days. My goal is to select books that had at least 50 sales/day in past 10 days. It's done with this simple query: from Book in DB.Books where (from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID).Contains(Book.ID) select Book The point is, I have to use the checking part in several queries and I decided to create an array with IDs of all popular books: var popularBooksIDs = from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID; BUT when I try to do the query now: from Book in DB.Books where popularBooksIDs.Contains(Book.ID) select Book It doesn't work! That's why I think that we can't use thins kinds of shortcuts in LINQ to SQL queries, like we can't use them in real SQL. We have to create straightforward queries, am I right?

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• N Tiers with SubSonic 3, Dirty Columns collection is alwayes empty on update

  - by Adel

  Hello guys here is what i am doing, and not working for me. I have a DAL generated with SubSonic 3 ActiveRecord template, i have a service layer (business layer if you well) that have mixture of facade and some validation. say i have a method on the Service layer like public void UpdateClient(Client client); in my GUI i create a Client object fill it with some data with ID and pass it to the service method and this never worked, the dirty columns collection (that track which columns are altered in order to use more efficant update statment) is alwayes empty. if i tried to get the object from database inside my GUI then pass it to the service method it's not working either. the only scenario i find working is if i query the object from the database and call Update() on the same context all inside my GUI and this defeats the whole service layer i've created. however for insert and delete everything working fine, i wonder if this have to do something with object tracking but what i know is SubSonic don't do that. please advice. thanks. Adel.

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• Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

  - by colithium

  Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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• Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

  - by Vilx-

  I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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• Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

  - by franko75

  I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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• How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

  - by mhu

  Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

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• ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

  - by eidylon

  Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

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• Read varbinary data in java

  - by masoud farahani

  I made a Java application which reads some files from SQL server. Those files are saved to a varbinary(MAX) field in SQL Server by a third party web service. My problem is that when I want to read those files with my Java application, those binary data show different content in the Java application. In fact, I read data byte by byte and I figured out that some bytes did not show the real values which were saved in the database. I found out what the problem is, but I couldn’t find a solution yet. I found out that in the web service every varbinary data is saved to database as byte data (in .Net each byte takes 0 to 255). But, when I want to read the binary data in Java, it takes different values and cause an exception with some values, because in Java a byte value takes -127 to 127. In my Java application I want to write those data to a file by OutputStream.write(byte[]) method. How can I solve this problem? I think that I have to find a way to convert c# byte[] to a Java byte[] (or binary data), but how can I do that?

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• Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

  - by TrueWill

  We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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• How to create C++ istringstream from a char array with null(0) characters?

  - by Morpheus

  I have a char array which contains null characters at random locations. I tried to create an iStringStream using this array (encodedData_arr) as below, I use this iStringStream to insert binary data(imagedata of Iplimage) to a MySQL database blob field(using MySQL Connector/C++'s setBlob(istream *is) ) it only stores the characters upto the first null character. Is there a way to create an iStringStream using a char array with null characters? unsigned char *encodedData_arr = new unsigned char[data_vector_uchar->size()]; // Assign the data of vector<unsigned char> to the encodedData_arr for (int i = 0; i < vec_size; ++i) { cout<< data_vector_uchar->at(i)<< " : "<< encodedData_arr[i]<<endl; } // Here the content of the encodedData_arr is same as the data_vector_uchar // So char array is initializing fine. istream *is = new istringstream((char*)encodedData_arr, istringstream::in || istringstream::binary); prepStmt_insertImage->setBlob(1, is); // Here only part of the data is stored in the database blob field (Upto the first null character)

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• How to force client browser to download images from server rather using its cache

  - by anonim.developer

  Assume a simple aspx data entry page in which admin user can upload an image as well as some other data. They are stored in database and the next time admin visits that page to edit record, image data fetched and a preview generated and saved to disk (using GDI+) and the preview is shown in an image control. This procedure works fine for the first time however if the image changes (a new one uploaded) the next time the page is surfed it shows previously uploaded image. I debugged the application and everything works correct. The new image data is in database and new preview is stored in Temp location however the page shows previous one. If I refresh the page it shows the new image preview. I should mention that preview is always saved to disk with one name (id of each record as the name). I think that is because of IE and other browsers use client cache instead of loading images each time a page is surfed. I wonder if there is a way to force the client browser to refresh itself so the newly uploaded image is shown without user intervention. Thanks and appreciation in advance,

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• Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

  - by user340202

  Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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• Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

  - by Joe

  I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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• How to write to a Text File in Pipe delimited format from MS Sql Server / ASP.Net?

  - by NJTechGuy

  I have a text file which needs to be constantly updated (regular intervals). All I want is the syntax and possibly some code that outputs data from a MS Sql Database using ASP.Net. The code I have so far is : <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("A user viewed this demo at: " & DateTime.Now.ToString()) objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" /> With PHP, it is a breeze, but with .Net I have no clue. If you could help me with the database connectivity and how to write the data in pipe delimited format to an Output.txt file, that had be awesome. Thanks guys!

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• Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

  - by DavidYell

  I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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