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  • Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

    - by WesleyE
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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  • Why do we need serialization in web service

    - by Cloud2010
    I have one webservice: public class Product { public int ProductId { get; set; } public string ProductName { get; set; } } public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public List<Product> GetItems() { List<Product> productList = new List<Product>() { new Product{ProductId=1,ProductName="Pencil"}, new Product{ProductId=2,ProductName="Pen"} }; return productList; } and in a asp.net application I am consuming it like: localhost.Service s = new localhost.Service(); List<localhost.Product> k = new List<localhost.Product>(); k = s.GetItems().ToList(); // i am getting the values here. now my question is do I need to serialize my webmethod as i am returning custom types? when should we serialize ? is it necessary at all, if yes , then what are the conditions?

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  • create CLLocationCoordinate2D from array

    - by shani
    I have a plist with dictionary of array's with coordinates (stored as strings). I want to create a CLLocationCoordinate2D from every array and crate an overlay for the map. I did that - NSString *thePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Roots" ofType:@"plist"]; NSDictionary *pointsDic = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:thePath]; NSArray *pointsArray = [NSArray arrayWithArray:[pointsDic objectForKey:@"roade1"]]; CLLocationCoordinate2D pointsToUse[256]; for(int i = 0; i < 256; i++) { CGPoint p = CGPointFromString([pointsArray objectAtIndex:i]); pointsToUse[i] = CLLocationCoordinate2DMake(p.x,p.y); NSLog(@"coord %f",pointsToUse [i].longitude); NSLog(@"coord %f",pointsToUse [i].latitude); } MKPolyline *myPolyline = [MKPolyline polylineWithCoordinates:pointsToUse count:256]; [[self mv] addOverlay:myPolyline]; but the app is crashing without any error. (BTW when i remove the addOverLay method the app does not crash). I have 2 questions- What am i doing wrong? I have tried to set the pointsArray count as the argument for the CLLocationCoordinate2D like that - CLLocationCoordinate2D pointsToUse[pointsArray count]; And i am getting an error. How can i set the CLLocationCoordinate2D dynamically ? Thanks for any help. Shani

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  • What do I need to do if I want all typeof(MyEnum)'s to be handled with MyEnumModelBinder?

    - by Byron Sommardahl
    I have an Enum that appears in several of my models. For the most part, the DefaultModelBinder handles binding to my models beautifully. That it, until it gets to my Enum... it always returns the first member in the Enum no matter what is handed it by the POST. My googling leads me to believe I need to have a model binder that knows how to handle Enums. I found an excellent article on a possible custom modelBinder for Enums: http://eliasbland.wordpress.com/2009/08/08/enumeration-model-binder-for-asp-net-mvc/. I've since implemented that modelBinder and registered it in my global.asax: ModelBinders.Binders[typeof (MyEnum)] = new EnumBinder<MyEnum>(MyEnum.MyDefault); For some reason, the EnumBinder< isn't being called when the model I'm binding to has MyEnum. I have a breakpoint in the .BindModel() method and it never break. Also, my model hasn't changed after modelBinding. Have I done everything? What am I missing here?

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  • VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

    - by LocoDelAssembly
    Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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  • What is common between environments within a shell terminal session?

    - by Matt1776
    I have a custom shell script that runs each time a user logs in or identity is assumed, its been placed in /etc/profile.d and performs some basic env variable operations. Recently I added some code so that if screen is running it will reattach it without needing me to type anything. There are some problems however. If I log-in as root, and su - to another user, the code runs a second time. Is there a variable I can set when the code runs the first time that will prevent a second run of the code? I thought to write something to the disk but then I dont want to prevent the code from running if I begin a new terminal session. Here is the code in question. It first attempts to reattach - if unsuccessful because its already attached (as it might be on an interruped session) it will 'take' the session back. screen -r if [ -z "$STY" ]; then exec screen -dR fi Ultimately this bug prevents me from substituting user to another user because as soon as I do so, it grabs the screen session and puts me right back where I started. Pretty frustrating

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  • Temporarily disable vim plugin without relaunching

    - by simont
    I'm using c-support in Vim. One of it's features is the automatic comment expansion. When I'm pasting code into Vim from an external editor, the comments are expanded (which gives me double-comments and messes up the paste - see below for example). I'd like to be able to disable the plugin, paste, then re-enable it, without relaunching Vim. I'm not sure if this is possible. The SO questions here, here and here all describe methods to disable plugins, but they all require me to close Vim, mess with my .vimrc or similar, and relaunch; if I have to close Vim, I might as well cat file1 >> myfile; vim myfile, then shift the lines internally, which will be just as quick. Is it possible to disable a plugin while running vim without relaunching, preferably in a way which allows me to map a hot-key toggle-plugin (so re-sourcing ~/.vimrc is alright; that's mappable to a hotkey [I imagine, haven't tried it yet])? Messed up comments: /* * * Authors: * * A Name * * * * Copyright: * * A Name, 2012 * */ EDIT: It turns out you can :set paste, :set nopaste (which, to quote :help paste, will "avoid unexpected effects [while pasting]". (See the comments). However, I'm still curious whether you can disable/enable a plugin as per the original question, so I shall leave the question open.

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  • Faster or more memory-efficient solution in Python for this Codejam problem.

    - by jeroen.vangoey
    I tried my hand at this Google Codejam Africa problem (the contest is already finished, I just did it to improve my programming skills). The Problem: You are hosting a party with G guests and notice that there is an odd number of guests! When planning the party you deliberately invited only couples and gave each couple a unique number C on their invitation. You would like to single out whoever came alone by asking all of the guests for their invitation numbers. The Input: The first line of input gives the number of cases, N. N test cases follow. For each test case there will be: One line containing the value G the number of guests. One line containing a space-separated list of G integers. Each integer C indicates the invitation code of a guest. Output For each test case, output one line containing "Case #x: " followed by the number C of the guest who is alone. The Limits: 1 = N = 50 0 < C = 2147483647 Small dataset 3 = G < 100 Large dataset 3 = G < 1000 Sample Input: 3 3 1 2147483647 2147483647 5 3 4 7 4 3 5 2 10 2 10 5 Sample Output: Case #1: 1 Case #2: 7 Case #3: 5 This is the solution that I came up with: with open('A-large-practice.in') as f: lines = f.readlines() with open('A-large-practice.out', 'w') as output: N = int(lines[0]) for testcase, i in enumerate(range(1,2*N,2)): G = int(lines[i]) for guest in range(G): codes = map(int, lines[i+1].split(' ')) alone = (c for c in codes if codes.count(c)==1) output.write("Case #%d: %d\n" % (testcase+1, alone.next())) It runs in 12 seconds on my machine with the large input. Now, my question is, can this solution be improved in Python to run in a shorter time or use less memory? The analysis of the problem gives some pointers on how to do this in Java and C++ but I can't translate those solutions back to Python.

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  • compile c problem in emacs (ubuntu)

    - by user565739
    I wrote a very simple program like: ( sorry, I typed the code in the right way, but the display is wired. How could I fix it?) #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { int i; for ( i = 0; i <= 10; i++ ) { printf( "%d hello!\n", i); } return 0; } Usually, I compile c program in terminal with the command cc -o xxx xxx.c So in Emacs, when I type M-x compile, I change make -k to cc -o. But I got error like cc: argument to '-o' is missing What's the problem? If I use make, then I still got error No targets specified and no makefiles found. Finally, if the above problem is fixed, how could I define a custom hotkey for compile? I have already know how to do something like global-set-key [f8] 'goto-line But I don't know to set a hotkey for an action only for c-mode.

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  • Javascript OOP - accessing the inherited property or function from a closure within a subclass

    - by Ali
    Hi All, I am using the javascript inheritance helper provided here: http://ejohn.org/blog/simple-javascript-inheritance/ I have the following code, and I have problem accessing the inherited property or function from a closure within a subclass as illustrated below. I am new to OOP javascript code and I appreciate your advice. I suppose within the closure, the context changes to JQuery (this variable) hence the problem. I appreciate your comments. Thanks, -A PS - Using JQuery 1.5 var Users = Class.extend({ init: function(names){this.names = names;} }); var HomeUsers = Users.extend({ work:function(){ // alert(this.names.length); // PRINTS A // var names = this.names; // If I make a local alias it works $.map([1,2,3],function(){ var newName = this.names.length; //error this.names is not defined. alert(newName); }); } }); var users = new HomeUsers(["A"]); users.work();

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  • Servlets: forwarding to a resource in a different webapp

    - by skaffman
    I'm trying to construct a java web app along modular principles, with some common resources (JSPs, mainly) in one WAR, and some custom resources in another. This means JSPs scattered across different WARs. Now JavaEE frowns upon this sort of shenanigans, and wants you to put everything in one place. My current workaround to this is to have an Eclipse-triggered Ant script which copies the content of one WAR into the other, but this is not a pleasant solution (it's fragile and too IDE-dependent). Ideally, what I'd like to be able to do is for a servlet to forward to a JSP located in a different WAR to one in which it is itself deployed. This would allow greater freedom in how I assemble my WARs. However, the RequestDispatcher does not seem to support such things. Another possibility is to use <c:import>, which does allow resources to be imported from a different WAR (with some caveats). This would probably allow me to have a "hook" JSP in one WAR, which then drags in the required JSP from another. This is a bit clunky, though, and the fact that <c:import> permits it shows that the underlying servlet API does also. But how do I access that functionality via the RequestDispatcher in a servlet?

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  • Lazy load images in UITableViewCell

    - by lostInTransit
    Hi I have some 50 custom cells in my UITableView. I want to display an image and a label in the cells where I get the images from URLs. I want to do a lazy load of images so the UI does not freeze up while the images are being loaded. I tried getting the images in separate threads but I have to load each image every time a cell becomes visible again (Otherwise reuse of cells shows old images) Apps like Facebook load images only for cells currently visible and once the images are loaded, they are not loaded again. Can someone please tell me how to duplicate this behavior. Thanks. Edit Trying to cache images in an NSMutableDictionary object creates problems when the user scrolls fast. I am getting images only when scrolling completely stops and clearing out the cache on memory warning. But the app invariably gets a memory warning (due to size of images being cached) and clears the cache before reloading. If scrolling is very fast, it crashes. Any other suggestions are welcome

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  • Joining tables with composite keys in a legacy system in hibernate

    - by Steve N
    Hi, I'm currently trying to create a pair of Hibernate annotated classes to load (read only) from a pair of tables in a legacy system. The legacy system uses a consistent (if somewhat dated) approach to keying tables. The tables I'm attempting to map are as follows: Customer CustomerAddress -------------------------- ---------------------------- customerNumber:string (pk) customerNumber:string (pk_1) name:string sequenceNumber:int (pk_2) street:string postalCode:string I've approached this by creating a CustomerAddress class like this: @Entity @Table(name="CustomerAddress") @IdClass(CustomerAddressKey.class) public class CustomerAddress { @Id @AttributeOverrides({ @AttributeOverride(name = "customerNumber", column = @Column(name="customerNumber")), @AttributeOverride(name = "sequenceNumber", column = @Column(name="sequenceNumber")) }) private String customerNumber; private int sequenceNumber; private String name; private String postalCode; ... } Where the CustomerAddressKey class is a simple Serializable object with the two key fields. The Customer object is then defined as: @Entity @Table(name = "Customer") public class Customer { private String customerNumber; private List<CustomerAddress> addresses = new ArrayList<CustomerAddress>(); private String name; ... } So, my question is: how do I express the OneToMany relationship on the Customer table?

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  • Fluent NHibernate no data being returned

    - by czuroski
    Hello, I have been successfully using NHibernate, but now I am trying to move to Fluent NHibernate. I have created all of my mapping files and set up my session manager to use a Fluent Configuration. I then run my application and it runs successfully, but no data is returned. There are no errors or any indication that there is a problem, but nothing runs. when using NHibernate, if I don't set my hbm xml files as an embedded resource, this same thing happens. This makes me wonder what I have to set my Map classes to. Right now, they are just set to Compile, and they are compiled into the dll, which I can see by disassembling it. Does anyone have any thoughts as to what may be happening here? Thanks private ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( IfxOdbcConfiguration .Informix1000 .ConnectionString("Provider=Ifxoledbc.2;Password=mypass;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=myuser;Data Source=mysource") .Dialect<InformixDialect1000>() .ProxyFactoryFactory<ProxyFactoryFactory>() .Driver<OleDbDriver>() .ShowSql() ) .Mappings( m => m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<cmCase>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<attorney>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<creditor>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<party>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<person>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<sardbk>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<schedule>() //x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()) //.ExportTo("C:\\mappings") ) .BuildSessionFactory(); }

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  • Using SimpleDB (with SimpleSavant) with POCO / existing entities, not attributes on my classes

    - by alex
    I'm trying to use Simple Savant within my application, to use SimpleDB I currently have (for example) public class Person { public Guid Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } public DateTime DateOfBirth { get; set; } } To use this with Simple Savant, i'd have to put attributes above the class declaration, and property - [DomainName("Person")] above the class, and [ItemName] above the Id property. I have all my entities in a seperate assembly. I also have my Data access classes an a seperate assembly, and a class factory selects, based on config, the IRepository (in this case, IRepository I want to be able to use my existing simple class - without having attributes on the properties etc.. In case I switch out of simple db, to something else - then I only need to create a different implementation of IRepository. Should I create a "DTO" type class to map the two together? Is there a better way?

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  • why this code not works?

    - by badgirl
    Hello. I want to create new node of BeanTreeView, and when I add some node in constructor, then run the app, and then I try to view the window with tree, it throws this error java.lang.AssertionError: Component cannot be created for {component=null, displayName=Exploirer, instanceCreate=AlwaysEnabledAction[Exploirer]} at org.openide.windows.OpenComponentAction.getTopComponent(OpenComponentAction.java:71) Why? And how to add node there? See the code. private ProjectsChildren projectsChildren; private ProjectNode projectNode = new ProjectNode(new MainProject("ggg"), projectsChildren); public ExploirerTopComponent() { initComponents(); setName(NbBundle.getMessage(ExploirerTopComponent.class, "CTL_ExploirerTopComponent")); setToolTipText(NbBundle.getMessage(ExploirerTopComponent.class, "HINT_ExploirerTopComponent")); // setIcon(ImageUtilities.loadImage(ICON_PATH, true)); //map.put("delete", ExplorerUtils.actionDelete(mgr, true)); associateLookup (ExplorerUtils.createLookup(mgr, getActionMap())); //projectsChildren.createProject("demence"); /* somewhere here is the problem*/ mgr.setRootContext(projectNode); ProjectNode[] pr = null; pr[0] = projectNode; mgr.getRootContext().getChildren().add(pr); }

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  • when to use Hibernate vs. Simple ResultSets for small application

    - by luke
    I just started working on upgrading a small component in a distributed java application. The main application is a rather complicated applet/servlet combo running on JBoss and it extensively uses Hibernate for its DataAccess. The component i am working on however is very a very straightforward data importing service. Basically the workflow is Listen for a network event Parse the data packet, extract a set of identifiers Map the identifier set to a primary key in our database Parse the rest of the packet and insert items in a related table using the foreign key found in step 3 Repeat in the previous version of this component it used a hibernate based DAL, that is no longer usable for a variety of reasons (in particular it is EOL), so I am in charge of replacing the Data Access layer for this component. So on the one hand I think i should use Hibernate because that's what the rest of the application does, but on the other i think i should just use regular java.sql.* classes because my requirements are really straightforward and aren't expected to change any time soon. So my question is (and i understand it is subjective) at what point do you think that the added complexity of using an ORM tool (in terms of configuration, dependencies...) is worth it? UPDATE due to the way the DataAccesLayer for the main application was written (weird dependencies) i cannot easily use it, i would have to implement it myself.

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  • What's the best way to link formal specs to JIRA enchancement requests?

    - by Adam
    What's the best way to link formal specs to JIRA enhancement requests? I want to track changes to specifications using JIRA. Ideally, I'd like to refer to a functional ID reference in a JIRA ticket (e.g. MYAPPAPPROVAL LOGICMAIN SCREEN), so that program managers can retrospectively categorise defects. The reason for this, is so that QA scripts and documentation tickets can be searched/categorised meaningfully in the tracking system. There seems to be a million possible ways to do this, e.g. should I write a custom component to select functional IDs from a tree? should I write the specs in confluence, or another CMS with a TrackBack facility? should I include a link to the documentation URL? should I use some other 3rd party plugin application? should I use some Atlassian application that i'm unaware of? am I using the wrong tracking tool/process to measure spec growth? What's the best way, in your experience?

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  • assign characters to key combinations in XP or Visual Studio .Net

    - by cpj
    I'm running Mac OSX on a MacBookPro (UK keyboard). I run windows XP under parallels in a VM. I run Visual Studio .Net 2003 and 2008 in XP in the VM when i need to. I have English United Kingdom and English United states keyboards setup in XP. (they switch sometimes for no apparent reason) There is no hash "#" key on my mac's keyboard. However, in OSX I can get a hash with an alt+3 key combination. But In Windows XP... I can not make a "#" character. I can go to the character map in windows and copy a hash.. switch into OSX and copy a hash.. search in code and copy a hash.. but I can not make a hash in XP using my keyboard without typing U+0023: ... which you can imagine is annoying. coding anything with hash symbols is becoming a choir. Anyone got any advice or key mapping tricks I can use to get hash characters working in XP using my mac UK keyboard?

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  • NSView only redraws on breakpoint

    - by Jacopo
    I have a custom view inside a NSPopover. It should change according to user input and it does the first time the user interact with it but it fails to redraw the following times. I have tried to put an NSLog inside the -drawRect: method and it doesn't get called during normal execution. When I try to debug and put a breakpoint inside the method it gets called normally and the app works as it should. I explicitly call the view -setNeedsDisplay: method every time I need it to redraw. I don't understand why it should make a difference. Here is the code that update the status of the view. These methods are part of the NSTextField delegate method -textDidChange: and I checked that these get called every time the user type something in the textfield associated with popover. [tokenCloud tokensToHighlight:[NSArray arrayWithObject:completeSuggestionString]]; tokenCloud.tokens = filteredTokens; [tokenCloud setNeedsDisplay:YES]; The views is a series of recessed button. The first line update the status of all the buttons in the popover and the second add or delete buttons. They both work properly because the first time they are called the view is update properly. I have also checked that both the status of the buttons in tokenCloud and its property tokens are updated correctly. The problem is that the NSView subclass, tokenCloud, doesn't redraw so the changes are not reflected in the UI the second time. Here is the draw method of the view: - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { [self recalculateButtonLocations]; NSLog(@"Redrawn"); } Again this method gets called normally every time I update the view if I place a breakpoint in [self recalculateButtonLocations];. If instead I let the app run normally nothing gets logged in the console the second time I update the view. Same thing if I include the NSLog in the recalculateButtonLocations method, nothing gets logged the second time meaning that the method is not called.

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  • Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

    - by John
    I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

    - by Daniel Koverman
    I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

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  • Python: Behavior of object in set operations

    - by Josh Arenberg
    I'm trying to create a custom object that behaves properly in set operations. I've generally got it working, but I want to make sure I fully understand the implications. In particular, I'm interested in the behavior when there is additional data in the object that is not included in the equal / hash methods. It seems that in the 'intersection' operation, it returns the set of objects that are being compared to, where the 'union' operations returns the set of objects that are being compared. To illustrate: class MyObject: def __init__(self,value,meta): self.value = value self.meta = meta def __eq__(self,other): if self.value == other.value: return True else: return False def __hash__(self): return hash(self.value) a = MyObject('1','left') b = MyObject('1','right') c = MyObject('2','left') d = MyObject('2','right') e = MyObject('3','left') print a == b # True print a == c # False for i in set([a,c,e]).intersection(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 right #2 right for i in set([a,c,e]).union(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 left #3 left #2 left Is this behavior documented somewhere and deterministic? If so, what is the governing principle?

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  • How to synchronize two (or n) replication processes for SQL Server databases?

    - by Yauheni Sivukha
    There are two master databases and two read-only copies updated by standard transactional replication. It is needed to map some entity from both read-only databases, lets say that A databases contains orders and B databases contains lines. The problem is that replication to one database can lag behind replication of second database, and at the moment of mapping R-databases will have inconsistent data. For example. We stored 2 orders with lines at 19:00 and 19:03. Mapping process started at 19:05, but to the moment of mapping A database replication processed all changes up to 19:03, but B database replication processed only changes up to 19:00. After mapping we will have order entity with order as of 19:03 and lines as of 19:00. The troubles are guaranteed:) In my particular case both databases have temporal model, so it is possible to fetch data for every time slice, but the problem is to identify time of latest replication. Question: How to synchronize replication processes for several databases to avoid situation described above? Or, in other words, how to compare last time of replication in each database? UPD: The only way I see to synchronize is to continuously write timestamps into service tables in each database and to check these timestamps on replicated servers. Is that acceptable solution?

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  • Run SQL Scripts from C# application across domains

    - by Saravanan AR
    To run sql script files from my C# application, I referred this. http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/adodotnetdataproviders/thread/43e8bc3a-1132-453b-b950-09427e970f31 it works perfectly when my machine and DB server are in the same domain. my problem now is, i'm executing this console application from a machine (name: X, user id: abc, domain D1). the SQL server is in another machine (name: Y, domain: D2). I use VPN to connect to machine Y with user id 'abc' and work on SQL in remote desktop. how can i run sql scripts across domains? I use this in a custom activity in my TFS build template as the last step to run the scripts in the target database which is in domain D2. i'm getting this error: "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" is it possible to connect to the DB using the admin user ID of machine Y in domain D2?

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