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  • Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

    - by Vilx-
    I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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  • Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

    - by worlds-apart89
    I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

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  • Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

    - by Craig Walker
    I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

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  • ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

    - by Dominic Watson
    I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

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  • The question about the basics of LINQ to SQL working

    - by Alex
    I just started learning LINQ to SQL, and so far I'm impressed with the easy of use and good performance. I used to think that when doing LINQ queries like from Customer in DB.Customers where Customer.Age > 30 select Customer Get all customers from the database ("SELECT * FROM Customers"), move them to the Customers array and then make a search in that Array using .NET methods. This is very inefficient, what if there are hundreds of thousands of customers in the database? Making such big SELECT queries would kill the web application. Now after experiencing how actually fast LINQ to SQL is, I start to suspect that when doing that query I just wrote, LINQ somehow converts it to a SQL Query string SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Age > 30 And only when necessary it will run the query. So my question is: am I right? And when is the query actually run? The reason why I'm asking is not only because I want to understand how it works in order to build good optimized applications, but because I came across the following problem. I have 2 tables, one of them is Books, the other has information on how many books were sold on certain days. My goal is to select books that had at least 50 sales/day in past 10 days. It's done with this simple query: from Book in DB.Books where (from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID).Contains(Book.ID) select Book The point is, I have to use the checking part in several queries and I decided to create an array with IDs of all popular books: var popularBooksIDs = from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID; BUT when I try to do the query now: from Book in DB.Books where popularBooksIDs.Contains(Book.ID) select Book It doesn't work! That's why I think that we can't use thins kinds of shortcuts in LINQ to SQL queries, like we can't use them in real SQL. We have to create straightforward queries, am I right?

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  • Entity Framework POCO objects

    - by Dan
    I'm struggling with understanding Entity Framework and POCO objects. Here's what I'm trying to achieve. 1) Separate the DAL from the Business Layer by having my business layer use an interface to my DAL. Maybe use Unity to create my context. 2) Use Entity Framework inside my DAL. I have a Domain model with objects that reside in my business layer. I also have a database full of tables that doesn't really represent my domain model. I setup Entity Framework and generated POCO objects by using the ADO.NET POCO Generator extension. This gave me an object for each table in my database. Now I want to be able to say context.GetAll<User>(); and have it return a list of my User objects. The User object is in my business layer. Is that possible? Does that make sense or am I totally off and should start over? I'm guessing I need to use the repository pattern to achieve this, but I'm not sure. Can anyone help?

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  • Out of memory when creating a lot of objects C#

    - by Bas
    I'm processing 1 million records in my application, which I retrieve from a MySQL database. To do so I'm using Linq to get the records and use .Skip() and .Take() to process 250 records at a time. For each retrieved record I need to create 0 to 4 Items, which I then add to the database. So the average amount of total Items that has to be created is around 2 million. while (objects.Count != 0) { using (dataContext = new LinqToSqlContext(new DataContext())) { foreach (Object objectRecord in objects) { // Create a list of 0 - 4 Random Items and add each Item to the Object for (int i = 0; i < Random.Next(0, 4); i++) { Item item = new Item(); item.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); item.Object = objectRecord.Id; item.Created = DateTime.Now; item.Changed = DateTime.Now; dataContext.InsertOnSubmit(item); } } dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } amountToSkip += 250; objects = objectCollection.Skip(amountToSkip).Take(250).ToList(); } Now the problem arises when creating the Items. When running the application (and not even using dataContext) the memory increases consistently. It's like the items are never getting disposed. Does anyone notice what I'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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  • Function returning a class containing a function returning a class

    - by Scott
    I'm working on an object-oriented Excel add-in to retrieve information from our ERP system's database. Here is an example of a function call: itemDescription = Macola.Item("12345").Description Macola is an instance of a class which takes care of database access. Item() is a function of the Macola class which returns an instance of an ItemMaster class. Description() is a function of the ItemMaster class. This is all working correctly. Items can be be stored in more than one location, so my next step is to do this: quantityOnHand = Macola.Item("12345").Location("A1").QuantityOnHand Location() is a function of the ItemMaster class which returns an instance of the ItemLocation class (well, in theory anyway). QuantityOnHand() is a function of the ItemLocation class. But for some reason, the ItemLocation class is not even being intialized. Public Function Location(inventoryLocation As String) As ItemLocation Set Location = New ItemLocation Location.Item = item_no Location.Code = inventoryLocation End Function In the above sample, the variable item_no is a member variable of the ItemMaster class. Oddly enough, I can successfully instantiate the ItemLocation class outside of the ItemMaster class in a non-class module. Dim test As New ItemLocation test.Item = "12345" test.Code = "A1" quantityOnHand = test.QuantityOnHand Is there some way to make this work the way I want? I'm trying to keep the API as simple as possible. So that it only takes one line of code to retrieve a value.

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  • how to redirect user depending on user type at time of login (codeignitor)

    - by Anam Tahir
    im facing problem while redirecting my user according to its type. how can do it here's my code plz suggest how to do it. <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class VerifyLogin extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function index() { $this->load->model('user','',TRUE); //This method will have the credentials validation $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->load->library('session'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Username','trim|required|xss_clean'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'Password' 'trim|required|xss_clean|callback_check_database'); if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { //Field validation failed.&nbsp; User redirected to login page validation_errors(); $this->load->view('error'); } else { //Go to private area basically here i want to redirect if user is admin then redirect to admin page else redirect to home how can i do this ??? redirect('home', 'refresh'); } } function check_database($password) { //Field validation succeeded.&nbsp; Validate against database $username = $this->input->post('username'); //query the database $result = $this->user->login($username, $password); if($result) { $sess_array = array(); foreach($result as $row) { $sess_array = array( 'id' => $row->id, 'username' => $row->username ); $this->session->set_userdata('logged_in', $sess_array); } return TRUE; } else { $this->form_validation->set_message('check_database', 'Invalid username or password'); return false; } } } ?>

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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  • Check if date is allowed weekday in php?

    - by moogeek
    Hello! I'm stuck with a problem how to check if a specific date is within allowed weekdays array in php. For example, function dateIsAllowedWeekday($_date,$_allowed) { if ((isDate($_date)) && (($_allowed!="null") && ($_allowed!=null))){ $allowed_weekdays=json_decode($_allowed); $weekdays=array(); foreach($allowed_weekdays as $wd){ $weekday=date("l",date("w",strtotime($wd))); array_push($weekdays,$weekday); } if(in_array(date("l",strtotime($_date)),$weekdays)){return TRUE;} else {return FALSE;} } else {return FALSE;} } ///////////////////////////// $date="21.05.2010"; $wd="[0,1,2]"; if(dateIsAllowedWeekday($date,$wd)){echo "$date is within $wd weekday values!";} else{echo "$date isn't within $wd weekday values!"} I have input dates formatted as "d.m.Y" and an array returned from database with weekday numbers (formatted as 'Numeric representation of the day of the week') like [0,1,2] - (Sunday,Monday,Tuesday). The returned string from database can be "null", so i check it too. Them, the isDate function checks whether date is a date and it is ok. I want to check if my date, for example 21.05.2010 is an allowed weekday in this array. My function always returns TRUE and somehow weekday is always 'Thursday' and i don't know why... Is there any other ways to check this or what can be my error in the code above? thx

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  • T-SQL: Dynamic Query by Selected Column in ASP.NET GridView

    - by jp2code
    I'm trying to modify a stored procedure used in an ASP.NET page. By default, the stored procedure returns all of the data, which can be overwhelming for employees in the plant. I want to add a drop down menu item for the column name and a text box for a value to allow our employees to search the data for their specific items. What I would like to add is the ability to pass in a Column Name and Column Value to search, similar to the following: DECLARE @colName nVarChar(50), @colValue nVarChar(50) SET @colName='EmployeeID' SET @colValue='007135' SELECT Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4, Column5, Column6, Column7 FROM viewNum1 WHERE ((@colName IS NULL) OR (@colValue IS NULL) OR ('['+@colName+']'=@colValue)) If all values passed in (@colValue and @colName), all records return; however, if I try specifying that @colName=EmployeeID and @colValue='007135' (a value that does exist in the database), no records are returned. Next is the problem that I am running an old SQL Server 2000 database that does not allow the stored procedure to access the table column names, and the whole technique looks prone to SQL Injection. Finally, I don't see how to bind my GridView control to this and still have the ability to display all records. How would I write such a filtering stored procedure?

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  • ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

    - by eidylon
    Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

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  • An Erroneous SQL Query makes browser hang until script timeout exceeded

    - by Jimbo
    I have an admin page in a Classic ASP web application that allows the admin user to run queries against the database (SQL Server 2000) Whats really strange is that if the query you send has an error in it (an invalid table join, a column you've forgotten to group by etc) the BROWSER hangs (CPU usage goes to maximum) until the SERVER script timeout is exceeded and then spits out a timeout exceeded error (server and browser are on different machines, so not sure how this happens!) I have tried this in IE 8 and FF 3 with the same result. If you run that same query (with errors) directly from SQL Enterprise Manager, it returns the real error immediately. Is this a security feature? Does anyone know how to turn it off? It even happens when the connection to the database is using 'sa' credentials so I dont think its a security setting :( Dim oRS Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oRS.ActiveConnection = sConnectionString // run the query - this is for the admin only so doesnt check for sql safe commands etc. oRS.Open Request.Form("txtSQL") If Not oRS.EOF Then // list the field names from the recordset For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).name & "&nbsp;" Next // show the data for each record in the recordset While Not oRS.EOF For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).value & "&nbsp;" Next Response.Write "<br />" oRS.Movenext() Wend End If

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  • How to use db4o IObjectContainer in a web application ? (Container lifetime ?)

    - by driis
    I am evaluating db4o for persistence for a ASP .NET MVC project. I am wondering how I should use the IObjectContainer in a web context with regards to object lifetime. As I see it, I can do one of the following: Create the IObjectContainer at application startup and keep the same instance for the entire application lifetime. Create one IObjectContainer per request. Start a server, and get a client IObjectContainer for each database interaction. What are the implications of these options, in terms of performance and concurrency ? Since the database is locked when an IObjectContainer is opened, I am pretty sure that option 2) would get me some problems with concurrency - would this also be the case for option 1 ? As I understand it, if I retrieve an object from an IObjectContainer, it must be saved by the same IObjectContainer instance - in order for db4o to identify it as being the same object. Therefore, If I choose option 3), I would have to retrieve the original object, make the necessary changes (copy data from a modified object), and then store it using the same IObjectContainer. Is this true ?

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  • Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

    - by Matt
    Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

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  • Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

    - by TrueWill
    We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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  • How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

    - by mhu
    Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

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  • Does new JUnit 4.8 @Category render test suites almost obsolete?

    - by grigory
    Given question 'How to run all tests belonging to a certain Category?' and the answer would the following approach be better for test organization? define master test suite that contains all tests (e.g. using ClasspathSuite) design sufficient set of JUnit categories (sufficient means that every desirable collection of sets is identifiable using one or more categories) define targeted test suites based on master test suite and set of categories For example: identify categories for speed (slow, fast), dependencies (mock, database, integration), function (), domain ( demand that each test is properly qualified (tagged) with relevant set of categories. create master test suite using ClasspathSuite (all tests found in classpath) create targeted suites by qualifying master test suite with categories, e.g. mock test suite, fast database test suite, slow integration for domain X test suite, etc. My question is more like soliciting approval rate for such approach vs. classic test suite approach. One unbeatable benefit is that every new test is immediately contained by relevant suites with no suite maintenance. One concern is proper categorization of each test.

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  • Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

    - by Luis
    Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

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  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

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  • does entity framework or mysql provider swallows timeout exceptions on enumeration of result?!

    - by Freddy Rios
    I'm trying to make sense of a situation I have using entity framework on .net 3.5 sp1 + MySQL 6.1.2.0 as the provider. It involves the following code: Response.Write("Products: " + plist.Count() + "<br />"); var total = 0; foreach (var p in plist) { //... some actions total++; //... other actions } Response.Write("Total Products Checked: " + total + "<br />"); Basically the total products is varying on each run, and it isn't matching the full total in plist. Its varies widely, from ~ 1/5th to half. There isn't any control flow code inside the foreach i.e. no break, continue, try/catch, conditions around total++, anything that could affect the count. As confirmation, there are other totals captured inside the loop related to the actions, and those match the lower and higher total runs. I don't find any reason to the above, other than something in entity framework or the mysql provider that causes it to end the foreach when retrieving an item. The body of the foreach can have some good variation in time, as the actions involve file & network access, my best shot at the time is that when it takes beyond certain threshold there is some type of timeout in the underlying framework/provider and instead of causing an exception it is silently reporting no more items for enumeration. Can anyone give some light in the above scenario and/or confirm if the entity framework/mysql provider has the above behavior?

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  • Problem in DataBinding an Enum using dictionary approach to a combobox in WPF.

    - by Ashish Ashu
    I have a Dictionary which is binded to a combobox. I have used dictionary to provide spaces in enum. public enum Option {Enter_Value, Select_Value}; Dictionary<Option,string> Options; <ComboBox x:Name="optionComboBox" SelectionChanged="optionComboBox_SelectionChanged" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Options}" /> This works fine. My queries: 1. I am not able to set the initial value to a combo box. In above XAML snippet the line SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" is not working. I have declared SelectOption in my viewmodel. This is of type string and I have intialized this string value in my view model as below: SelectedOption = Options[Options.Enter_Value].ToString(); 2. The combobox is binded to datadictionary which have two options first is "Enter_value" and second is "Select_value" which is actually Option enum. Based on the Option enum value I want to perform different action. For example if option is equal to option.Enter_value then Combo box becomes editable and user can enter the numeric value in it. if option is equal to option.Select_value value then the value comes from the database and the combo box becomes read only and shows the fetched value from the database. Please Help!!

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  • Is excessive DataTable usage bad?

    - by Justin R.
    I was recently asked to assist another team in building an ASP .NET website. They already have a significant amount of code written -- I was specifically asked build a few individual pages for the site. While exploring the code for the rest of the site, the amount of DataTables being constructed jumped out at me. Being a relatively new in the field, I've never worked on an application that utilizes a database as much as this site does, so I'm not sure how common this is. It seems that whenever data is queried from our database, the results are stored in a DataTable. This DataTable is then usually passed around by itself, or it's passed to a constructor. Classes that are initialized with a DataTable always assign the DataTable to a private/protected field, however only a few of these classes implement IDisposable. In fact, in the thousands of lines of code that I've browsed so far, I have yet to see the Dispose method called on a DataTable. If anything, this doesn't seem to be good OOP. Is this something that I should worry about? Or am I just paying more attention to detail than I should? Assuming you're most experienced developers than I am, how would you feel or react if someone who was just assigned to help you with your site approached you about this "problem"?

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  • How to write a JOIN statement to combine data from disparate tables

    - by Amarundo
    I have the following 2 procedures that I use as my source for a report. As of now, I'm presenting 2 different tables in my SQL Server Reporting Services 2008 R2 report, because it doesn't let me put them together as they belong to 2 different data sets. I want to present them in a single table, but I have not been successful trying to use JOIN here. How do I do that? NOTE: cName in IAgentQueueStats corresponds to UserId in AgentActivityLog. /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for calls, talk and hold time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per 30-minute interval ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_IAgentQueueStats_OnlyCalls_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [cName] ,sum([nAnswered]) SumNAnswered ,sum([nAnsweredAcd]) SumNAnsweredAcd ,sum([tTalkAcd]) SumTTalkAcd ,sum([nHoldAcd]) SumNHoldAcd ,sum([tHoldAcd]) SumTHoldAcd ,sum([tAcw]) SumTAcw FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[IAgentQueueStats] WHERE dIntervalStart between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( cName ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND cReportGroup <> '*' AND cHKey3 = '*' and cHKey4 ='*' AND nEnteredAcd > 0 AND cReportGroup <> 'CCFax Email' GROUP BY cName And here is the second one: /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for status/activity time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per start-time/end-time ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_AgentActivity_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [UserId],[StatusCategory],SUM([StateDuration]) [StatusDuration] FROM ( SELECT [UserId] ,[StatusGroup] ,[StatusKey] , CASE [StatusKey] WHEN 'Available' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Follow Up' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Campaign Call' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Awaiting Callback' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'In a Meeting' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Project Work' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At a Training Session'THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'System Issues' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Test' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At Lunch' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Forward' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Follow-Me' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'At Play' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'AcdAgentNotAnswering' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Do Not Disturb' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, No ACD' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Away from desk' THEN 'Non Productive' ELSE [StatusKey] END StatusCategory ,stateduration FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[AgentActivityLog] WHERE [StatusDateTime] between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( [UserId] ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND [StatusKey] not in ('Gone Home','Out of the Office','On Vacation','Out of Town') ) a GROUP BY [UserId],[StatusCategory] ORDER BY [UserId], [StatusCategory] desc BTW, if I take some time to comment/reply on your posts, it's not lack of interest, but of understanding...

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