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  • NULL value when using NSDateFormatter after setting NSDate property via XML parsing

    - by David A Gibson
    Hello, I am using the following code to try and display in a time in a table cell. TimeSlot *timeSlot = [timeSlots objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSDateFormatter *timeFormat = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [timeFormat setDateFormat:@"HH:mm:ss"]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", timeSlot.time); NSDate *mydate = timeSlot.time; NSLog(@"Time: %@", mydate); NSString *theTime = [timeFormat stringFromDate:mydate]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", theTime); The log output is this: 2010-04-14 10:23:54.626 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: (null) I am new to developing for the iPhone and as it all compiles with no errors or warnings I am at a loss as to why I am getting NULL in the log. Is there anything wrong with this code? Thanks Further Info I used the code exactly from your answer lugte098 just to check and I was getting dates which leads me to believe that my TimeSlot class can't have a date correctly set in it's NSDate property. So my question becomes - how from XML do I set a NSDate property? I have this code (abbreviated): -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *) string { if ([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Time"]) { currentTimeSlot.time = string } } Thanks

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  • Problem in cropping the UIImage using CGContext?

    - by Rajendra Bhole
    Hi, I developing the simple UIApplication in which i want to crop the UIImage (in .jpg format) with help of CGContext. The developed code till now as follows, CGImageRef graphicOriginalImage = [originalImage.image CGImage]; UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(originalImage.image.size); CGContextRef ctx = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGBitmapContextCreateImage(graphicOriginalImage); CGFloat fltW = originalImage.image.size.width; CGFloat fltH = originalImage.image.size.height; CGFloat X = round(fltW/4); CGFloat Y =round(fltH/4); CGFloat width = round(X + (fltW/2)); CGFloat height = round(Y + (fltH/2)); CGContextTranslateCTM(ctx, 0, image.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(ctx, 1.0, -1.0); CGRect rect = CGRectMake(X,Y ,width ,height); CGContextDrawImage(ctx, rect, graphicOriginalImage); croppedImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); return croppedImage; } The above code is worked fine but it can't crop image. The original image memory and cropped image memory i will got same(equal to original image memory). The above code is right for cropping the image?????????????????? How i cropping the image (in behind pixels should also be crop) from the center of the image???????????? I already wasting a lot of time for developing the above code , but i didn't get answer or way to find out how to crop the image.Thanks for sending me answer in advanced.

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  • Linux Kernel - Red/Black Trees

    - by CodeRanger
    I'm trying to implement a red/black tree in Linux per task_struct using code from linux/rbtree.h. I can get a red/black tree inserting properly in a standalone space in the kernel such as a module but when I try to get the same code to function with the rb_root declared in either task_struct or task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT everytime I try an insert. Here's some code: In task_struct I create a rb_root struct for my tree (not a pointer). In init_task.h, macro INIT_TASK(tsk), I set this equal to RB_ROOT. To do an insert, I use this code: rb_insert(&(current-fd_tree), &rbnode); This is where the issue occurs. My insert command is the standard insert that is documented in all RBTree documentation for the kernel: int my_insert(struct rb_root *root, struct mytype *data) { struct rb_node **new = &(root->rb_node), *parent = NULL; /* Figure out where to put new node */ while (*new) { struct mytype *this = container_of(*new, struct mytype, node); int result = strcmp(data->keystring, this->keystring); parent = *new; if (result < 0) new = &((*new)->rb_left); else if (result > 0) new = &((*new)->rb_right); else return FALSE; } /* Add new node and rebalance tree. */ rb_link_node(&data->node, parent, new); rb_insert_color(&data->node, root); return TRUE; } Is there something I'm missing? Some reason this would work fine if I made a tree root outside of task_struct? If I make rb_root inside of a module this insert works fine. But once I put the actual tree root in the task_struct or even in the task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT. Can a root node not be added in these structs? Any tips are greatly appreciated. I've tried nearly everything I can think of.

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  • Using Sendkeys in python to press {F12} results in other keys pressed?

    - by ThantiK
    import time from ctypes import * import win32gui import win32com.client as comclt X = 119 Y = 53 def PILColorToRGB(pil_color): """ convert a PIL-compatible integer into an (r, g, b) tuple """ hexstr = '%06x' % pil_color # reverse byte order r, g, b = hexstr[4:], hexstr[2:4], hexstr[:2] r, g, b = [int(n, 16) for n in (r, g, b)] return (r, g, b) wsh = comclt.Dispatch("WScript.Shell") w = win32gui user = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\user32.dll") h = user.GetDC(0) gdi = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\gdi32.dll") while True: FG = w.GetWindowText(w.GetForegroundWindow()) #FG = Foreground window title. if FG == "World of Warcraft": rgb = (PILColorToRGB(gdi.GetPixel(h,X,Y))) #X, Y time.sleep(0.333) #don't check too often. if (rgb[0] >= 130): #While Pixel (X, Y) is Red... #print "%d %d %d" % (rgb[0], rgb[1], rgb[2]) #Debug wsh.SendKeys("{F12}") #Send a key. time.sleep(0.7) #Add some extra down-time if we send the key. else: time.sleep(5) Basically all this code does is read a pixel on the screen, and send a key (F12) if the pixel is red. But when using this code I regularly get some phantom key-code being pressed. The application I'm using this on is obviously world of warcraft, and I have checked that all keybinds are standard keybinds. However randomly it seems I get either an up arrow, or a w pressed, which moves my character forward whenever this code executes (F12 is bound to a macro, unbound from any movement. If I press f12 with a hardware event, it does not exhibit this behavior. What in the world could be going on here?

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  • Javascript error when integrating django-tinymce and django-filebrowser

    - by jwesonga
    I've set up django-filebrowser in my app without any bugs, I already had django-tinymce set up and it loads the editor in the admin forms. I now want to use django-filebrowser with django-tinymce, but I keep getting a weird javascript error when I click on "Image URL" in the Image popup: r is undefined the error is js/tiny_mce/tiny_mce.js My settings.py file has the following configuration: TINYMCE_JS_URL=MEDIA_URL + 'js/tiny_mce/tiny_mce.js' TINYMCE_DEFAULT_CONFIG = { 'mode': "textareas", 'theme': "advanced", 'language': "en", 'skin': "o2k7", 'dialog_type': "modal", 'object_resizing': True, 'cleanup_on_startup': True, 'forced_root_block': "p", 'remove_trailing_nbsp': True, 'theme_advanced_toolbar_location': "top", 'theme_advanced_toolbar_align': "left", 'theme_advanced_statusbar_location': "none", 'theme_advanced_buttons1': "formatselect,styleselect,bold,italic,underline,bullist,numlist,undo,redo,link,unlink,image,code,template,visualchars,fullscreen,pasteword,media,search,replace,charmap", 'theme_advanced_buttons2': "", 'theme_advanced_buttons3': "", 'theme_advanced_path': False, 'theme_advanced_blockformats': "p,h2,h3,h4,div,code,pre", 'width': '700', 'height': '300', 'plugins': "advimage,advlink,fullscreen,visualchars,paste,media,template,searchreplace", 'advimage_update_dimensions_onchange': True, 'file_browser_callback': "CustomFileBrowser", 'relative_urls': False, 'valid_elements' : "" + "-p," + "a[href|target=_blank|class]," + "-strong/-b," + "-em/-i," + "-u," + "-ol," + "-ul," + "-li," + "br," + "img[class|src|alt=|width|height]," + "-h2,-h3,-h4," + "-pre," + "-code," + "-div", 'extended_valid_elements': "" + "a[name|class|href|target|title|onclick]," + "img[class|src|border=0|alt|title|hspace|vspace|width|height|align|onmouseover|onmouseout|name]," + "br[clearfix]," + "-p[class<clearfix?summary?code]," + "h2[class<clearfix],h3[class<clearfix],h4[class<clearfix]," + "ul[class<clearfix],ol[class<clearfix]," + "div[class]," } TINYMCE_FILEBROWSER = False TINYMCE_COMPRESSOR = False i've tried switching back to older versions of tinyMCE Javascript but nothing seems to work. Would appreciate some help

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  • Fluent config not generating mapping files

    - by rboarman
    Hello, I am trying to get Fluent nHibernate to generate mappings so I can take a look at the files and the sql. My code is based on this post and on what I can glean from the documentation. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1375146/fluent-mapping-entities-and-classmaps-in-different-assemblies I am using the latest code from git. Here’s my config code: Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); var ft = Fluently.Configure(cfg); //DbConnection by fluent ft.Database ( MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ConnectionString("……") .ShowSql() .UseReflectionOptimizer() ); //get mapping files. ft.Mappings(m => { //set up the mapping locations m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"C:\temp"); m.Apply(cfg); }); I also tried: var sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ShowSql() .ConnectionString(“……")) .Mappings(p => p.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"c:\temp\")) .BuildSessionFactory(); I have verified that the connection string is correct. The issue is that no mapping files show up in the ExportTo folder and no sql code shows up in the output window or in the log file. No errors or exceptions are generated either. I have no idea where to go from here. Thank you in advance. Rick

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  • Using maven-release-plugin to tag and commit to non-origin

    - by Ali G
    When I do a release of my project, I want to share the source with a wider group of people than I normally do during development. The code is shared via a Git repository. To do this, I have used the following: remote public repository - released code is pushed here, every week or so (http://example.com/public) remote private repository - non-release code is pushed here, more than daily (http://example.com/private) In my local git repository, I have the following remotes defined: origin http://example.com/private public http://example.com/public I am currently trying to configure the maven-release-plugin to manage versioning of the builds, and to manage tagging and pushing of code to the public repository. In my pom.xml, I have listed the <scm/ as follows: <scm><connection>scm:git:http://example.com/public</connection></scm> (Removing this line will cause mvn release:prepare to fail) However, when calling mvn release:clean release:prepare release:perform Maven calls git push origin tagname rather than pushing to the URL specified in the POM. So the questions are: Best practice: Should I just be tagging and committing in my private repo (origin), and pushing to public manually? Can I make Maven push to the repository that I choose, rather than defaulting to origin? I felt this was implied by the requirement of the <connection/ element in <scm/.

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  • C# Windows Service

    - by Goober
    Scenario I've created a windows service, but whenever I start it, it stops immediately. The service was concieved from a console application that used to subscribe to an event and watch processes on a server. If anything happened to process (i.e. It was killed), then the event would trigger the process to be restarted. The reason I'm telling you this is because the original code used to look like this: Original Console App Code: static void Main(string[] args) { StartProcess sp = new StartProcess(); //Note the readline that means the application sits here waiting for an event! Console.ReadLine(); } Now that this code has been turned into a Windows Service, it is essentially EXACTLY THE SAME. However, the service does not sit there waiting, even with the readline, it just ends..... New Windows Service Code: protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { ProcessMonitor pm = new ProcessMonitor(); Console.ReadLine(); } Thoughts Since the functionality is entirely encapsulated within this single class (It quite literally starts, sets up some events and waits) - How can I get the service to actually sit there and just wait? It seems to be ignoring the readline. However this works perfectly as a console application, it is just far more convenient to have it as a service.

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  • Invoking WCF service from Javascript

    - by KhanS
    I have a asp.net web application, and have some java script code in it. While calling the service I am getting the exception Service1 is undefined. Below is my code. Service: namespace WebApplication2 { // NOTE: You can use the "Rename" command on the "Refactor" menu to change the interface name "IService1" in both code and config file together. [ServiceContract(Namespace="WCFServices")] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string HelloWorld(); } } Implementation namespace WebApplication2 { // NOTE: You can use the "Rename" command on the "Refactor" menu to change the class name "Service1" in code, svc and config file together. [ServiceBehavior(IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class Service1 : IService1 { public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello world from service"; } } } ASPX page: <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="QNAScriptManager" runat="server"> <Services> <asp:ServiceReference Path="~/Service1.svc" /> </Services> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="~/Scripts/Questions.js" /> </Scripts> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> Java Script var ServiceProxy; function pageLoad() { ServiceProxy = new Service1(); ServiceProxy.set_defaultSucceededCallback(SucceededCallback); } function GetString() { ServiceProxy.HelloWorld(); } function SucceededCallback(result, userContext, methodName) { var RsltElem = document.getElementById("Results"); RsltElem.innerHTML = result + " from " + methodName + "."; alert("Msg received from service"); }

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  • XMLBeans - xsi:type stripped using Axis2 and Tomcat?

    - by Matthew Gamble
    I’m new to XMLBeans and have been trying to use it to create an XML document as part of an axis2 web service. When I run my code as a standard Java application or as a standard servlet, the XML is correctly generated: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command xsi:type="AuthenticationRequest" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> However, when the exact same code is run under Axis2 & Tomcat in a servlet I get: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> This of course isn’t valid – the xsi:type of the “command” element is stripped when the code is run under Tomcat. Does anyone have any suggestions of what I could be doing wrong that would cause this type of issue only when running under Axis2? At first I thought it was a Tomcat issue, but after creating a generic servlet and running the exact same code I don't have any issues. I've tried playing with the XMLOptions for XMLBeans, but couldn't seem to resolve the problem. The options I'm currently using are: xmlOptions = new XmlOptions(); xmlOptions.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8"); xmlOptions.setUseDefaultNamespace(); xmlOptions.setSaveAggressiveNamespaces(); xmlOptions.setSavePrettyPrint();

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  • Receiving broadcast messages

    - by Prasad
    Hi, I'm trying to receive broadcast messages using C# code in an ISDN network with BRI interface at my end. I see the packets sent to the broadcast ip address (239.255.255.255) on some ports using Comm View tool. But when I try to listen to this IP address, it says the address is not in a valid context. But when I send broadcast messages to 255.255.255.255 on a port, I can receive those messages with the below code.. What could be the problem with this ip address - 239.255.255.255 ? The code I use to listen to broadcast messages is.. UdpClient udp = new UdpClient(); IPEndPoint receiveEndPoint = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 8013); // If I use IPAddress.Parse("239.255.255.255") to listen to, // it says "the address is not in a valid // context." udp.Client.Bind(receiveEndPoint); udp.BeginReceive(_Callback, udp); static private void _Callback(IAsyncResult iar) { try { UdpClient client = (UdpClient)iar.AsyncState; client.BeginReceive(_Callback, client); IPEndPoint ipRemote = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 8013); byte[] rgb = client.EndReceive(iar, ref ipRemote); Console.WriteLine("Received {0} bytes: \"{1}\"", rgb.Length.ToString(), Encoding.UTF8.GetString(rgb)); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { Console.WriteLine("closing listening socket"); } catch (Exception exc) { Console.WriteLine("Listening socket error: \"" + exc.Message + "\""); } } There are packets sent to the broadcast ipaddress (239.255.255.255) which I can see in Commview tool, but can't receive them from the code... Can anybody help me out please? Thanking you in advance, Prasad Kancharla.

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  • x86 CMP Instruction Difference

    - by Pindatjuh
    Question What is the (non-trivial) difference between the following two x86 instructions? 39 /r CMP r/m32,r32 Compare r32 with r/m32 3B /r CMP r32,r/m32 Compare r/m32 with r32 Background I'm building a Java assembler, which will be used by my compiler's intermediate language to produce Windows-32 executables. Currently I have following code: final ModelBase mb = new ModelBase(); // create new memory model mb.addCode(new Compare(Register.ECX, Register.EAX)); // add code mb.addCode(new Compare(Register.EAX, Register.ECX)); // add code final FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(new File("test.exe")); mb.writeToFile(fos); fos.close(); To output a valid executable file, which contains two CMP instruction in a TEXT-section. The executable outputted to "text.exe" will do nothing interesting, but that's not the point. The class Compare is a wrapper around the CMP instruction. The above code produces (inspecting with OllyDbg): Address Hex dump Command 0040101F |. 3BC8 CMP ECX,EAX 00401021 |. 3BC1 CMP EAX,ECX The difference is subtle: if I use the 39 byte-opcode: Address Hex dump Command 0040101F |. 39C1 CMP ECX,EAX 00401021 |. 39C8 CMP EAX,ECX Which makes me wonder about their synonymity and why this even exists.

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  • Shell script to emulate warnings-as-errors?

    - by talkaboutquality
    Some compilers let you set warnings as errors, so that you'll never leave any compiler warnings behind, because if you do, the code won't build. This is a Good Thing. Unfortunately, some compilers don't have a flag for warnings-as-errors. I need to write a shell script or wrapper that provides the feature. Presumably it parses the compilation console output and returns failure if there were any compiler warnings (or errors), and success otherwise. "Failure" also means (I think) that object code should not be produced. What's the shortest, simplest UNIX/Linux shell script you can write that meets the explicit requirements above, as well as the following implicit requirements of otherwise behaving just like the compiler: - accepts all flags, options, arguments - supports redirection of stdout and stderr - produces object code and links as directed Key words: elegant, meets all requirements. Extra credit: easy to incorporate into a GNU make file. Thanks for your help. === Clues === This solution to a different problem, using shell functions (?), Append text to stderr redirects in bash, might figure in. Wonder how to invite litb's friend "who knows bash quite well" to address my question? === Answer status === Thanks to Charlie Martin for the short answer, but that, unfortunately, is what I started out with. A while back I used that, released it for office use, and, within a few hours, had its most severe drawback pointed out to me: it will PASS a compilation with no warnings, but only errors. That's really bad because then we're delivering object code that the compiler is sure won't work. The simple solution also doesn't meet the other requirements listed. Thanks to Adam Rosenfield for the shorthand, and Chris Dodd for introducing pipefail to the solution. Chris' answer looks closest, because I think the pipefail should ensure that if compilation actually fails on error, that we'll get failure as we should. Chris, does pipefail work in all shells? And have any ideas on the rest of the implicit requirements listed above?

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  • Call dll - pcshll32.dll using delphi

    - by Davis
    Hi, I need to call hllapi function of pcshll32.dll using delphi. It's works with personal communications of ibm. How can i change the code bellow to delphi ? Thanks !!! The EHLLAPI entry point (hllapi) is always called with the following four parameters: EHLLAPI Function Number (input) Data Buffer (input/output) Buffer Length (input/output) Presentation Space Position (input); Return Code (output) The prototype for IBM Standard EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPWORD, LPSTR, LPWORD, LPWORD); The prototype for IBM Enhanced EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPINT, LPSTR, LPINT, LPINT); Each parameter is passed by reference not by value. Thus each parameter to the function call must be a pointer to the value, not the value itself. For example, the following is a correct example of calling the EHLLAPI Query Session Status function: #include "hapi_c.h" struct HLDQuerySessionStatus QueryData; int Func, Len, Rc; long Rc; memset(QueryData, 0, sizeof(QueryData)); // Init buffer QueryData.qsst_shortname = ©A©; // Session to query Func = HA_QUERY_SESSION_STATUS; // Function number Len = sizeof(QueryData); // Len of buffer Rc = 0; // Unused on input hllapi(&Func, (char *)&QueryData, &Len, &Rc); // Call EHLLAPI if (Rc != 0) { // Check return code // ...Error handling } All the parameters in the hllapi call are pointers and the return code of the EHLLAPI function is returned in the value of the 4th parameter, not as the value of the function.

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  • ajax call to servlet puzzler

    - by vector
    Greetings! I'm having a problem getting a text value of a captcha from a servlet through ajax call. When my captcha gets created, its text value is written to session, but after refreshing the image itself though ajax call, I only get one old value of the text. Refreshing the image itself works ok, but I'm stuck getting the correct values from the session on subsequent call. On page reload I get both the new image and its new text value, no joy with ajax though. This works great for the image refresh: $("#asos").attr("src", "/ImageServlet?="+((new Date()).getTime()) ) This call to another method to get text value gives me old stuff: $.ajax({ url:"checkCaptcha", type:"GET", cache: false, success: function( data) { alert(data); } }); Any feedback will be appreciated. ps: here's the meat of the method getting the call: PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); response.setDateHeader("Expires", 0 ); // Set standard HTTP/1.1 no-cache headers. response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); // Set IE extended HTTP/1.1 no-cache headers (use addHeader). response.addHeader("Cache-Control", "post-check=0, pre-check=0"); // Set standard HTTP/1.0 no-cache header. response.setHeader("Pragma", "no-cache"); out.print( request.getSession( ).getAttribute("randomPixValue") ); out.close();

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  • Problem parsing an atom feed using simplexml_load_file(), can't get an attribute.

    - by Craig Ward
    Hi, I am trying to create a social timeline. I pull in feeds form certain places so I have a timeline of thing I have done. The problem I am having is with Google reader Shared Items. I want to get the time at which I shared the item which is contained in <entry gr:crawl-timestamp-msec="1269088723811"> Trying to get the element using $date = $xml->entry[$i]->link->attributes()->gr:crawl-timestamp-msec; fails because of the : after gr which causes a PHP error. I could figure out how to get the element, so thought I would change the name using the code below but it throws the following error Warning: simplexml_load_file() [function.simplexml-load-file]: I/O warning : failed to load external entity "<?xml version="1.0"?><feed xmlns:idx="urn:atom-extension:indexing" xmlns:media="http://search.yahoo.com/mrss/" xmlns <?php $get_feed = file_get_contents('http://www.google.com/reader/public/atom/user/03120403612393553979/state/com.google/broadcast'); $old = "gr:crawl-timestamp-msec"; $new = "timestamp"; $xml_file = str_replace($old, $new, $get_feed); $xml = simplexml_load_file($xml_file); $i = 0; foreach ($xml->entry as $value) { $id = $xml->entry[$i]->id; $date = date('Y-m-d H:i:s', strtotime($xml->entry[$i]->attributes()->timestamp )); $text = $xml->entry[$i]->title; $link = $xml->entry[$i]->link->attributes()->href; $source = "googleshared"; echo "date = $date<br />"; $sql="INSERT IGNORE INTO timeline (id,date,text,link, source) VALUES ('$id', '$date', '$text', '$link', '$source')"; mysql_query($sql); $i++; }` Could someone point me in the right direction please. Cheers Craig

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  • SimpleDOM sortedXPath date sorting works on localhost but not on remote server.

    - by Imminent
    Here's what i'm trying to do: 1) Take a basic XML page (data.xml) 2) Load it with simpleDOM 3) Use simpleDOM sortedXPath to sort all XML items by their pubDate 4) Display sorted output Here is the code I currently have. My code below outputs exactly what I need when run it on my localhost (XAMPP w/PHP 5.3) but on my remote server (which has at least PHP 5.0+) all is lost and a completely blank page is output. It will output the $xml array with print_r though. Here is my code: <?php include('SimpleDOM.php'); $xml = simpledom_load_file('data.xml'); $dateformat = "D j M, g:ia"; /* print_r($xml); <-array will output on remote server if put here, but alas nothing else beyond this point */ /*Output First 5 items sorted by pubDate*/ foreach($xml->channel->sortedXPath('item','pubDate', SORT_DESC) as $i => $item){ if ($i > 4){ break; } print "<p>This Weeks Deal:<strong> ".$item->title."</strong></p>"; print $item->description; print "<p>Date Posted:<strong> ".date($dateformat, strtotime($item->pubDate))."</strong></p>"; } ?> Like I said, this code seems to work great on my localhost... but not being able to run it on my remote server is making me crazy. Any ideas ?? Any help will be far beyond appreciated.

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  • How to reliably send a request cross domain and cross browser on page unload

    - by Agmin
    I have javascript code that's loaded by 3rd parties. The javascript keeps track of a number of metrics, and when a user exits the page I'd like to send the metrics back to my server. Due to XSS checks in some browsers, like IE, I cannot do a simple jquery.ajax() call. Instead, I'm appending an image src to the page with jquery. Here's the code, cased by browser: function record_metrics() { //Arbitrary code execution here to set test_url $esajquery('#MainDiv').append("<img src='" + test_url + "' />"); } if ($esajquery.browser.msie) { window.onbeforeunload = function() { record_metrics(); } } else { $esajquery(window).unload( function(){ record_metrics(); } ); } FF aborts the request to "test_url" if I use window.onbeforeunload, and IE8 doesn't work with jquery's unload(). IE8 also fails to work if the arbitrary test_url setting code is too long, although IE8 seems to work fine if the is immediately appended to the DOM. Is there a better way to solve this issue? Unfortunately this really needs to execute when a user leaves the page.

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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • choosing row (from group) with max value in a SQL Server Database

    - by sriehl
    I have a large database and am putting together a report of the data. I have aggregated and summed the data from many tables to get two tables that look like the following. id | code | value id | code | value 13 | AA | 0.5 13 | AC | 2.0 13 | AB | 1.0 14 | AB | 1.5 14 | AA | 2.0 13 | AA | 0.5 15 | AB | 0.5 15 | AB | 3.0 15 | AD | 1.5 15 | AA | 1.0 I need to get a list of id's, with the code (sumed from both tables) with the largest value. 13 | AC 14 | AA 15 | AB There are 4-6 thousand records and it is not possible to change the original tables. I'm not too worried about performance as I only need to run it a few times a year. edit: Let me see if I can explain a bit more clearly, imagine the id is the customer id, the code is who they ordered from and the value is how much they spent there. I need a list of the all the customer id's and the store that customer spent the most money at (and if they spent the same at two different stores, put a value such as 'ZZ' in for the store name).

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  • Why is my addSubview: method causing a leak?

    - by Nathan
    Okay, so I have done a ton of research on this and have been pulling my hair out for days trying to figure out why the following code leaks: [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; UIImage *comicImage = [self getCachedImage:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@%@",@"http://url/",comicNumber,@".png"]]; self.imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:comicImage] autorelease]; [self.scrollView addSubview:self.imageView]; self.scrollView.contentSize = self.imageView.frame.size; self.imageWidth = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",imageView.frame.size.width]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; Both self.imageView and self.scrollView are @propety (nonatomic, retain) and released in my dealloc.. imageView isn't used anywhere else in the code. This code is also run in a thread off of the main thread. If I run this code on my device, it will quickly run out of memory if I continually load this view. However, I've found if I comment out the following line: [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; UIImage *comicImage = [self getCachedImage:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@%@",@"http://url/",comicNumber,@".png"]]; self.imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:comicImage] autorelease]; //[self.scrollView addSubview:self.imageView]; self.scrollView.contentSize = self.imageView.frame.size; self.imageWidth = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",imageView.frame.size.width]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; Memory usage becomes stable, no matter how many times I load the view. I have gone over everything I can think to see why this is leaking, but as far as I can tell I have all my releases straight. Can anyone see what I am missing?

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  • Strange C++ performance difference?

    - by STingRaySC
    I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

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  • Anyone got a nifty credit expiry algorithm?

    - by garethkeenan
    Our website uses a credit system to allow users to purchase inexpensive digital goods (eg. photos). We use credits, rather than asking the user to pay for items individually, because the items are cheap and we are trying to keep our credit-card/PayPal overhead low. Because we aren't a bank, we have to expire credits after a certain amount of time. We expire deposit credits after a year, but other types of credits (bonuses, prizes, refunds) may have a different shelf-life. When a buyer buys an item, we spend the credit that is going to expire first. Our current system keeps track of every deposit by storing the original value and the remainder to be spent. We keep a list of all purchases as well, of course. I am currently moving to a system which is much more like a traditional double-entry accounting system. A deposit will create a ledger item, increasing the user's 'spending' account balance. Every purchase will also create a ledger item, decreasing the user's 'spending' account balance. The new system has running balances, while the old system does not, which greatly improves our ability to find problems and do reconciliations. We do not want to use the old system of keeping a 'remainder' value attached to each deposit record because it is inefficient to replay a user's activities to calculate what the remainder of each deposit is over time (for the user's statement). So, after all of this verbose introduction, my question is "Does anyone else out there have a similar system of expiring credits?" If you could describe how you calculate expired credits it would be a great help. If all expired credits had the exact same shelf life, we would be able to calculate the expired amount using: Total Deposits - Total Spending - Deposits Not Due To Expire = Amount to Expire However, because deposits can have different shelf lives, this formula does not work because more than one deposit can be partially spent at any given time.

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  • Can't change pivot table's Access data source - bug in Excel 2000 SP3?

    - by Ron West
    I have a set of Excel 2000 SP3 worksheets that have Pivot Tables that get data from an Access 2000 SP3 database created by a contractor who left our company. Unfortunately, he did all his work on his private area on the company (Novell) network and now that he has left us, the drive spec has been deleted and is invalid. We were able to get the database files restored to our network area by our IT Service Desk people, but we now have to re-link everything to point to our group area instead of the now-nonexistent private area. If I follow the advice given elsewhere on this site (open wizard, click 'Back' to get to 'Step 2 of 3', click 'Get Data...' I get a message that the old filespec is an invalid path and I need to check that the path name is invalid and that I am connected to the server on which the file resides. I then click on OK and get a Login dialog with a 'Database...' button on the right. I click this and get a 'Select Database' dialog which allows me to choose the appropriate database in its correct new location. I then click OK, which takes me back to the 'Login' screen. I can confirm that it has accepted my new location by clicking on 'Database...' as before and the NEW location is still shown. So far so good - but if I then click on OK I get two unhelpful messages - first I get one saying that Excel 'Could not use '|'; file already in use.' - although no other files are in use. Clicking on OK takes me back to the 'Login' dialog. Clicking OK again gives me the same message as before telling me that the OLD filespec is invalid (as if I hadn't changed anything) - but clicking on the 'Database...' button shows that the correct (NEW) database location is still selected. Can anyone tell me a way of using VBA to change the link information without having to spend hours fighting the PivotTable Wizard - preferably similar to this way you update an Access Tabledef:- db.TableDefs(strLinkName).Connect = strNewLink db.TableDefs(strLinkName).RefreshLink Thanks!

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  • Can I indicate where my MySQL parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the

    - by Paul H
    I've got a chunk of code where I can pass info into a MySQL command using parameters through an ODBC connection. Example code showing surname passed in using string surnameToLookFor: using (OdbcConnection DbConn = new OdbcConnection( connectToDB )) { OdbcDataAdapter cmd = new OdbcDataAdapter( "SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?", DbConn); OdbcParameter odbcParam = new OdbcParameter("surname", surnameToLookFor); cmd.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(odbcParam); cmd.Fill(dsCustomers, "customers"); } What I'd like to know is whether I can indicate where my parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the position - as I could see this getting quite hard to debug if there are multiple parameters being replaced. I'd like to provide a name to the parameter in a manner something like this: SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?surname ", When I try this it just chokes. The following code public System.Data.DataSet Customer_Open(string sConnString, long ld) { using (MySqlConnection oConn = new MySqlConnection(sConnString)) { oConn.Open(); MySqlCommand oCommand = oConn.CreateCommand(); oCommand.CommandText = "select * from cust_customer where id=?id"; MySqlParameter oParam = oCommand.Parameters.Add("?id", MySqlDbType.Int32); oParam.Value = ld; oCommand.Connection = oConn; DataSet oDataSet = new DataSet(); MySqlDataAdapter oAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(); oAdapter.SelectCommand = oCommand; oAdapter.Fill(oDataSet); oConn.Close(); return oDataSet; } } is from http://www.programmingado.net/a-389/MySQL-NET-parameters-in-query.aspx and includes the fragment where id=?id Which would be ideal. Is this only available through the .Net connector rather than the ODBC? If it is possible to do using ODBC how would I need to change my code fragment to enable this?

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