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  • C# Interface Method calls from a controller

    - by ArjaaAine
    I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

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  • Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

    - by Matt
    Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

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  • An Erroneous SQL Query makes browser hang until script timeout exceeded

    - by Jimbo
    I have an admin page in a Classic ASP web application that allows the admin user to run queries against the database (SQL Server 2000) Whats really strange is that if the query you send has an error in it (an invalid table join, a column you've forgotten to group by etc) the BROWSER hangs (CPU usage goes to maximum) until the SERVER script timeout is exceeded and then spits out a timeout exceeded error (server and browser are on different machines, so not sure how this happens!) I have tried this in IE 8 and FF 3 with the same result. If you run that same query (with errors) directly from SQL Enterprise Manager, it returns the real error immediately. Is this a security feature? Does anyone know how to turn it off? It even happens when the connection to the database is using 'sa' credentials so I dont think its a security setting :( Dim oRS Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oRS.ActiveConnection = sConnectionString // run the query - this is for the admin only so doesnt check for sql safe commands etc. oRS.Open Request.Form("txtSQL") If Not oRS.EOF Then // list the field names from the recordset For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).name & "&nbsp;" Next // show the data for each record in the recordset While Not oRS.EOF For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).value & "&nbsp;" Next Response.Write "<br />" oRS.Movenext() Wend End If

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  • Tab Content Does Not Refresh After First Click of Like Button

    - by Adam
    I've implemented a very simple "like guard" for a facebook tab, and am running into an issue with my test users. Multiple testers are reporting that when they open a tab and click the "like" button, they do not always get a page refresh (so the like guard does not disappear until they do a manual reload). This is using facebook's like button at the top of the page, not one I've coded up myself. As a sanity check, I enabled some simple logging on my server and have been able to recreate the issue - I hit "like" or "unlike" but there seems to be no request made to my index.php page, so definitely no refresh happening. I'm aware of this old bug https://developers.facebook.com/bugs/228778937218386 but this one seems different. For starters, after the first click of the "like" button, if I just continue clicking unlike/like/.... then the refresh happens automatically, as expected. What's especially weird is that if I reload the page after the first failed refresh, the refreshes start working again as expected, ie the first update to my like status triggers a page refresh. Some possibly (?) relevant info: My Tab is part of a test page, and is unpublished I am only using http hosting for the tab content, since my https isn't set up yet So far I've just tested with other admins - so maybe user role affects this? Curious to see if anyone has run into this issue before.

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  • Access denied from another thread

    - by Lobuno
    Hello! In a program I span a thread ("the working thread"). Hera I copy some files write some data to a database and eventually, delete some other files or directories. Everything works fine. The problem is now, that I decided to move the deleting operation to some other thread. So the working thread now copies the files or directories, writes to the database, and , if there is a need to delete some other files this thread spans another thread and that second thread deleted the needed files or directories. The problem is that,the deletion used to work 100% when done in the working thread, now when the same is done in the secondary thread, I sometimes get an "Access denied" error and the files cannot be deleted. And no, the working thread is definitely NOT acceding the files and directories to delete at this moment. Sometimes (but not always) the main thread is impersonating some user, so if needed , the deleting thread is also running under impersonation just to grant the needed permissions to delete the files, so that should not be the problem. Anybody has a clue why this could be happening?

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  • EditText items in a scrolling list lose their changes when scrolled off the screen

    - by ianww
    I have a long scrolling list of EditText items created by a SimpleCursorAdapter and prepopulated with values from an SQLite database. I make this by: cursor = db.rawQuery("SELECT _id, criterion, localweight, globalweight FROM " + dbTableName + " ORDER BY criterion", null); startManagingCursor(cursor); mAdapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.weight_edit_items, cursor, new String[]{"criterion","localweight","globalweight"}, new int[]{R.id.criterion_edit, R.id.localweight_edit, R.id.globalweight_edit}); this.setListAdapter(mAdapter); The scrolling list is several emulator screens long. The items display OK - scrolling through them shows that each has the correct value from the database. I can make an edit change to any of the EditTexts and the new text is accepted and displayed in the box. But...if I then scroll the list far enough to take the edited item off the screen, when I scroll back to look at it again its value has returned to what it was before I made the changes, ie. my edits have been lost. In trying to sort this out, I've done a getText to look at what's in the EditText after I've done my edits (and before a scroll) and getText returns the original text, even though the EditText is displaying my new text. It seems that the EditText has only accepted my edits superficially and they haven't been bound to the EditText, meaning they get dropped when scrolled off the screen. Can anyone please tell me what's going on here and what I need to do to force the EditText to retain its edits? Thanks Ian

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  • Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

    - by DavidYell
    I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • N Tiers with SubSonic 3, Dirty Columns collection is alwayes empty on update

    - by Adel
    Hello guys here is what i am doing, and not working for me. I have a DAL generated with SubSonic 3 ActiveRecord template, i have a service layer (business layer if you well) that have mixture of facade and some validation. say i have a method on the Service layer like public void UpdateClient(Client client); in my GUI i create a Client object fill it with some data with ID and pass it to the service method and this never worked, the dirty columns collection (that track which columns are altered in order to use more efficant update statment) is alwayes empty. if i tried to get the object from database inside my GUI then pass it to the service method it's not working either. the only scenario i find working is if i query the object from the database and call Update() on the same context all inside my GUI and this defeats the whole service layer i've created. however for insert and delete everything working fine, i wonder if this have to do something with object tracking but what i know is SubSonic don't do that. please advice. thanks. Adel.

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  • T-SQL: Dynamic Query by Selected Column in ASP.NET GridView

    - by jp2code
    I'm trying to modify a stored procedure used in an ASP.NET page. By default, the stored procedure returns all of the data, which can be overwhelming for employees in the plant. I want to add a drop down menu item for the column name and a text box for a value to allow our employees to search the data for their specific items. What I would like to add is the ability to pass in a Column Name and Column Value to search, similar to the following: DECLARE @colName nVarChar(50), @colValue nVarChar(50) SET @colName='EmployeeID' SET @colValue='007135' SELECT Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4, Column5, Column6, Column7 FROM viewNum1 WHERE ((@colName IS NULL) OR (@colValue IS NULL) OR ('['+@colName+']'=@colValue)) If all values passed in (@colValue and @colName), all records return; however, if I try specifying that @colName=EmployeeID and @colValue='007135' (a value that does exist in the database), no records are returned. Next is the problem that I am running an old SQL Server 2000 database that does not allow the stored procedure to access the table column names, and the whole technique looks prone to SQL Injection. Finally, I don't see how to bind my GridView control to this and still have the ability to display all records. How would I write such a filtering stored procedure?

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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  • how to redirect user depending on user type at time of login (codeignitor)

    - by Anam Tahir
    im facing problem while redirecting my user according to its type. how can do it here's my code plz suggest how to do it. <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class VerifyLogin extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function index() { $this->load->model('user','',TRUE); //This method will have the credentials validation $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->load->library('session'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Username','trim|required|xss_clean'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'Password' 'trim|required|xss_clean|callback_check_database'); if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { //Field validation failed.&nbsp; User redirected to login page validation_errors(); $this->load->view('error'); } else { //Go to private area basically here i want to redirect if user is admin then redirect to admin page else redirect to home how can i do this ??? redirect('home', 'refresh'); } } function check_database($password) { //Field validation succeeded.&nbsp; Validate against database $username = $this->input->post('username'); //query the database $result = $this->user->login($username, $password); if($result) { $sess_array = array(); foreach($result as $row) { $sess_array = array( 'id' => $row->id, 'username' => $row->username ); $this->session->set_userdata('logged_in', $sess_array); } return TRUE; } else { $this->form_validation->set_message('check_database', 'Invalid username or password'); return false; } } } ?>

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  • output query in strict table formate in code-igniter

    - by riad
    Dear all, my code is below.it show the output in table format having no problems. But when the particular tr gets long output from database then the table break. Now how can i fixed the tr width strictly?let say i want each td cannot be more than 100px. How can i do it? Note: Here table means html table,not the database table. if ($query->num_rows() > 0) { $output = ''; foreach ($query-result() as $function_info) { if ($description) { $output .= ''.$function_info-songName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-albumName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-artistName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code1.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code2.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code3.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code4.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code5.''; } else { $output .= ''.$function_info-songName.''; } } $output .= ''; return $output; } else { return 'Result not found.'; } thanks riad

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  • How to create C++ istringstream from a char array with null(0) characters?

    - by Morpheus
    I have a char array which contains null characters at random locations. I tried to create an iStringStream using this array (encodedData_arr) as below, I use this iStringStream to insert binary data(imagedata of Iplimage) to a MySQL database blob field(using MySQL Connector/C++'s setBlob(istream *is) ) it only stores the characters upto the first null character. Is there a way to create an iStringStream using a char array with null characters? unsigned char *encodedData_arr = new unsigned char[data_vector_uchar->size()]; // Assign the data of vector<unsigned char> to the encodedData_arr for (int i = 0; i < vec_size; ++i) { cout<< data_vector_uchar->at(i)<< " : "<< encodedData_arr[i]<<endl; } // Here the content of the encodedData_arr is same as the data_vector_uchar // So char array is initializing fine. istream *is = new istringstream((char*)encodedData_arr, istringstream::in || istringstream::binary); prepStmt_insertImage->setBlob(1, is); // Here only part of the data is stored in the database blob field (Upto the first null character)

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  • How to force client browser to download images from server rather using its cache

    - by anonim.developer
    Assume a simple aspx data entry page in which admin user can upload an image as well as some other data. They are stored in database and the next time admin visits that page to edit record, image data fetched and a preview generated and saved to disk (using GDI+) and the preview is shown in an image control. This procedure works fine for the first time however if the image changes (a new one uploaded) the next time the page is surfed it shows previously uploaded image. I debugged the application and everything works correct. The new image data is in database and new preview is stored in Temp location however the page shows previous one. If I refresh the page it shows the new image preview. I should mention that preview is always saved to disk with one name (id of each record as the name). I think that is because of IE and other browsers use client cache instead of loading images each time a page is surfed. I wonder if there is a way to force the client browser to refresh itself so the newly uploaded image is shown without user intervention. Thanks and appreciation in advance,

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  • Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

    - by user340202
    Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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  • Entity framework self referencing loop detected

    - by Lyd0n
    I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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  • Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

    - by Vilx-
    I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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  • Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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  • Rails: RESTful Find, Initialize, or Create

    - by Andrew
    I have an app that has Cities in it. I'm looking for some suggestions on how to RESTfully structure a controller so that I can lookup, initialize, and create city records via AJAX requests. For instance: Given a text field city_name A user enters the name of a City, like "Paris, France" The app checks this location to see if there is such a city in the database already If there is, it returns the city object If there is not, it returns a new record initialized with the name "Paris" and the country "France", and prompts the user to confirm they want to add this city to the database If the user says "Yes" the record is saved. If not the record is discarded and the form is cleared. Now, my first approach was to change the Create action to use find_or_create, so that an AJAX post to cities_path would result in either returning the existing city or creating it and returning it. That works ok... However, it would be better to setup controller actions that would take a string input, find , or else initialize and return, then only create if the user confirms the generated record is correct. The ideal scenario would put this all in one action so AJAX request can go to that url, the server responds with JSON objects, and javascript can handle things from there. I'd like to keep all the user-interaction logic client side, and also minimize the number of requests it takes to achieve this. Any suggestions on the cleanest, most RESTful way to accomplish this?

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  • Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

    - by TrueWill
    We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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  • Check if date is allowed weekday in php?

    - by moogeek
    Hello! I'm stuck with a problem how to check if a specific date is within allowed weekdays array in php. For example, function dateIsAllowedWeekday($_date,$_allowed) { if ((isDate($_date)) && (($_allowed!="null") && ($_allowed!=null))){ $allowed_weekdays=json_decode($_allowed); $weekdays=array(); foreach($allowed_weekdays as $wd){ $weekday=date("l",date("w",strtotime($wd))); array_push($weekdays,$weekday); } if(in_array(date("l",strtotime($_date)),$weekdays)){return TRUE;} else {return FALSE;} } else {return FALSE;} } ///////////////////////////// $date="21.05.2010"; $wd="[0,1,2]"; if(dateIsAllowedWeekday($date,$wd)){echo "$date is within $wd weekday values!";} else{echo "$date isn't within $wd weekday values!"} I have input dates formatted as "d.m.Y" and an array returned from database with weekday numbers (formatted as 'Numeric representation of the day of the week') like [0,1,2] - (Sunday,Monday,Tuesday). The returned string from database can be "null", so i check it too. Them, the isDate function checks whether date is a date and it is ok. I want to check if my date, for example 21.05.2010 is an allowed weekday in this array. My function always returns TRUE and somehow weekday is always 'Thursday' and i don't know why... Is there any other ways to check this or what can be my error in the code above? thx

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  • Read varbinary data in java

    - by masoud farahani
    I made a Java application which reads some files from SQL server. Those files are saved to a varbinary(MAX) field in SQL Server by a third party web service. My problem is that when I want to read those files with my Java application, those binary data show different content in the Java application. In fact, I read data byte by byte and I figured out that some bytes did not show the real values which were saved in the database. I found out what the problem is, but I couldn’t find a solution yet. I found out that in the web service every varbinary data is saved to database as byte data (in .Net each byte takes 0 to 255). But, when I want to read the binary data in Java, it takes different values and cause an exception with some values, because in Java a byte value takes -127 to 127. In my Java application I want to write those data to a file by OutputStream.write(byte[]) method. How can I solve this problem? I think that I have to find a way to convert c# byte[] to a Java byte[] (or binary data), but how can I do that?

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  • ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

    - by eidylon
    Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

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  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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  • Out of memory when creating a lot of objects C#

    - by Bas
    I'm processing 1 million records in my application, which I retrieve from a MySQL database. To do so I'm using Linq to get the records and use .Skip() and .Take() to process 250 records at a time. For each retrieved record I need to create 0 to 4 Items, which I then add to the database. So the average amount of total Items that has to be created is around 2 million. while (objects.Count != 0) { using (dataContext = new LinqToSqlContext(new DataContext())) { foreach (Object objectRecord in objects) { // Create a list of 0 - 4 Random Items and add each Item to the Object for (int i = 0; i < Random.Next(0, 4); i++) { Item item = new Item(); item.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); item.Object = objectRecord.Id; item.Created = DateTime.Now; item.Changed = DateTime.Now; dataContext.InsertOnSubmit(item); } } dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } amountToSkip += 250; objects = objectCollection.Skip(amountToSkip).Take(250).ToList(); } Now the problem arises when creating the Items. When running the application (and not even using dataContext) the memory increases consistently. It's like the items are never getting disposed. Does anyone notice what I'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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