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• Creating a Sharepoint Development Environment from an Existing Production Environment

  - by Starky

  I have very little experience using Sharepoint but a good amount using Visual Studio 2008, SQL Server 2005, Windows Server 2003 and IIS6. I need to create a development environment for a SharePoint 2007 system that will be used internally. The system is already deployed over two servers - one of the servers simply holds the database and everything else is on the other server. We are also using WSS 3.0. I have created a Virtual Machine with all the required software including a clean installation of SharePoint Server 2007 and I wish to use this single Virtual Machine as the development environment. Right now there are no custom assemblies being used on the production server as far as I am aware. There are 3 websites, one over port 80 for user accesss, one over a custom port for central administration, and one over another custom port. Not sure what the last one is for but my blank instance of Sharepoint on my Virtual Machine also has something similar. I attempted to use the STSADM tool to backup and restore these 3 sites from my production environment to my development environment and while the operations completed succesfully, the central administration site in my development environment acted strangely and I could not access port 80 - I did not seem to have correct credentials for it. I suspected that it would not have been so simple so could I please have advice on how to create my development environment so that I can use it to deploy updates to the production one.

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• why does windows authentication / impersonation fail on asp.net application with iis 7.5 / windows 7

  - by velvet sheen

  hi there; i'm troubleshooting why i cannot get past the login dialog on an asp.net site configured for windows authentication and impersonation. help me before i switch to os x development and objective-c i have an asp.net 2.0 application and i'm trying to deploy it on windows 7 with iis 7.5. i've created a new site, and bound it to localhost and a fully qualified domain name. the fqdn is in my hosts file, and is redirected to 127.0.0.1 the site is also running with an appdomain i created, with integrated pipeline mode, and the process model identity is set to ApplicationPoolIdentity. web.config includes the following: <trust level="High" /> <authentication mode="Windows" /> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> <identity impersonate="true"/> acl on the directory for the site is desperation set to everyone full control, the application pool virtual account (windows 7 thing) is set to full control on the physical directory for the site also. iis authentication has asp.net impersonation enabled, and windows authentication enabled. when i connect to the site as localhost, it permits me to get past the login prompt and the application loads without incident. when i connect to the site as the fqdn set in the host headers bindings for this site/ip/port, i cannot get past the login prompt. clicking cancel throws to a http 401.1 error page. why? thanks very much in advance.

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• Fluent NHibernate, dynamically change Table of mapping?

  - by Steffen

  Hello, with fluent nhibernate, is there a way to dynamically switch the table of a mapping at runtime? For example: public class XYClassMap : ClassMap<XY> { public XYClassMap( ) { Table("XYTable"); Id(d => d.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(d => d.Value); (...) Given that there are multiple plugins, each of them uses this one class, but they need to work with different tables. I am looking for something like this: public class XY { public string Tablename {get; set;} } public class XYClassMap : ClassMap<XY> { public XYClassMap( ) { Table(Tablename); Id(d => d.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(d => d.Value); (...) So every action method could work with the same class and only would need to set this one property "Tablename". Thanks for any help, Steffen

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• ORM Persistence by Reachability violates Aggregate Root Boundaries?

  - by Johannes Rudolph

  Most common ORMs implement persistence by reachability, either as the default object graph change tracking mechanism or an optional. Persistence by reachability means the ORM will check the aggregate roots object graph and determines wether any objects are (also indirectly) reachable that are not stored inside it's identity map (Linq2Sql) or don't have their identity column set (NHibernate). In NHibernate this corresponds to cascade="save-update", for Linq2Sql it is the only supported mechanism. They do both, however only implement it for the "add" side of things, objects removed from the aggregate roots graph must be marked for deletion explicitly. In a DDD context one would use a Repository per Aggregate Root. Objects inside an Aggregate Root may only hold references to other Aggregate Roots. Due to persistence by reachability it is possible this other root will be inserted in the database event though it's corresponding repository wasn't invoked at all! Consider the following two Aggregate Roots: Contract and Order. Request is part of the Contract Aggregate. The object graph looks like Contract->Request->Order. Each time a Contractor makes a request, a corresponding order is created. As this involves two different Aggregate Roots, this operation is encapsulated by a Service. //Unit Of Work begins Request r = ...; Contract c = ContractRepository.FindSingleByKey(1); Order o = OrderForRequest(r); // creates a new order aggregate r.Order = o; // associates the aggregates c.Request.Add(r); ContractRepository.SaveOrUpdate(c); // OrderAggregate is reachable and will be inserted Since this Operation happens in a Service, I could still invoke the OrderRepository manually, however I wouldn't be forced to!. Persistence by reachability is a very useful feature inside Aggregate Roots, however I see no way to enforce my Aggregate Boundaries.

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• Guidelines for using Merge task in SSIS

  - by thursdaysgeek

  I have a table with three fields, one an identity field, and I need to add some new records from a source that has the other two fields. I'm using SSIS, and I think I should use the merge tool, because one of the sources is not in the local database. But, I'm confused by the merge tool and the proper process. I have my one source (an Oracle table), and I get two fields, well_id and well_name, with a sort after, sorting by well_id. I have the destination table (sql server), and I'm also using that as a source. It has three fields: well_key (identity field), well_id, and well_name, and I then have a sort task, sorting on well_id. Both of those are input to my merge task. I was going to output to a temporary table, and then somehow get the new records back into the sql server table. Oracle Well SQL Well | | V V Sort Source Sort Well | | -------> Merge* <----------- | V Temp well table I suspect this isn't the best way to use this tool, however. What are the proper steps for a merge like this? One of my reasons for questioning this method is that my merge has an error, telling me that the "Merge Input 2" must be sorted, but its source is a sort task, so it IS sorted. Example data SQL Well (before merge) well_key well_id well_name 1 123 well k 2 292 well c 3 344 well t 5 439 well d Oracle Well well_id well_name 123 well k 292 well c 311 well y 344 well t 439 well d 532 well j SQL Well (after merge) well_key well_id well_name 1 123 well k 2 292 well c 3 344 well t 5 439 well d 6 311 well y 7 532 well j Would it be better to load my Oracle Well to a temporary local file, and then just use a sql insert statment on it?

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• Dynamics CRM Customer Portal Accelerator Installation

  - by saturdayplace

  (I've posted this question on the codeplex forums too, but have yet to get a response) I've got an on-premise installation of CRM and I'm trying to hook the portal to it. My connection string in web.config: <connectionStrings> <add name="Xrm" connectionString="Authentication Type=AD; Server=http://myserver:myport/MyOrgName; User ID=mydomain\crmwebuser; Password=thepassword" /> </connectionStrings> And my membership provider: <membership defaultProvider="CustomCRMProvider"> <providers> <add connectionStringName="Xrm" applicationName="/" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" minRequiredPasswordLength="1" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" name="CustomCRMProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider" /> </providers> </membership> Now, I'm super new to MS style web development, so please help me if I'm missing something. In Visual Studio 2010, when I go to Project ASP.NET Configuration it launches the Web Site Administration Tool. When I click the Security Tab there, I get the following error: There is a problem with your selected data store. This can be caused by an invalid server name or credentials, or by insufficient permission. It can also be caused by the role manager feature not being enabled. Click the button below to be redirected to a page where you can choose a new data store. The following message may help in diagnosing the problem: An error occurred while attempting to initialize a System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection object. The value that was provided for the connection string may be wrong, or it may contain an invalid syntax. Parameter name: connectionString I can't see what I'm doing wrong here. Does the user mydomain\crmwebuser need certain permissions in the SQL database, or somewhere else? edit: On the home page of the Web Site Administration Tool, I have the following: **Application**:/ **Current User Name**:MACHINENAME\USERACCOUNT Which is obviously a different set of credentials than mydomain\crmwebuser. Is this part of the problem?

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• Can I select 0 columns in SQL Server?

  - by Woody Zenfell III

  I am hoping this question fares a little better than the similar Create a table without columns. Yes, I am asking about something that will strike most as pointlessly academic. It is easy to produce a SELECT result with 0 rows (but with columns), e.g. SELECT a = 1 WHERE 1 = 0. Is it possible to produce a SELECT result with 0 columns (but with rows)? e.g. something like SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo. (This is not valid T-SQL.) I came across this because I wanted to insert several rows without specifying any column data for any of them. e.g. (SQL Server 2005) CREATE TABLE Bar (id INT NOT NULL IDENTITY PRIMARY KEY) INSERT INTO Bar SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo -- Invalid column name 'NO'. -- An explicit value for the identity column in table 'Bar' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. One can insert a single row without specifying any column data, e.g. INSERT INTO Foo DEFAULT VALUES. One can query for a count of rows (without retrieving actual column data from the table), e.g. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Foo. (But that result set, of course, has a column.) I tried things like INSERT INTO Bar () SELECT * FROM Foo -- Parameters supplied for object 'Bar' which is not a function. -- If the parameters are intended as a table hint, a WITH keyword is required. and INSERT INTO Bar DEFAULT VALUES SELECT * FROM Foo -- which is a standalone INSERT statement followed by a standalone SELECT statement. I can do what I need to do a different way, but the apparent lack of consistency in support for degenerate cases surprises me. I read through the relevant sections of BOL and didn't see anything. I was surprised to come up with nothing via Google either.

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• NHibernate.PropertyValueException : not-null property references a null or transient

  - by frosty

  I am getting the following exception. NHibernate.PropertyValueException : not-null property references a null or transient Here are my mapping files. Product <class name="Product" table="Products"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <set name="PriceBreaks" table="PriceBreaks" generic="true" cascade="all" inverse="true" > <key column="ProductId" /> <one-to-many class="EStore.Domain.Model.PriceBreak, EStore.Domain" /> </set> </class> Price Breaks <class name="PriceBreak" table="PriceBreaks"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <property name="ProductId" column="ProductId" type="Int32" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Product" column="ProductId" not-null="true" cascade="all" class="EStore.Domain.Model.Product, EStore.Domain" /> </class> I get the exception on the following method [Test] public void Can_Add_Price_Break() { IPriceBreakRepository repo = new PriceBreakRepository(); var priceBreak = new PriceBreak(); priceBreak.ProductId = 19; repo.Add(priceBreak); Assert.Greater(priceBreak.Id, 0); }

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• How do I eliminate Error 3002?

  - by Andrew

  Say I have the following table definitions in SQL Server 2008: CREATE TABLE Person (PersonId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, ManyMoreIrrelevantColumns VARCHAR(MAX) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE Model (ModelId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ModelName VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, Description VARCHAR(200) NULL) CREATE TABLE ModelScore (ModelId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Model (ModelId), Score INT NOT NULL, Definition VARCHAR(100) NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ModelId, Score)) CREATE TABLE PersonModelScore (PersonId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Person (PersonId), ModelId INT NOT NULL, Score INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (PersonId, ModelId), FOREIGN KEY (ModelId, Score) REFERENCES ModelScore (ModelId, Score)) The idea here is that each Person may have only one ModelScore per Model, but each Person may have a score for any number of defined Models. As far as I can tell, this SQL should enforce these constraints naturally. The ModelScore has a particular "meaning," which is contained in the Definition. Nothing earth-shattering there. Now, I try translating this into Entity Framework using the designer. After updating the model from the database and doing some editing, I have a Person object, a Model object, and a ModelScore object. PersonModelScore, being a join table, is not an object but rather is included as an association with some other name (let's say ModelScorePersonAssociation). The mapping details for the association are as follows: - Association - Maps to PersonModelScore - ModelScore ModelId : Int32 <=> ModelId : int Score : Int32 <=> Score : int - Person PersonId : Int32 <=> PersonId : int On the right-hand side, the ModelId and PersonId values have primary key symbols, but the Score value does not. Upon compilation, I get: Error 3002: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 5190: Potential runtime violation of table PersonModelScore's keys (PersonModelScore.ModelId, PersonModelScore.PersonId): Columns (PersonModelScore.PersonId, PersonModelScore.ModelId) are mapped to EntitySet ModelScorePersonAssociation's properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.Score, ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId). What have I done wrong in the designer or otherwise, and how can I fix the error? Many thanks!

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• Change namespace Prefix WCF Envelope

  - by activebiz

  I was wondering is there anyway to change the namespace prefix for the WCF SOAP request? As you can see in the example below, The Envelope has namespace "http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing" with prefix 'a'. I want to change this to 'foo'. How can I do that. Note I dont have control over service code I can only create proxy class from the WSDL . <s:Envelope xmlns:a="http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing" xmlns:s="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <s:Header> <a:Action s:mustUnderstand="1">http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport/operations/MyAction</a:Action> <h:payloadManifest xmlns="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:h="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport"> <manifest contentID="Content0" namespaceURI="http://www.starstandard.org/STAR/5" element="TESTMETHOD" version="5.2.4"></manifest> </h:payloadManifest> <h:Identity xmlns="urn:xxx/xxx/" xmlns:h="urn:xxx/xxx"> <SiteCode>XXXXXX</SiteCode> </h:Identity> <a:To>urn:xxx/xxx/Method1</a:To> <MessageID xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing">XXXXX</MessageID> <a:ReplyTo> <a:Address>http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing/anonymous</a:Address> </a:ReplyTo> </s:Header> Many thanks

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• Problem with creation of scheduled task from IIS6 on SR2003

  - by Morten Louw Nielsen

  Hi, I am writing a webapplication using .NET. The webapp creates scheduled tasks using the System.Diagnostics.Process class, calling SCHTASKS.EXE with parameters. I have changed the identity on the app pool, to a specific domain user. The domain-user is local administrator on all the four webservers. From webserver01 I am creating tasks on webserver01 to webserver04. It works perfect for 3-5 days, but then it breaks. It gives me the following errormessage in a messagebox: "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142). Click on OK to terminate the application." If I have the system in the broken state, and I change the identity of the app pool to Domain administrator, it works. As I change it back to my domain-user, it breaks again. If I reboot the server, it works again for the same amount of days, but will break again. It seems like a permission-related problem. I just don't understand why it works sometimes, and sometimes doesn't. I hope someone outthere has seen this problem! Looking forward to hear from you! Kind regards, Morten, Denmark

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• Default class for SQLAlchemy single table inheritance

  - by eclaird

  I've set up a single table inheritance, but I need a "default" class to use when an unknown polymorphic identity is encountered. The database is not in my control and so the data can be pretty much anything. A working example setup: import sqlalchemy as sa from sqlalchemy import orm engine = sa.create_engine('sqlite://') metadata = sa.MetaData(bind=engine) table = sa.Table('example_types', metadata, sa.Column('id', sa.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column('type', sa.Integer), ) metadata.create_all() class BaseType(object): pass class TypeA(BaseType): pass class TypeB(BaseType): pass base_mapper = orm.mapper(BaseType, table, polymorphic_on=table.c.type, polymorphic_identity=None, ) orm.mapper(TypeA, inherits=base_mapper, polymorphic_identity='A', ) orm.mapper(TypeB, inherits=base_mapper, polymorphic_identity='B', ) Session = orm.sessionmaker(autocommit=False, autoflush=False) session = Session() Now, if I insert a new unmapped identity... engine.execute('INSERT INTO EXAMPLE_TYPES (TYPE) VALUES (\'C\')') session.query(BaseType).first() ...things break. Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/query.py", line 1619, in first ret = list(self[0:1]) File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/query.py", line 1528, in __getitem__ return list(res) File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/query.py", line 1797, in instances rows = [process[0](row, None) for row in fetch] File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 2179, in _instance _instance = polymorphic_instances[discriminator] File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/util.py", line 83, in __missing__ self[key] = val = self.creator(key) File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 2341, in configure_subclass_mapper discriminator) AssertionError: No such polymorphic_identity u'C' is defined What I expected: >>> result = session.query(BaseType).first() >>> result <BaseType object at 0x1c8db70> >>> result.type u'C' I think this used to work with some older version of SQLAlchemy, but I haven't been keeping up with the development lately. Any pointers on how to accomplish this?

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• CF9 HQL Statement for many-to-many and Multiple Criteria

  - by Jeremy Battle

  I have the following setup: Listing.cfc component persistent="true" { property name="ListingId" column="ListingId" type="numeric" ormtype="int" fieldtype="id" generator="identity"; ... property name="Features" type="array" hint="Array of features" singularname="Feature" fieldtype="many-to-many" cfc="Feature" linktable="Listing_Feature" FKColumn="ListingId" inversejoincolumn="FeatureId"; } Feature.cfc component persistent="true" table="Feature" schema="dbo" output="false" { property name="FeatureId" column="FeatureId" type="numeric" ormtype="int" fieldtype="id" generator="identity"; property name="FeatureDescription" column="FeatureDescription" type="string" ormtype="string"; ... /*property name="Listings" fieldtype="many-to-many" cfc="Listing" linktable="Listing_Feature" fkcolumn="FeatureId" inversejoincolumn="ListingId" lazy="true" cascade="all" orderby="GroupOrder";*/ } I can select all listings that have a particular feature using: <cfset matchingListings = ormExecuteQuery("from Listing l left join l.Features as feature where feature.FeatureId = :feature",{feature = 110}) /> Which is fine, however, I'd like to be able to select all listings that have multiple features (for example a listing that has both "Dishwasher" AND "Garage") After a couple hours of googling and looking through hibernate documentation haven't been able to find a solution that won't give me an error. My guess is that the solution is pretty simple and I am just over-thinking it...anyone have any suggestions?

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• Different users get the same value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

  - by Malcolm Frexner

  My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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• IIS 7.5 What am I doing wrong?

  - by chugh97

  In IIS 7.5 under Windows 7 Utilmate, I have an application which is configured for authentication as follows: Anonymous & Windows In the ASP.NET Website, I have turned Forms authentication and identity impersonate = true I also deny any anonymous users. <authentication mode="Forms"> </authentication> <identity impersonate="true"/> <authorization> <deny user="?"> </authorization> IIS complains. What am I doing wrong... What I want to achieve :I want the windows Logged On User so I can build a FormsAuthentication ticket and pass it to a Passive STS. So in IIS I have anonymous and windows...If have only windows ticked, I cannot go onto the Login.aspx page as I have an extra parameter to be passed from there. So now in webconfig, I then disable anonymous users by saying deny user="?" , so it leaves me with the authenticated windows user but using Forms Authentication.You know what I mean??

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• ntpd on Fedora Core 6 with high negative time rest values

  - by Mark White

  The basic problem is we have a FC6 server instance running on a virtual machine, and the system time seems to have been slowly varying until it is now causing a problem. The server runs 24/7 and has been up for 155 days. It has been changed to show GMT, and reports the time as (example) 00:15:15 GMT whereas the actual time is 00:00:00 GMT. This is an offset of 915 seconds. selinux has been changed to 'setenforce 0' for testing and I am running as root. I stop the ntpd service and change the time in System|Administration|Date & Time. The time still shows the same with 'date' in bash. There are no error logs. I change the date with 'date --set' in bash. The response confirms the changed date. I run 'date' and the incorrect date is shown. There are no error logs. I start the ntpd service and /var/log/messages shows success with 'time reset -915.720139s'. The date remains unchanged. ntpq -p shows three three time servers all have offsets of around -915 seconds. I stop ntpd service and try 'ntpd -gqx' and get the same result as above - success, but a large negative time reset. I've tried varying combinations of the above, and a few more settings in System|Administration|Date & Time - no change. I just need to reset the system time to GMT. No offset. But I can't wait for ntpd to slew the time over the next few weeks. Any advice is welcome, cheers! Sure this shouldn't be this difficult... Mark...

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• Diffie-Hellman in Silverlight

  - by cmaduro

  I am trying to devise a security scheme for encrypting the application level data between a silverlight client, and a php webservice that I created. Since I am dealing with a public website the information I am pulling from the service is public, but the information I'm submitting to the webservice is not public. There is also a back end to the website for administration, so naturally all application data being pushed and pulled from the webservice to the silverlight administration back end must also be encrypted. Silverlight does not support asymmetric encryption, which would work for the public website. Symmetric encryption would only work on the back end because users do not log in to the public website, so no password based keys could be derived. Still symmetric encryption would be great, but I cannot securely save the private key in the silverlight client. Because it would either have to be hardcoded or read from some kind of config file. None of that is considered secure. So... plan B. My final alternative would be then to implement the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, which supports symmetric encryption by means of key agreement. However Diffie-Hellman is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks. In other words, there is no guarantee that either side is sure of each others identity, making it possible for communication to be intercepted and altered without the receiving party knowing about it. It is thus recommended to use a private shared key to encrypt the key agreement handshaking, so that the identity of either party is confirmed. This brings me back to my initial problem that resulted in me needing to use Diffie-Hellman, how can I use a private key in a silverlight client without hardcoding it either in the code or an xml file. I'm all out of love on this one... is there any answer to this?

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• Enable MEX in a Web.Config

  - by Conor

  Hi Folks, How do I enable/create a MEX endpoint in the below web config so I can view the service from my browser? I have tried a few variation from googling but VS always complains about it. (not a valid child element etc...) <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> <services> <service name="MyApp.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="WebServiceBehavior"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MyApp.IMyService" behaviorConfiguration="JsonBehavior"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> </service> </services> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="JsonBehavior"> <webHttp/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Cheers, Conor

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• Advice on optimzing speed for a Stored Procedure that uses Views

  - by Belliez

  Based on a previous question and with a lot of help from Damir Sudarevic (thanks) I have the following sql code which works great but is very slow. Can anyone suggest how I can speed this up and optimise for speed. I am now using SQL Server Express 2008 (not 2005 as per my original question). What this code does is retrieves parameters and their associated values from several tables and rotates the table in a form that can be easily compared. Its great for one of two rows of data but now I am testing with 100 rows and to run GetJobParameters takes over 7 minutes to complete? Any advice is gratefully accepted, thank you in advanced. /*********************************************************************************************** ** CREATE A VIEW (VIRTUAL TABLE) TO ALLOW EASIER RETREIVAL OF PARMETERS ************************************************************************************************/ CREATE VIEW dbo.vParameters AS SELECT m.MachineID AS [Machine ID] ,j.JobID AS [Job ID] ,p.ParamID AS [Param ID] ,t.ParamTypeID AS [Param Type ID] ,m.Name AS [Machine Name] ,j.Name AS [Job Name] ,t.Name AS [Param Type Name] ,t.JobDataType AS [Job DataType] ,x.Value AS [Measurement Value] ,x.Unit AS [Unit] ,y.Value AS [JobDataType] FROM dbo.Machines AS m JOIN dbo.JobFiles AS j ON j.MachineID = m.MachineID JOIN dbo.JobParams AS p ON p.JobFileID = j.JobID JOIN dbo.JobParamType AS t ON t.ParamTypeID = p.ParamTypeID LEFT JOIN dbo.JobMeasurement AS x ON x.ParamID = p.ParamID LEFT JOIN dbo.JobTrait AS y ON y.ParamID = p.ParamID GO -- Step 2 CREATE VIEW dbo.vJobValues AS SELECT [Job Name] ,[Param Type Name] ,COALESCE(cast([Measurement Value] AS varchar(50)), [JobDataType]) AS [Val] FROM dbo.vParameters GO /*********************************************************************************************** ** GET JOB PARMETERS FROM THE VIEW JUST CREATED ************************************************************************************************/ CREATE PROCEDURE GetJobParameters AS -- Step 3 DECLARE @Params TABLE ( id int IDENTITY (1,1) ,ParamName varchar(50) ); INSERT INTO @Params (ParamName) SELECT DISTINCT [Name] FROM dbo.JobParamType -- Step 4 DECLARE @qw TABLE( id int IDENTITY (1,1) , txt nchar(300) ) INSERT INTO @qw (txt) SELECT 'SELECT' UNION SELECT '[Job Name]' ; INSERT INTO @qw (txt) SELECT ',MAX(CASE [Param Type Name] WHEN ''' + ParamName + ''' THEN Val ELSE NULL END) AS [' + ParamName + ']' FROM @Params ORDER BY id; INSERT INTO @qw (txt) SELECT 'FROM dbo.vJobValues' UNION SELECT 'GROUP BY [Job Name]' UNION SELECT 'ORDER BY [Job Name]'; -- Step 5 --SELECT txt FROM @qw DECLARE @sql_output VARCHAR (MAX) SET @sql_output = '' -- NULL + '' = NULL, so we need to have a seed SELECT @sql_output = -- string to avoid losing the first line. COALESCE (@sql_output + txt + char (10), '') FROM @qw EXEC (@sql_output) GO

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• LINQ to SQL - Tracking New / Dirty Objects

  - by Joseph Sturtevant

  Is there a way to determine if a LINQ object has not yet been inserted in the database (new) or has been changed since the last update (dirty)? I plan on binding my UI to LINQ objects (using WPF) and need it to behave differently depending whether or not the object is already in the database. MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext(); MyObject obj; if (new Random().NextDouble() > .5) obj = new MyObject(); else obj = context.MyObjects.First(); // How can I distinguish these two cases? The only simple solution I can think of is to set the primary key of new records to a negative value (my PKs are an identity field and will therefore be set to a positive integer on INSERT). This will only work for detecting new records. It also requires identity PKs, and requires control of the code creating the new object. Is there a better way to do this? It seems like LINQ must be internally tracking the status of these objects so that it can know what to do on context.SubmitChanges(). Is there some way to access that "object status"? Clarification Apparently my initial question was confusing. I'm not looking for a way to insert or update records. I'm looking for a way, given any LINQ object, to determine if that object has not been inserted (new) or has been changed since its last update (dirty).

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• ASP.NET MVC 2: Mechanics behind an Order / Order Line in a edit form

  - by Dr. Zim

  In this question I am looking for links/code to handle an IList<OrderLine> in an MVC 2 edit form. Specifically I am interested in sending a complete order to the client, then posting the edited order back to an object (to persist) using: Html.EditorFor(m = m.orderlines[i]) (where orderlines is an enumerable object) Editing an Order that has multiple order lines (two tables, Order and OrderLine, one to many) is apparently difficult. Is there any links/examples/patterns out there to advise how to create this form that edits an entity and related entities in a single form (in C# MVC 2)? The IList is really throwing me for a loop. Should I have it there (while still having one form to edit one order)? How could you use the server side factory to create a blank OrderLine in the form while not posting the entire form back to the server? I am hoping we don't treat the individual order lines with individual save buttons, deletes, etc. (for example, they may open an order, delete all the lines, then click cancel, which shouldn't have altered the order itself in either the repository nor the database. Example classes: public class ViewModel { public Order order {get;set;} // Only one order } public class Order { public int ID {get;set;} // Order Identity public string name {get;set;} public IList<OrderLine> orderlines {get;set;} // Order has multiple lines } public class OrderLine { public int orderID {get;set;} // references Order ID above public int orderLineID {get;set;} // Order Line identity (need?) public Product refProduct {get;set;} // Product value object public int quantity {get;set;} // How many we want public double price {get;set;} // Current sale price }

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• Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

  - by wilth

  Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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• WCF Service in Azure with ClaimsIdentity over SSL

  - by Sunil Ramu

  Hello , Created a WCF service as a WebRole using Azure and a client windows application which refers to this service. The Cloud Service is refered to a certificate which is created using the "Hands On Lab" given in windows identity foundation. The Web Service is hosted in IIS and it works perfect when executed. I've created a client windows app which refers to this web service. Since WIF Claims identity is used, I have a claimsAuthorizationManager Class, and also a Policy class with set of defilned policies. The Claims is set in the web.config file. When I execute the windows app as the start up project, the app prompts for authentication, and when the account credentials are given as in the config file, it opens a new "Windows Card Space" Window and Says "Incoming Policy Failed". When I close the window the System throws and Exception The incoming policy could not be validated. For more information, please see the event log. Event Log Details Incoming policy failed validation. No valid claim elements were found in the policy XML. Additional Information: at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.BuildMessage(InfoCardBaseException ie) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.TraceAndLogException(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.ThrowHelperError(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.InfoCardPolicy.Validate() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.ClientUIRequest.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.DoProcessRequest(String& extendedMessage) at Microsoft.InfoCards.RequestFactory.ProcessNewRequest(Int32 parentRequestHandle, IntPtr rpcHandle, IntPtr inArgs, IntPtr& outArgs) Details: System Provider [ Name] CardSpace 3.0.0.0 EventID 267 [ Qualifiers] 49157 Level 2 Task 1 Keywords 0x80000000000000 EventRecordID 6996 Channel Application EventData No valid claim elements were found in the policy XML. Additional Information: at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.BuildMessage(InfoCardBaseException ie) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.TraceAndLogException(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.ThrowHelperError(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.InfoCardPolicy.Validate() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.ClientUIRequest.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.DoProcessRequest(String& extendedMessage) at Microsoft.InfoCards.RequestFactory.ProcessNewRequest(Int32 parentRequestHandle, IntPtr rpcHandle, IntPtr inArgs, IntPtr& outArgs)

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• Insufferable word wrap in Visual Studio XAML editor - is there any relief for 2010?

  - by DanM

  Just curious if the XAML editor is any better at auto-formatting and wrapping attributes in Visual Studio 2010. Here's how the editor auto wraps attributes in VS 2008: <StackPanel Grid.Row="0" Grid.ColumnSpan="3"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" FontWeight="Bold" Text="Current User:" /> <ComboBox x:Name="_usersComboBox" Margin="5,0,0,0" Width="200" ItemsSource="{Binding Users}" SelectedValuePath="Name" SelectedValue="System Administration"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> Here's how I'd like the editor to auto wrap attributes: <StackPanel Grid.Row="0" Grid.ColumnSpan="3"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" FontWeight="Bold" Text="Current User:" /> <ComboBox x:Name="_usersComboBox" Margin="5,0,0,0" Width="200" ItemsSource="{Binding Users}" SelectedValuePath="Name" SelectedValue="System Administration"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> Does VS 2010 grant my wish?

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• Generating equals / hashcode / toString using annotation

  - by Bruno Bieth

  I believe I read somewhere people generating equals / hashcode / toString methods during compile time (using APT) by identifying which fields should be part of the hash / equality test. I couldn't find anything like that on the web (I might have dreamed it ?) ... That could be done like that : public class Person { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; @Identity private String firstName, lastName; @Identity private Date dateOfBirth; //... } For an entity (so we want to exlude some fields, like the id). Or like a scala case class i.e a value object : @ValueObject public class Color { private int red, green, blue; } Not only the file becomes more readable and easier to write, but it also helps ensuring that all the attributes are part of the equals / hashcode (in case you add another attribute later on, without updating the methods accordingly). I heard APT isn't very well supported in IDE but I wouldn't see that as a major issue. After all, tests are mainly run by continuous integration servers. Any idea if this has been done already and if not why ? Thanks

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