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  • SSIS 2005 Error while using script component Designer: "Cannot fetch a row from OLE DB provider "BUL

    - by user150541
    I am trying to debug a dts package in SSIS. I have a script component designer where I pass in the input variables to increment a counter. When I try to msgbox the counter value, I get the following error. Error: 0xC0202009 at STAGING1 to STAGING2, STAGING2 Destination [1056]: An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Cannot fetch a row from OLE DB provider "BULK" for linked server "(null)".". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "The OLE DB provider "BULK" for linked server "(null)" reported an error. The provider did not give any information about the error.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Reading from DTS buffer timed out.". Below is the part of the code within the script component designer : Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.Math Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline.Wrapper Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime.Wrapper Public Class ScriptMain Inherits UserComponent Dim iCounter As Integer Dim iCurrentVal As Integer Dim sCurrentOracleSeq As String Dim sSeqName As String Dim sSeqAltProcName As String Public Overrides Sub Input0_ProcessInputRow(ByVal Row As Input0Buffer) ' ' Add your code here ' Row.SEQIDNCASE = iCounter + iCurrentVal iCounter += 1 MsgBox(iCounter + iCurrentVal, MsgBoxStyle.Information, "Input0") End Sub Public Overrides Sub PreExecute() sCurrentOracleSeq = Me.Variables.VSEQIDCurVal iCurrentVal = CInt(sCurrentOracleSeq) MsgBox(iCurrentVal, MsgBoxStyle.Information, "No Title") iCounter = 0 sSeqName = Me.Variables.VSEQIDName sSeqAltProcName = Me.Variables.VSEQIDAlterProc End Sub Public Overrides Sub PostExecute() Me.Variables.VSEQIDUpdateSQL = "Begin " & sSeqAltProcName & "('" & sSeqName & "'," & (iCounter + iCurrentVal) & "); End;" End Sub End Class Note that the above part of code works perfectly fine if I comment out the lines that has Msgbox.

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  • Fluent config not generating mapping files

    - by rboarman
    Hello, I am trying to get Fluent nHibernate to generate mappings so I can take a look at the files and the sql. My code is based on this post and on what I can glean from the documentation. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1375146/fluent-mapping-entities-and-classmaps-in-different-assemblies I am using the latest code from git. Here’s my config code: Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); var ft = Fluently.Configure(cfg); //DbConnection by fluent ft.Database ( MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ConnectionString("……") .ShowSql() .UseReflectionOptimizer() ); //get mapping files. ft.Mappings(m => { //set up the mapping locations m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"C:\temp"); m.Apply(cfg); }); I also tried: var sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ShowSql() .ConnectionString(“……")) .Mappings(p => p.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"c:\temp\")) .BuildSessionFactory(); I have verified that the connection string is correct. The issue is that no mapping files show up in the ExportTo folder and no sql code shows up in the output window or in the log file. No errors or exceptions are generated either. I have no idea where to go from here. Thank you in advance. Rick

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

    - by Mad Halfling
    Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

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  • XMLBeans - xsi:type stripped using Axis2 and Tomcat?

    - by Matthew Gamble
    I’m new to XMLBeans and have been trying to use it to create an XML document as part of an axis2 web service. When I run my code as a standard Java application or as a standard servlet, the XML is correctly generated: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command xsi:type="AuthenticationRequest" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> However, when the exact same code is run under Axis2 & Tomcat in a servlet I get: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> This of course isn’t valid – the xsi:type of the “command” element is stripped when the code is run under Tomcat. Does anyone have any suggestions of what I could be doing wrong that would cause this type of issue only when running under Axis2? At first I thought it was a Tomcat issue, but after creating a generic servlet and running the exact same code I don't have any issues. I've tried playing with the XMLOptions for XMLBeans, but couldn't seem to resolve the problem. The options I'm currently using are: xmlOptions = new XmlOptions(); xmlOptions.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8"); xmlOptions.setUseDefaultNamespace(); xmlOptions.setSaveAggressiveNamespaces(); xmlOptions.setSavePrettyPrint();

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  • Problem in cropping the UIImage using CGContext?

    - by Rajendra Bhole
    Hi, I developing the simple UIApplication in which i want to crop the UIImage (in .jpg format) with help of CGContext. The developed code till now as follows, CGImageRef graphicOriginalImage = [originalImage.image CGImage]; UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(originalImage.image.size); CGContextRef ctx = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGBitmapContextCreateImage(graphicOriginalImage); CGFloat fltW = originalImage.image.size.width; CGFloat fltH = originalImage.image.size.height; CGFloat X = round(fltW/4); CGFloat Y =round(fltH/4); CGFloat width = round(X + (fltW/2)); CGFloat height = round(Y + (fltH/2)); CGContextTranslateCTM(ctx, 0, image.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(ctx, 1.0, -1.0); CGRect rect = CGRectMake(X,Y ,width ,height); CGContextDrawImage(ctx, rect, graphicOriginalImage); croppedImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); return croppedImage; } The above code is worked fine but it can't crop image. The original image memory and cropped image memory i will got same(equal to original image memory). The above code is right for cropping the image?????????????????? How i cropping the image (in behind pixels should also be crop) from the center of the image???????????? I already wasting a lot of time for developing the above code , but i didn't get answer or way to find out how to crop the image.Thanks for sending me answer in advanced.

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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • How to temporarily replace one primitive type with another when compiling to different targets in c#

    - by Keith
    How to easily/quickly replace float's for doubles (for example) for compiling to two different targets using these two particular choices of primitive types? Discussion: I have a large amount of c# code under development that I need to compile to alternatively use float, double or decimals depending on the use case of the target assembly. Using something like “class MYNumber : Double” so that it is only necessary to change one line of code does not work as Double is sealed, and obviously there is no #define in C#. Peppering the code with #if #else statements is also not an option, there is just too much supporting Math operators/related code using these particular primitive types. I am at a loss on how to do this apparently simple task, thanks! Edit: Just a quick comment in relation to boxing mentioned in Kyles reply: Unfortunately I need to avoid boxing, mainly since float's are being chosen when maximum speed is required, and decimals when maximum accuracy is the priority (and taking the 20x+ performance hit is acceptable). Boxing would probably rules out decimals as a valid choice and defeat the purpose somewhat. Edit2: For reference, those suggesting generics as a possible answer to this question note that there are many issues which count generics out (at least for our needs). For an overview and further references see Using generics for calculations

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  • Why does IIS respond to a secure(SSL) page request with a 302 to its non-secure version?

    - by ISawrub
    I have SSL installed at the root of a server. I have a page whose code behind code is supposed to redirect after certain validation to a secure page. Here's the redirect code: switch (PageBase2.GetParameterValue("Environment")) //Retrieves App Setting named Environment from web.config { case "Server": strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; case "Local": strURL = @"http://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; default: strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; } Response.Redirect(strURL, false); But the page that's been served by IIS is non-secure. I looked at the firebug console and it appears that the client does make a get request to https://server/checkout/payment.aspx but IIS responds with a 302 to http://server/checkout/payment.aspx Any clues, as to what could be causing it. I've even tried forcing SSL for the page, but it doesn't work I get 403.4 error. (SSL is required to view this resource.) And if i remove the redirection logic and code the payment page to redirect to its SSL version when the connection is not secure using Request.IsSecureConnection, i end up with an endless redirect loop, simply because IIS still won't serve the secure version without a 302. Any ideas?

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  • NULL value when using NSDateFormatter after setting NSDate property via XML parsing

    - by David A Gibson
    Hello, I am using the following code to try and display in a time in a table cell. TimeSlot *timeSlot = [timeSlots objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSDateFormatter *timeFormat = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [timeFormat setDateFormat:@"HH:mm:ss"]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", timeSlot.time); NSDate *mydate = timeSlot.time; NSLog(@"Time: %@", mydate); NSString *theTime = [timeFormat stringFromDate:mydate]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", theTime); The log output is this: 2010-04-14 10:23:54.626 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: (null) I am new to developing for the iPhone and as it all compiles with no errors or warnings I am at a loss as to why I am getting NULL in the log. Is there anything wrong with this code? Thanks Further Info I used the code exactly from your answer lugte098 just to check and I was getting dates which leads me to believe that my TimeSlot class can't have a date correctly set in it's NSDate property. So my question becomes - how from XML do I set a NSDate property? I have this code (abbreviated): -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *) string { if ([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Time"]) { currentTimeSlot.time = string } } Thanks

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  • Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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  • C# Windows Service

    - by Goober
    Scenario I've created a windows service, but whenever I start it, it stops immediately. The service was concieved from a console application that used to subscribe to an event and watch processes on a server. If anything happened to process (i.e. It was killed), then the event would trigger the process to be restarted. The reason I'm telling you this is because the original code used to look like this: Original Console App Code: static void Main(string[] args) { StartProcess sp = new StartProcess(); //Note the readline that means the application sits here waiting for an event! Console.ReadLine(); } Now that this code has been turned into a Windows Service, it is essentially EXACTLY THE SAME. However, the service does not sit there waiting, even with the readline, it just ends..... New Windows Service Code: protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { ProcessMonitor pm = new ProcessMonitor(); Console.ReadLine(); } Thoughts Since the functionality is entirely encapsulated within this single class (It quite literally starts, sets up some events and waits) - How can I get the service to actually sit there and just wait? It seems to be ignoring the readline. However this works perfectly as a console application, it is just far more convenient to have it as a service.

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  • Invoking WCF service from Javascript

    - by KhanS
    I have a asp.net web application, and have some java script code in it. While calling the service I am getting the exception Service1 is undefined. Below is my code. Service: namespace WebApplication2 { // NOTE: You can use the "Rename" command on the "Refactor" menu to change the interface name "IService1" in both code and config file together. [ServiceContract(Namespace="WCFServices")] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string HelloWorld(); } } Implementation namespace WebApplication2 { // NOTE: You can use the "Rename" command on the "Refactor" menu to change the class name "Service1" in code, svc and config file together. [ServiceBehavior(IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class Service1 : IService1 { public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello world from service"; } } } ASPX page: <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="QNAScriptManager" runat="server"> <Services> <asp:ServiceReference Path="~/Service1.svc" /> </Services> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="~/Scripts/Questions.js" /> </Scripts> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> Java Script var ServiceProxy; function pageLoad() { ServiceProxy = new Service1(); ServiceProxy.set_defaultSucceededCallback(SucceededCallback); } function GetString() { ServiceProxy.HelloWorld(); } function SucceededCallback(result, userContext, methodName) { var RsltElem = document.getElementById("Results"); RsltElem.innerHTML = result + " from " + methodName + "."; alert("Msg received from service"); }

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  • Shell script to emulate warnings-as-errors?

    - by talkaboutquality
    Some compilers let you set warnings as errors, so that you'll never leave any compiler warnings behind, because if you do, the code won't build. This is a Good Thing. Unfortunately, some compilers don't have a flag for warnings-as-errors. I need to write a shell script or wrapper that provides the feature. Presumably it parses the compilation console output and returns failure if there were any compiler warnings (or errors), and success otherwise. "Failure" also means (I think) that object code should not be produced. What's the shortest, simplest UNIX/Linux shell script you can write that meets the explicit requirements above, as well as the following implicit requirements of otherwise behaving just like the compiler: - accepts all flags, options, arguments - supports redirection of stdout and stderr - produces object code and links as directed Key words: elegant, meets all requirements. Extra credit: easy to incorporate into a GNU make file. Thanks for your help. === Clues === This solution to a different problem, using shell functions (?), Append text to stderr redirects in bash, might figure in. Wonder how to invite litb's friend "who knows bash quite well" to address my question? === Answer status === Thanks to Charlie Martin for the short answer, but that, unfortunately, is what I started out with. A while back I used that, released it for office use, and, within a few hours, had its most severe drawback pointed out to me: it will PASS a compilation with no warnings, but only errors. That's really bad because then we're delivering object code that the compiler is sure won't work. The simple solution also doesn't meet the other requirements listed. Thanks to Adam Rosenfield for the shorthand, and Chris Dodd for introducing pipefail to the solution. Chris' answer looks closest, because I think the pipefail should ensure that if compilation actually fails on error, that we'll get failure as we should. Chris, does pipefail work in all shells? And have any ideas on the rest of the implicit requirements listed above?

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  • Linux Kernel - Red/Black Trees

    - by CodeRanger
    I'm trying to implement a red/black tree in Linux per task_struct using code from linux/rbtree.h. I can get a red/black tree inserting properly in a standalone space in the kernel such as a module but when I try to get the same code to function with the rb_root declared in either task_struct or task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT everytime I try an insert. Here's some code: In task_struct I create a rb_root struct for my tree (not a pointer). In init_task.h, macro INIT_TASK(tsk), I set this equal to RB_ROOT. To do an insert, I use this code: rb_insert(&(current-fd_tree), &rbnode); This is where the issue occurs. My insert command is the standard insert that is documented in all RBTree documentation for the kernel: int my_insert(struct rb_root *root, struct mytype *data) { struct rb_node **new = &(root->rb_node), *parent = NULL; /* Figure out where to put new node */ while (*new) { struct mytype *this = container_of(*new, struct mytype, node); int result = strcmp(data->keystring, this->keystring); parent = *new; if (result < 0) new = &((*new)->rb_left); else if (result > 0) new = &((*new)->rb_right); else return FALSE; } /* Add new node and rebalance tree. */ rb_link_node(&data->node, parent, new); rb_insert_color(&data->node, root); return TRUE; } Is there something I'm missing? Some reason this would work fine if I made a tree root outside of task_struct? If I make rb_root inside of a module this insert works fine. But once I put the actual tree root in the task_struct or even in the task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT. Can a root node not be added in these structs? Any tips are greatly appreciated. I've tried nearly everything I can think of.

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  • How to reliably send a request cross domain and cross browser on page unload

    - by Agmin
    I have javascript code that's loaded by 3rd parties. The javascript keeps track of a number of metrics, and when a user exits the page I'd like to send the metrics back to my server. Due to XSS checks in some browsers, like IE, I cannot do a simple jquery.ajax() call. Instead, I'm appending an image src to the page with jquery. Here's the code, cased by browser: function record_metrics() { //Arbitrary code execution here to set test_url $esajquery('#MainDiv').append("<img src='" + test_url + "' />"); } if ($esajquery.browser.msie) { window.onbeforeunload = function() { record_metrics(); } } else { $esajquery(window).unload( function(){ record_metrics(); } ); } FF aborts the request to "test_url" if I use window.onbeforeunload, and IE8 doesn't work with jquery's unload(). IE8 also fails to work if the arbitrary test_url setting code is too long, although IE8 seems to work fine if the is immediately appended to the DOM. Is there a better way to solve this issue? Unfortunately this really needs to execute when a user leaves the page.

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  • Receiving broadcast messages

    - by Prasad
    Hi, I'm trying to receive broadcast messages using C# code in an ISDN network with BRI interface at my end. I see the packets sent to the broadcast ip address (239.255.255.255) on some ports using Comm View tool. But when I try to listen to this IP address, it says the address is not in a valid context. But when I send broadcast messages to 255.255.255.255 on a port, I can receive those messages with the below code.. What could be the problem with this ip address - 239.255.255.255 ? The code I use to listen to broadcast messages is.. UdpClient udp = new UdpClient(); IPEndPoint receiveEndPoint = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 8013); // If I use IPAddress.Parse("239.255.255.255") to listen to, // it says "the address is not in a valid // context." udp.Client.Bind(receiveEndPoint); udp.BeginReceive(_Callback, udp); static private void _Callback(IAsyncResult iar) { try { UdpClient client = (UdpClient)iar.AsyncState; client.BeginReceive(_Callback, client); IPEndPoint ipRemote = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 8013); byte[] rgb = client.EndReceive(iar, ref ipRemote); Console.WriteLine("Received {0} bytes: \"{1}\"", rgb.Length.ToString(), Encoding.UTF8.GetString(rgb)); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { Console.WriteLine("closing listening socket"); } catch (Exception exc) { Console.WriteLine("Listening socket error: \"" + exc.Message + "\""); } } There are packets sent to the broadcast ipaddress (239.255.255.255) which I can see in Commview tool, but can't receive them from the code... Can anybody help me out please? Thanking you in advance, Prasad Kancharla.

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  • x86 CMP Instruction Difference

    - by Pindatjuh
    Question What is the (non-trivial) difference between the following two x86 instructions? 39 /r CMP r/m32,r32 Compare r32 with r/m32 3B /r CMP r32,r/m32 Compare r/m32 with r32 Background I'm building a Java assembler, which will be used by my compiler's intermediate language to produce Windows-32 executables. Currently I have following code: final ModelBase mb = new ModelBase(); // create new memory model mb.addCode(new Compare(Register.ECX, Register.EAX)); // add code mb.addCode(new Compare(Register.EAX, Register.ECX)); // add code final FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(new File("test.exe")); mb.writeToFile(fos); fos.close(); To output a valid executable file, which contains two CMP instruction in a TEXT-section. The executable outputted to "text.exe" will do nothing interesting, but that's not the point. The class Compare is a wrapper around the CMP instruction. The above code produces (inspecting with OllyDbg): Address Hex dump Command 0040101F |. 3BC8 CMP ECX,EAX 00401021 |. 3BC1 CMP EAX,ECX The difference is subtle: if I use the 39 byte-opcode: Address Hex dump Command 0040101F |. 39C1 CMP ECX,EAX 00401021 |. 39C8 CMP EAX,ECX Which makes me wonder about their synonymity and why this even exists.

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  • Strange C++ performance difference?

    - by STingRaySC
    I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

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  • choosing row (from group) with max value in a SQL Server Database

    - by sriehl
    I have a large database and am putting together a report of the data. I have aggregated and summed the data from many tables to get two tables that look like the following. id | code | value id | code | value 13 | AA | 0.5 13 | AC | 2.0 13 | AB | 1.0 14 | AB | 1.5 14 | AA | 2.0 13 | AA | 0.5 15 | AB | 0.5 15 | AB | 3.0 15 | AD | 1.5 15 | AA | 1.0 I need to get a list of id's, with the code (sumed from both tables) with the largest value. 13 | AC 14 | AA 15 | AB There are 4-6 thousand records and it is not possible to change the original tables. I'm not too worried about performance as I only need to run it a few times a year. edit: Let me see if I can explain a bit more clearly, imagine the id is the customer id, the code is who they ordered from and the value is how much they spent there. I need a list of the all the customer id's and the store that customer spent the most money at (and if they spent the same at two different stores, put a value such as 'ZZ' in for the store name).

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  • SimpleDOM sortedXPath date sorting works on localhost but not on remote server.

    - by Imminent
    Here's what i'm trying to do: 1) Take a basic XML page (data.xml) 2) Load it with simpleDOM 3) Use simpleDOM sortedXPath to sort all XML items by their pubDate 4) Display sorted output Here is the code I currently have. My code below outputs exactly what I need when run it on my localhost (XAMPP w/PHP 5.3) but on my remote server (which has at least PHP 5.0+) all is lost and a completely blank page is output. It will output the $xml array with print_r though. Here is my code: <?php include('SimpleDOM.php'); $xml = simpledom_load_file('data.xml'); $dateformat = "D j M, g:ia"; /* print_r($xml); <-array will output on remote server if put here, but alas nothing else beyond this point */ /*Output First 5 items sorted by pubDate*/ foreach($xml->channel->sortedXPath('item','pubDate', SORT_DESC) as $i => $item){ if ($i > 4){ break; } print "<p>This Weeks Deal:<strong> ".$item->title."</strong></p>"; print $item->description; print "<p>Date Posted:<strong> ".date($dateformat, strtotime($item->pubDate))."</strong></p>"; } ?> Like I said, this code seems to work great on my localhost... but not being able to run it on my remote server is making me crazy. Any ideas ?? Any help will be far beyond appreciated.

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  • Call dll - pcshll32.dll using delphi

    - by Davis
    Hi, I need to call hllapi function of pcshll32.dll using delphi. It's works with personal communications of ibm. How can i change the code bellow to delphi ? Thanks !!! The EHLLAPI entry point (hllapi) is always called with the following four parameters: EHLLAPI Function Number (input) Data Buffer (input/output) Buffer Length (input/output) Presentation Space Position (input); Return Code (output) The prototype for IBM Standard EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPWORD, LPSTR, LPWORD, LPWORD); The prototype for IBM Enhanced EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPINT, LPSTR, LPINT, LPINT); Each parameter is passed by reference not by value. Thus each parameter to the function call must be a pointer to the value, not the value itself. For example, the following is a correct example of calling the EHLLAPI Query Session Status function: #include "hapi_c.h" struct HLDQuerySessionStatus QueryData; int Func, Len, Rc; long Rc; memset(QueryData, 0, sizeof(QueryData)); // Init buffer QueryData.qsst_shortname = ©A©; // Session to query Func = HA_QUERY_SESSION_STATUS; // Function number Len = sizeof(QueryData); // Len of buffer Rc = 0; // Unused on input hllapi(&Func, (char *)&QueryData, &Len, &Rc); // Call EHLLAPI if (Rc != 0) { // Check return code // ...Error handling } All the parameters in the hllapi call are pointers and the return code of the EHLLAPI function is returned in the value of the 4th parameter, not as the value of the function.

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  • Anyone got a nifty credit expiry algorithm?

    - by garethkeenan
    Our website uses a credit system to allow users to purchase inexpensive digital goods (eg. photos). We use credits, rather than asking the user to pay for items individually, because the items are cheap and we are trying to keep our credit-card/PayPal overhead low. Because we aren't a bank, we have to expire credits after a certain amount of time. We expire deposit credits after a year, but other types of credits (bonuses, prizes, refunds) may have a different shelf-life. When a buyer buys an item, we spend the credit that is going to expire first. Our current system keeps track of every deposit by storing the original value and the remainder to be spent. We keep a list of all purchases as well, of course. I am currently moving to a system which is much more like a traditional double-entry accounting system. A deposit will create a ledger item, increasing the user's 'spending' account balance. Every purchase will also create a ledger item, decreasing the user's 'spending' account balance. The new system has running balances, while the old system does not, which greatly improves our ability to find problems and do reconciliations. We do not want to use the old system of keeping a 'remainder' value attached to each deposit record because it is inefficient to replay a user's activities to calculate what the remainder of each deposit is over time (for the user's statement). So, after all of this verbose introduction, my question is "Does anyone else out there have a similar system of expiring credits?" If you could describe how you calculate expired credits it would be a great help. If all expired credits had the exact same shelf life, we would be able to calculate the expired amount using: Total Deposits - Total Spending - Deposits Not Due To Expire = Amount to Expire However, because deposits can have different shelf lives, this formula does not work because more than one deposit can be partially spent at any given time.

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  • Pros & Cons of Google App Engine

    - by Rishi
    Pros & Cons of Google App Engine [An Updated List 21st Aug 09] Help me Compile a List of all the Advantages & Disadvantages of Building an Application on the Google App Engine Pros: 1) No Need to buy Servers or Server Space (no maintenance). 2) Makes solving the problem of scaling much easier. Cons: 1) Locked into Google App Engine ?? 2)Developers have read-only access to the filesystem on App Engine. 3)App Engine can only execute code called from an HTTP request (except for scheduled background tasks). 4)Users may upload arbitrary Python modules, but only if they are pure-Python; C and Pyrex modules are not supported. 5)App Engine limits the maximum rows returned from an entity get to 1000 rows per Datastore call. 6)Java applications may only use a subset (The JRE Class White List) of the classes from the JRE standard edition. 7)Java applications cannot create new threads. Known Issues!! http://code.google.com/p/googleappengine/issues/list Hard limits Apps per developer - 10 Time per request - 30 sec Files per app - 3,000 HTTP response size - 10 MB Datastore item size - 1 MB Application code size - 150 MB Pro or Con? App Engine's infrastructure removes many of the system administration and development challenges of building applications to scale to millions of hits. Google handles deploying code to a cluster, monitoring, failover, and launching application instances as necessary. While other services let users install and configure nearly any *NIX compatible software, App Engine requires developers to use Python or Java as the programming language and a limited set of APIs. Current APIs allow storing and retrieving data from a BigTable non-relational database; making HTTP requests; sending e-mail; manipulating images; and caching. Most existing Web applications can't run on App Engine without modification, because they require a relational database.

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  • How can I effectively test against the Windows API?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'm still having issues justifying TDD to myself. As I have mentioned in other questions, 90% of the code I write does absolutely nothing but Call some Windows API functions and Print out the data returned from said functions. The time spent coming up with the fake data that the code needs to process under TDD is incredible -- I literally spend 5 times as much time coming up with the example data as I would spend just writing application code. Part of this problem is that often I'm programming against APIs with which I have little experience, which forces me to write small applications that show me how the real API behaves so that I can write effective fakes/mocks on top of that API. Writing implementation first is the opposite of TDD, but in this case it is unavoidable: I do not know how the real API behaves, so how on earth am I going to be able to create a fake implementation of the API without playing with it? I have read several books on the subject, including Kent Beck's Test Driven Development, By Example, and Michael Feathers' Working Effectively with Legacy Code, which seem to be gospel for TDD fanatics. Feathers' book comes close in the way it describes breaking out dependencies, but even then, the examples provided have one thing in common: The program under test obtains input from other parts of the program under test. My programs do not follow that pattern. Instead, the only input to the program itself is the system upon which it runs. How can one effectively employ TDD on such a project?

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  • Problem parsing an atom feed using simplexml_load_file(), can't get an attribute.

    - by Craig Ward
    Hi, I am trying to create a social timeline. I pull in feeds form certain places so I have a timeline of thing I have done. The problem I am having is with Google reader Shared Items. I want to get the time at which I shared the item which is contained in <entry gr:crawl-timestamp-msec="1269088723811"> Trying to get the element using $date = $xml->entry[$i]->link->attributes()->gr:crawl-timestamp-msec; fails because of the : after gr which causes a PHP error. I could figure out how to get the element, so thought I would change the name using the code below but it throws the following error Warning: simplexml_load_file() [function.simplexml-load-file]: I/O warning : failed to load external entity "<?xml version="1.0"?><feed xmlns:idx="urn:atom-extension:indexing" xmlns:media="http://search.yahoo.com/mrss/" xmlns <?php $get_feed = file_get_contents('http://www.google.com/reader/public/atom/user/03120403612393553979/state/com.google/broadcast'); $old = "gr:crawl-timestamp-msec"; $new = "timestamp"; $xml_file = str_replace($old, $new, $get_feed); $xml = simplexml_load_file($xml_file); $i = 0; foreach ($xml->entry as $value) { $id = $xml->entry[$i]->id; $date = date('Y-m-d H:i:s', strtotime($xml->entry[$i]->attributes()->timestamp )); $text = $xml->entry[$i]->title; $link = $xml->entry[$i]->link->attributes()->href; $source = "googleshared"; echo "date = $date<br />"; $sql="INSERT IGNORE INTO timeline (id,date,text,link, source) VALUES ('$id', '$date', '$text', '$link', '$source')"; mysql_query($sql); $i++; }` Could someone point me in the right direction please. Cheers Craig

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