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  • In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

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  • Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

    - by TampaRich
    Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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  • UITableView overlaps with NavigationBar in Storyboard Setting on first run

    - by Evils
    I know this seems to be a duplicate question which has been around here many many times, but believe me, I tried all iOS7 and earlier fixes which sets the Layout to a different Edge configuration without any change. My Storyboard looks like this: -> Navigation Controller -> Tab Bar Controller -> MyTableViewController -> VCForCellOne With the first run of my application the UITableView overlaps with the source NavigationController as shown here: After clicking on one of my Cells which pushes the corresponding ViewController to the NavigationController and going back again, everything looks fine as shown here: So everything is as it should be after once pushing another ViewController to the NavigationController and then going back. Switching from Portrait to Landscape and back also fixes the layout problem and everything is layed out as it should be. My ViewController within the Storyboard looks like this: I left it the default value, so I don't know what goes wrong here. I hope you understand my problem here. There's no custom class ViewController here, so no additional code which messes up something here. Any help highly appreciated!

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  • wpautop() - when shortcode attributes are on new lines -breaks args array

    - by Luca
    I have a custom shortcode tag with a few attributes, and I would like to be able to display its attributes on new lines - to make it more readable to content editors: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" attr3 ="another" attr4 ="value" ... attrN ="valueN"] The reason behind this requirement is that a few attributes might be quite verbose in content. Unfortunately, wpautop() adds some nasty extra markup that breaks the args array like this (using php print_r($args)): Array ( [0] => attr1 [1] => ="value1" /> [3] => attr2 = [4] => "value [5] => of [6] => the [7] => second [8] => one" /> [10] => "" //...and more like this) I've tried with the attributes inline: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" ="value"... attrN ="valueN"] and the output is as expected: Array ( [attr1] => value1 [attr2] => value of the second one [attr3] => //...and so on) is there any way to have the attributes intented and avoid that extra markup that breaks the $args array?

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  • INotifyPropertyChanged event listener within respective class not firing on client side (silverlight)

    - by Rob
    I'm trying to work out if there's a simple way to internalize the handling of a property change event on a Custom Entity as I need to perform some bubbling of the changes to a child collection within the class when the Background Property is changed via a XAML binding: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { [Key] public int MyClassId { get; set; } [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<ChildMyClass> MyChildren { get; set; } public string _backgroundColor; [DataMember] public string BackgroundColor { get { return this._backgroundColor; } set { this._backgroundColor = value; if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("BackgroundColor")); } } } public MyClass() { this.BackgroundColor = "#FFFFFFFF"; this.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { //Do something here - fires client side but not server side } } I can listen to the event by externalizing it without any problems but it's an ugly way to handle something that want to set and forget inside my class e.g.: public class SomeOtherClass { public SomeOtherClass() { MyClass mc = new MyClass(); mc.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MyClass mc = (MyClass)sender; mc.UpdateChildren(); } }

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  • What is common between environments within a shell terminal session?

    - by Matt1776
    I have a custom shell script that runs each time a user logs in or identity is assumed, its been placed in /etc/profile.d and performs some basic env variable operations. Recently I added some code so that if screen is running it will reattach it without needing me to type anything. There are some problems however. If I log-in as root, and su - to another user, the code runs a second time. Is there a variable I can set when the code runs the first time that will prevent a second run of the code? I thought to write something to the disk but then I dont want to prevent the code from running if I begin a new terminal session. Here is the code in question. It first attempts to reattach - if unsuccessful because its already attached (as it might be on an interruped session) it will 'take' the session back. screen -r if [ -z "$STY" ]; then exec screen -dR fi Ultimately this bug prevents me from substituting user to another user because as soon as I do so, it grabs the screen session and puts me right back where I started. Pretty frustrating

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  • How to synchronize two (or n) replication processes for SQL Server databases?

    - by Yauheni Sivukha
    There are two master databases and two read-only copies updated by standard transactional replication. It is needed to map some entity from both read-only databases, lets say that A databases contains orders and B databases contains lines. The problem is that replication to one database can lag behind replication of second database, and at the moment of mapping R-databases will have inconsistent data. For example. We stored 2 orders with lines at 19:00 and 19:03. Mapping process started at 19:05, but to the moment of mapping A database replication processed all changes up to 19:03, but B database replication processed only changes up to 19:00. After mapping we will have order entity with order as of 19:03 and lines as of 19:00. The troubles are guaranteed:) In my particular case both databases have temporal model, so it is possible to fetch data for every time slice, but the problem is to identify time of latest replication. Question: How to synchronize replication processes for several databases to avoid situation described above? Or, in other words, how to compare last time of replication in each database? UPD: The only way I see to synchronize is to continuously write timestamps into service tables in each database and to check these timestamps on replicated servers. Is that acceptable solution?

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  • Sorting CouchDB Views By Value

    - by Lee Theobald
    Hi all, I'm testing out CouchDB to see how it could handle logging some search results. What I'd like to do is produce a view where I can produce the top queries from the results. At the moment I have something like this: Example document portion { "query": "+dangerous +dogs", "hits": "123" } Map function (Not exactly what I need/want but it's good enough for testing) function(doc) { if (doc.query) { var split = doc.query.split(" "); for (var i in split) { emit(split[i], 1); } } } Reduce Function function (key, values, rereduce) { return sum(values); } Now this will get me results in a format where a query term is the key and the count for that term on the right, which is great. But I'd like it ordered by the value, not the key. From the sounds of it, this is not yet possible with CouchDB. So does anyone have any ideas of how I can get a view where I have an ordered version of the query terms & their related counts? I'm very new to CouchDB and I just can't think of how I'd write the functions needed.

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  • [^.] causing headache in RewriteRule

    - by Ollie2893
    I am struggling with a very basic regex problem in my .htaccess file that I hope someone may be able to shed some light on. The basic premise is that I would like to teach Apache to switch any .html extension into a .var extension. I had thought that the rule would be positively trivial: RewriteRule ^([^.]+)\.html$ $1.var But the [^.] part simply doesn't work. Bizarrely, it works like so RewriteRule ^([^A-Z]+)\.html$ $1.var I do not understand why this latter rule works. Assume I am looking for a file called "index.html" then $1 should match to "index." and the ".html" bit should actually fail to match. To widen the scope of the question slightly, I am actually racking my brain on how to implement a multi-lingual site. I don't like Apache's MultiView option because it forces upon me a flat directory structure with file extensions that aren't recognizable to many development tools. I could go the .var type-map route but am finding that the default config for Apache doesn't support this all that well either (hence my excursions into regex land). So while I am using mod_rewrite, I am thinking that I might go the whole hog: whenever a request for a name.html file is received and this file does not exist, check whether there exists a XX/name.html file instead, where "XX" is the language code according to the user's preferences. This would give me a neater directory structure, though it does perhaps not perform as well as the .var approach in a situation where the language preference of the user's browser is not supported in by my site (in which situation .var would substitute EN or similar). Any thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Servlets: forwarding to a resource in a different webapp

    - by skaffman
    I'm trying to construct a java web app along modular principles, with some common resources (JSPs, mainly) in one WAR, and some custom resources in another. This means JSPs scattered across different WARs. Now JavaEE frowns upon this sort of shenanigans, and wants you to put everything in one place. My current workaround to this is to have an Eclipse-triggered Ant script which copies the content of one WAR into the other, but this is not a pleasant solution (it's fragile and too IDE-dependent). Ideally, what I'd like to be able to do is for a servlet to forward to a JSP located in a different WAR to one in which it is itself deployed. This would allow greater freedom in how I assemble my WARs. However, the RequestDispatcher does not seem to support such things. Another possibility is to use <c:import>, which does allow resources to be imported from a different WAR (with some caveats). This would probably allow me to have a "hook" JSP in one WAR, which then drags in the required JSP from another. This is a bit clunky, though, and the fact that <c:import> permits it shows that the underlying servlet API does also. But how do I access that functionality via the RequestDispatcher in a servlet?

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  • read XML tag id from php

    - by Sakthivel
    Hi friends i am have the following XML file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1"?> <Message Id="Language">German</Message> <Message Id="LangEnglish">German</Message> <Message Id="TopMakeHomepage"> Mache 4W Consulting Webseite zu deiner Starseite! </Message> <Message Id="TopLinkEmpSec"> 4W Mitarbeiter </Message> <Message Id="TopLinkFeedback"> Feedback </Message> <Message Id="TopLinkSiteMap"> Site Map </Message> <Message Id="TopLinkContactUs"> Kontakt </Message> <Message Id="TopSetLangEn"> ins Englische </Message> <Message Id="TopSetLangDe"> ins Deutsche </Message> <Message Id="TopSetLangEs"> ins Spanische </Message> <Message Id="MenuLinks"> !~|4W Starseite|Company|Über uns|Kontakt|4W anschließen|Services|Kunden Software Entwicklung|Altsystem Neugestalltung &amp; Umwandlung|Altsystem Dokumentation|Daten Umwandlung &amp; Migration|Erstellen von Datenbeschreibungsverzeichnis|System- &amp; Anwendungs Support|Projekt Management &amp; Planunng|Personal Erweiterung|Projekt Ausgliederung|Mitarbeiter Ausbildung|Technologie|Intersystems Caché|M / MUMPS|Zusätzliche Technologien|Methodologie|Feedback|~! </Message> </MsgFile> in this XML file i need to fetch the contents using the tagid . Please help me to find out this . Thanks in advance

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  • Help Needed Finding a Programmer

    - by ssean
    Good Morning, I am trying to find a programmer to code a piece of custom software for my business. I plan on using this software to manage my business, and possibly sell it to other companies (in the same industry) at a later date. I've never hired a programmer before, so I'm not sure what to expect or where to begin. I know exactly what features I need, and how I want it laid out, I just need someone who can take my ideas and make it happen. This software will be used to manage customer information, and keep track of orders. What I think I need: * SQL Server or similar database that will be located at our office. * Desktop Application, that connects via LAN to the database server (cannot be browser based) * Multiple User Support (Simultaneous users accesing the system) * Needs to be scalable (currently we have 5 employees, but who knows what the future will bring) * Multi-Platform Support (Windows, Linux) I posted a job offer through elance, which seems to raise more questions than answers. How do I decide what language(s) will work best for my situation? (I have received offers for C#, Eclipse, .NET, Powerbuilder, etc. - I want to make sure that I choose the best one now, so I don't run into problems later) Does the programmer hold any rights to the software? (I plan to offer the software for sale at a later date) Any help or insight would be appreciated, and I'd be happy to clarify anything if it helps. Thanks in advance!

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • Response Redirect - Open Link in New Window

    - by bacis09
    First, I've taken the time to review this question which seems to be the most similar, however, the solution that seems to have been selected will not work in my scenario.Not to mention I worry about some of the comments claiming it to be brittle or an inadequate solution. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/104601/asp-net-response-redirect-to-new-window -We have an XML document which basically contains all of the information for a Side menu. -We have numerous URLS which are stored in a constants class. -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it label) is used to determine if the menu item is created as a LinkButton or a Label. -Links use a custom user control that is used standard for all links across the application (why suggestion on similar thread doesn't work - I don't want all links to open in a new window - just one) -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it function) is used in a Switch statement to generate our links using Response Redirect. It may look something like this. switch (function) { case goto 1: string url; if (user_group == 1) { url = Constants.CONSTANT1 } else { url = Constants.CONSTANT2 } Response.Redirect(url) case goto 2: ...... default: ...... break; } Given this scenario, I'm trying to find the best way to quickly open a New Window, when a specific case in this switch statement is met. Can it be done with Response Redirect (this seems to be arguable - people say no it can't, yet other people say they have made it work)? If not, what alternative can work here?

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  • create CLLocationCoordinate2D from array

    - by shani
    I have a plist with dictionary of array's with coordinates (stored as strings). I want to create a CLLocationCoordinate2D from every array and crate an overlay for the map. I did that - NSString *thePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Roots" ofType:@"plist"]; NSDictionary *pointsDic = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:thePath]; NSArray *pointsArray = [NSArray arrayWithArray:[pointsDic objectForKey:@"roade1"]]; CLLocationCoordinate2D pointsToUse[256]; for(int i = 0; i < 256; i++) { CGPoint p = CGPointFromString([pointsArray objectAtIndex:i]); pointsToUse[i] = CLLocationCoordinate2DMake(p.x,p.y); NSLog(@"coord %f",pointsToUse [i].longitude); NSLog(@"coord %f",pointsToUse [i].latitude); } MKPolyline *myPolyline = [MKPolyline polylineWithCoordinates:pointsToUse count:256]; [[self mv] addOverlay:myPolyline]; but the app is crashing without any error. (BTW when i remove the addOverLay method the app does not crash). I have 2 questions- What am i doing wrong? I have tried to set the pointsArray count as the argument for the CLLocationCoordinate2D like that - CLLocationCoordinate2D pointsToUse[pointsArray count]; And i am getting an error. How can i set the CLLocationCoordinate2D dynamically ? Thanks for any help. Shani

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  • Python: Behavior of object in set operations

    - by Josh Arenberg
    I'm trying to create a custom object that behaves properly in set operations. I've generally got it working, but I want to make sure I fully understand the implications. In particular, I'm interested in the behavior when there is additional data in the object that is not included in the equal / hash methods. It seems that in the 'intersection' operation, it returns the set of objects that are being compared to, where the 'union' operations returns the set of objects that are being compared. To illustrate: class MyObject: def __init__(self,value,meta): self.value = value self.meta = meta def __eq__(self,other): if self.value == other.value: return True else: return False def __hash__(self): return hash(self.value) a = MyObject('1','left') b = MyObject('1','right') c = MyObject('2','left') d = MyObject('2','right') e = MyObject('3','left') print a == b # True print a == c # False for i in set([a,c,e]).intersection(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 right #2 right for i in set([a,c,e]).union(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 left #3 left #2 left Is this behavior documented somewhere and deterministic? If so, what is the governing principle?

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  • Haskell search an element on a List

    - by user1887556
    I want a function that changes (1 to 0) on a list, when number of 1's isn't even. I have done these functions: 1) Sees if the lines in a list are even or not: parityLine :: [[Int]] -> [Bool] parityLine [] =[] parityLine (x:xs) |sum(x) `mod` 2 == 0 = True:(parityLine(xs)) |otherwise = False:(parityLine(xs)) 2) Sum the corresponding elements on a list of lists: sumPositions :: [[Int]] -> [Int] sumPositions [] = [] sumPositions (x:xs) = foldl (zipWith (+)) (repeat 0) (x:xs) 3) Sees if the columns in a list are even or not: parityColumn :: [Int] -> [Bool] parityColumn [] = [] parityColumn (x:xs) |head(x:xs) `mod` 2 == 0 = True:parityColumn(xs) |otherwise = False:parityColumn(xs) 4) Does the operation or with two boolean lists: bol :: [Bool] -> [Bool] -> [[Bool]] bol [] _ = [] bol (x:xs) (y:ys)= (map (||x) (y:ys)):(bol xs (y:ys)) 5) Correct List: correct :: [[Int]] -> [[Bool]] correct [] = [] correct (x:xs)=(bol(parityLine (x:xs))(parityColumn(sumPositions(x:xs)))) So what I want is to alter the function correct to [[Int]]-[[Int]] that does this: My Int list(x:xs) With my correct function applied [[0,0,1,1], [[True,True,False,True], [1,0,1,1], [True,True,True,True], [0,1,0,1], [True,True,True,True] [1,1,1,1]] [True,True,True,True]] Now I can see that in the first line third column, False, so I have to correct that number 1 to have a number of 1's even. Result I want that function correct does: [[0,0,0,1], [1,0,1,1], [0,1,0,1], [1,1,1,1]] Thanks.

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  • What's the best way to link formal specs to JIRA enchancement requests?

    - by Adam
    What's the best way to link formal specs to JIRA enhancement requests? I want to track changes to specifications using JIRA. Ideally, I'd like to refer to a functional ID reference in a JIRA ticket (e.g. MYAPPAPPROVAL LOGICMAIN SCREEN), so that program managers can retrospectively categorise defects. The reason for this, is so that QA scripts and documentation tickets can be searched/categorised meaningfully in the tracking system. There seems to be a million possible ways to do this, e.g. should I write a custom component to select functional IDs from a tree? should I write the specs in confluence, or another CMS with a TrackBack facility? should I include a link to the documentation URL? should I use some other 3rd party plugin application? should I use some Atlassian application that i'm unaware of? am I using the wrong tracking tool/process to measure spec growth? What's the best way, in your experience?

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

    - by Knarf Navillus
    Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

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  • How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

    - by doctordoder
    I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

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  • Joining tables with composite keys in a legacy system in hibernate

    - by Steve N
    Hi, I'm currently trying to create a pair of Hibernate annotated classes to load (read only) from a pair of tables in a legacy system. The legacy system uses a consistent (if somewhat dated) approach to keying tables. The tables I'm attempting to map are as follows: Customer CustomerAddress -------------------------- ---------------------------- customerNumber:string (pk) customerNumber:string (pk_1) name:string sequenceNumber:int (pk_2) street:string postalCode:string I've approached this by creating a CustomerAddress class like this: @Entity @Table(name="CustomerAddress") @IdClass(CustomerAddressKey.class) public class CustomerAddress { @Id @AttributeOverrides({ @AttributeOverride(name = "customerNumber", column = @Column(name="customerNumber")), @AttributeOverride(name = "sequenceNumber", column = @Column(name="sequenceNumber")) }) private String customerNumber; private int sequenceNumber; private String name; private String postalCode; ... } Where the CustomerAddressKey class is a simple Serializable object with the two key fields. The Customer object is then defined as: @Entity @Table(name = "Customer") public class Customer { private String customerNumber; private List<CustomerAddress> addresses = new ArrayList<CustomerAddress>(); private String name; ... } So, my question is: how do I express the OneToMany relationship on the Customer table?

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  • $this->url() to another subdomain

    - by Supertino7
    Hello, I created subdomain for my application. host_www.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_www.route = "www.mywebsite.com" host_www.defaults.module = "produits" host_www.defaults.controller = "produits" host_www.defaults.action = "index" fiche_boutique.route = "ficheboutique/:boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.controller = "boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.action = "fiche-boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.module = "default" fiche_boutique.chain = "host_www" host_produits.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_produits.route = "produits.mywebsite.com" host_produits.defaults.module = "produits" host_produits.defaults.controller = "produits" host_produits.defaults.action = "index" fiche_produit.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex" fiche_produit.route = "([-\w]+).htm" fiche_produit.reverse = "%s.htm" fiche_produit.map.1 = "q" fiche_produit.defaults.module = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.controller = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.action = "voir-produit" fiche_produit.chain = "host" I don't know if the syntax in this zend config ini file is correct, in particular for routes chaining. Once I'm on this subdomain, urls constructed with $this-url() like this : <a href="<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> still point to the subdomain produits.mywebsite.com, where I want it to point to www.mywebsite.com For the moment, I do this : <a href="http://www.mywebsite.com<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> But it's not flexible at all. Is there a solution, a parameter to add, or my config file is wrong ? thanks in advance for your help.

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  • ARC and __unsafe_unretained

    - by J Shapiro
    I think I have a pretty good understanding of ARC and the proper use cases for selecting an appropriate lifetime qualifiers (__strong, __weak, __unsafe_unretained, and __autoreleasing). However, in my testing, I've found one example that doesn't make sense to me. As I understand it, both __weak and __unsafe_unretained do not add a retain count. Therefore, if there are no other __strong pointers to the object, it is instantly deallocated. The only difference in this process is that __weak pointers are set to nil, and __unsafe_unretained pointers are left alone. If I create a __weak pointer to a simple, custom object (composed of one NSString property), I see the expected (null) value when trying to access a property: Test * __weak myTest = [[Test alloc] init]; myTest.myVal = @"Hi!"; NSLog(@"Value: %@", myTest.myVal); // Prints Value: (null) Similarly, I would expect the __unsafe_unretained lifetime qualifier to cause a crash, due to the resulting dangling pointer. However, it doesn't. In this next test, I see the actual value: Test * __unsafe_unretained myTest = [[Test alloc] init]; myTest.myVal = @"Hi!"; NSLog(@"Value: %@", myTest.myVal); // Prints Value: Hi! Why doesn't the __unsafe_unretained object become deallocated?

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  • Django: getting the list of related records for a list of objects

    - by Silver Light
    Hello! I have two models related one-to many: class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=255); surname = models.CharField(max_length=255); age = models.IntegerField(); class Dog(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=255); owner = models.ForeignKey('Person'); I want to output a list of persons below each person a list of dogs he has. Here's how I can do it: in view: persons = Person.objects.all()[0:100]; in template: {% for p in persons %} {{ p.name }} has dogs:<br /> {% for d in persons.dog_set.all %} - {{ d.name }}<br /> {% endfor %} {% endfor %} But if I do it like that, Django will execute 101 SQL queries which is very inefficient. I tried to make a custom manager, which will get all the persons, then all the dogs and links them in python, but then I can't use paginator (my another question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2532475/django-paginator-raw-sql-query ) and it looks quite ugly. Is there a more graceful way doing this?

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