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  • Binding ListBox to List (Collection) in XAML

    - by david2tm
    Hello, I'm learning WPF, so I'm kind of n00b in this. I saw some examples about how to do what I want to do, but nothing exactly... The question: I want to bind List to ListBox. I want to do it in XAML, w/o coding in code behind. How can I achieve that? Right now I do it that way: <!-- XAML --> <ListBox x:Name="FileList"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Label Content="{Binding Path=.}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> // Code behind public MainWindow() { // ... files = new List<string>(); FileList.ItemsSource = files; } private void FolderBrowser_TextChanged(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string folder = FolderBrowser.Text; files.Clear(); files.AddRange(Directory.GetFiles(folder, "*.txt", SearchOption.AllDirectories)); FileList.Items.Refresh(); } But I want to get rid of FileList.ItemsSource = files; and FileList.Items.Refresh(); in C# code. Thanks

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  • Backreferences in lookbehind

    - by polygenelubricants
    Can you use backreferences in a lookbehind? Let's say I want to split wherever behind me a character is repeated twice. String REGEX1 = "(?<=(.)\\1)"; // DOESN'T WORK! String REGEX2 = "(?<=(?=(.)\\1)..)"; // WORKS! System.out.println(java.util.Arrays.toString( "Bazooka killed the poor aardvark (yummy!)" .split(REGEX2) )); // prints "[Bazoo, ka kill, ed the poo, r aa, rdvark (yumm, y!)]" Using REGEX2 (where the backreference is in a lookahead nested inside a lookbehind) works, but REGEX1 gives this error at run-time: Look-behind group does not have an obvious maximum length near index 8 (?<=(.)\1) ^ This sort of make sense, I suppose, because in general the backreference can capture a string of any length (if the regex compiler is a bit smarter, though, it could determine that \1 is (.) in this case, and therefore has a finite length). So is there a way to use a backreference in a lookbehind? And if there isn't, can you always work around it using this nested lookahead? Are there other commonly-used techniques?

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  • Namespace Problem

    - by Tarik
    Hello, Normally we all do use using System.Linq; and using System.Data.Linq; for example on the code-behind and expect we can reach the members of these namespaces from Source Code like <%= Something.First()%> but when I wrote it, asp.net said it couldn't find First() in the context and I had to add <%@ Import Namespace="System.Linq" which looked very weird to me but it worked out. Since they are targeting at the same class why they both need separate namespace importing. Code-behind : using System; using System.Data.Linq; using System.Linq; using System.Text namespace Something { class Items : System.Web.UI { //... } } but also I need to add the same Linq namespace on the Html Source part <%@Import Namespace="System.Linq"%> Do I know something wrong or this is some kind of bug in asp.net. I thought when the page is compiling, asp.net combines these two classes and converts html source code into cs class and indicates the control in Control c= new Control(); hierarchy. Thanks in advance.

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  • Extension methods in class library project

    - by Mostafa
    I've implemented some extension methods and put those in separate Class Library project. Imagine I have a simple extension method like this in class library called MD.Utility: namespace MD.Utility { public static class ExtenMethods { public static bool IsValidEmailAddress(this string s) { Regex regex = new Regex(@"^[\w-\.]+@([\w-]+\.)+[\w-]{2,4}$"); return regex.IsMatch(s); } } } But nowhere in WebApp like App_code folder or WebFroms code-behind page I can't use this Extension method. If I do like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using MD.Utility; public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string email = "[email protected]"; if (email.IsValidEmailAddress()) { //To do } } } The compiler doesn't recognize IsValidEmailAddress() and even no intellisense support. While if I put my extension method in App_Code folder it's ok for using in another cs file in App_code Folder or Web Form code-behind pages.

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  • Hg: How to do a rebase like git's rebase

    - by jpswain09
    Hey guys, In Git I can do this: 1. Start working on new feature: $ git co -b newfeature-123 # (a local feature development branch) do a few commits (M, N, O) master A---B---C \ newfeature-123 M---N---O 2. Pull new changes from upstream master: $ git pull (master updated with ff-commits) master A---B---C---D---E---F \ newfeature-123 M---N---O 3. Rebase off master so that my new feature can be developed against the latest upstream changes: (from newfeature-123) $ git rebase master master A---B---C---D---E---F \ newfeature-123 M---N---O I want to know how to do the same thing in Mercurial, and I've scoured the web for an answer, but the best I could find was this: http://www.selenic.com/pipermail/mercurial/2007-June/013393.html That link provides 2 examples: 1. I'll admit that this: (replacing the revisions from the example with those from my own example) hg up -C F hg branch -f newfeature-123 hg transplant -a -b newfeature-123 is not too bad, except that it leaves behind the pre-rebase M-N-O as an unmerged head and creates 3 new commits M',N',O' that represent them branching off the updated mainline. Basically the problem is that I end up with this: master A---B---C---D---E---F \ \ newfeature-123 \ M'---N'---O' \ newfeature-123 M---N---O this is not good because it leaves behind local, unwanted commits that should be dropped. The other option from the same link is hg qimport -r M:O hg qpop -a hg up F hg branch newfeature-123 hg qpush -a hg qdel -r qbase:qtip and this does result in the desired graph: master A---B---C---D---E---F \ newfeature-123 M---N---O but these commands (all 6 of them!) seem so much more complicated than $ git rebase master I want to know if this is the only equivalent in Hg or if there is some other way available that is simple like Git. Thanks!! Jamie

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  • How do you think while formulating Sql Queries. Is it an experience or a concept ?

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I have been working on sql server and front end coding and have usually faced problem formulating queries. I do understand most of the concepts of sql that are needed in formulating queries but whenever some new functionality comes into the picture that can be dont using sql query, i do usually fails resolving them. I am very comfortable with select queries using joins and all such things but when it comes to DML operation i usually fails For every query that i never done before I usually finds uncomfortable with that while creating them. Whenever I goes for an interview I usually faces this problem. Is it their some concept behind approaching on formulating sql queries. Eg. I need to create an sql query such that A table contain single column having duplicate record. I need to remove duplicate records. I know i can find the solution to this query very easily on Googling, but I want to know how everyone comes to the desired result. Is it something like Practice Makes Man Perfect i.e. once you did it, next time you will be able to formulate or their is some logic or concept behind. I could have get my answer of solving above problem simply by posting it on stackoverflow and i would have been with an answer within 5 to 10 minutes but I want to know the reason. How do you work on any new kind of query. Is it a major contribution of experience or some an implementation of concepts. Whenever I learns some new thing in coding section I tries to utilize it wherever I can use it. But here scenario seems to be changed because might be i am lagging in some concepts.

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  • Loading and binding a serialized view model to a WPF window?

    - by generalt
    Hello all. I'm writing a one-window UI for a simple ETL tool. The UI consists of the window, the code behind for the window, a view model for the window, and the business logic. I wanted to provide functionality to the users to save the state of the UI because the content of about 10-12 text boxes will be reused between sessions, but are specific to the user. I figured I could serialize the view model, which contains all the data from the textboxes, and this works fine, but I'm having trouble loading the information in the serialized XML file back into the text boxes. Constructor of window: public ETLWindow() { InitializeComponent(); _viewModel = new ViewModel(); this.DataContext = _viewModel; _viewModel.State = Constants.STATE_IDLE; Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainWindow_Loaded); } XAML: <TextBox x:Name="targetDirectory" IsReadOnly="true" Text="{Binding TargetDatabaseDirectory, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"/> ViewModel corresponding property: private string _targetDatabaseDirectory; [XmlElement()] public string TargetDatabaseDirectory { get { return _targetDatabaseDirectory; } set { _targetDatabaseDirectory = value; OnPropertyChanged(DataUtilities.General.Utilities.GetPropertyName(() => new ViewModel().TargetDatabaseDirectory)); } Load event in code behind: private void loadState_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string statePath = this.getFilePath(); _viewModel = ViewModel.LoadModel(statePath); } As you can guess, the LoadModel method deserializes the serialized file on the user's drive. I couldn't find much on the web regarding this issue. I know this probably has something to do with my bindings. Is there some way to refresh on the bindings on the XAML after I deserialize the view model? Or perhaps refresh all properties on the view model? Or am I completely insane thinking any of this could be done? Thanks.

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  • checkbox like radiobutton wpf c#

    - by rockenpeace
    i have investigated this problem but this is solved in design view and code-behind. but my problem is little difference: i try to do this as only code-behind because my checkboxes are dynamically created according to database data.In other words, number of my checkboxes is not stable. i want to check only one checkbox in group of checkboxes. when i clicked one checkbox,i want that ischecked property of other checkboxes become false.this is same property in radiobuttons. i take my checkboxes from a stackpanel in xaml side: <StackPanel Margin="4" Orientation="Vertical" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" Name="companiesContainer"> </StackPanel> my xaml.cs: using (var c = new RSPDbContext()) { var q = (from v in c.Companies select v).ToList(); foreach (var na in q) { CheckBox ch = new CheckBox(); ch.Content = na.Name; ch.Tag = na; companiesContainer.Children.Add(ch); } } foreach (object i in companiesContainer.Children) { CheckBox chk = (CheckBox)i; chk.SetBinding(ToggleButton.IsCheckedProperty, "DataItem.IsChecked"); } how can i provide this property in checkboxes in xaml.cs ? thanks in advance..

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  • Are we DELPHI, VCL or Pascal programmers?

    - by José Eduardo
    i´ve been a delphi database programmer since D2. Now i´m facing some digital imaging and 3D challenges that make me to start study OpenGL, DirectX, Color Spaces and so on. I´m really trying but nobody seems to use Delphi for this kind of stuff, just the good-old-paycheck Database programming. ok, i know that we have some very smart guys behind some clever components, some of this open-source. Is there any PhotoShop, Blender, Maya, Office, Sonar, StarCraft, Call of Dutty written in Delphi? Do i have to learn C++ to have access to zillions of books about that kind of stuff? What is the fuzz/hype behind this: int *varName = &anhoterThing? Why pointers seems to be the holy graal to this apps? I´ve downloaded MSVC++ Express and start to learn some WPF and QT integration, and i think: "Man, Delphi does this kind of stuff, with less code, less headaches, since the wheels were invented" This lead my mind to the following... Do you ever tried to write a simple notepad program using just notepad and dcc32 in Pascal/Delphi? if so embarcadero could make our beloved pascal compiler free, and sell just the ide, the vcl, the customer support ... and back to the question: Are we DELPHI, VCL or Pascal programmers?

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  • Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

    - by Nick Babcock
    I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

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  • strange syntax error in python, version 2.6 and 3.1

    - by flow
    this may not be an earth-shattering deficiency of python, but i still wonder about the rationale behind the following behavior: when i run source = """ print( 'helo' ) if __name__ == '__main__': print( 'yeah!' ) #""" print( compile( source, '<whatever>', 'exec' ) ) i get :: File "<whatever>", line 6 # ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax i can avoid this exception by (1) deleting the trailing #; (2) deleting or outcommenting the if __name__ == '__main__':\n print( 'yeah!' ) lines; (3) add a newline to very end of the source. moreover, if i have the source end without a trailing newline right behind the print( 'yeah!' ), the source will also compile without error. i could also reproduce this behavior with python 2.6, so it’s not new to the 3k series. i find this error to be highly irritating, all the more since when i put above source inside a file and execute it directly or have it imported, no error will occur—which is the expected behavior. a # (hash) outside a string literal should always represent the start of a (possibly empty) comment in a python source; moreover, the presence or absence of a if __name__ == '__main__' clause should not change the interpretation of a soure on a syntactical level. can anyone reproduce the above problem, and/or comment on the phenomenon? cheers

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  • Squid handling of concurrent cache misses

    - by Oliver H-H
    We're using a Squid cache to off-load traffic from our web servers, ie. it's setup as a reverse-proxy responding to inbound requests before they hit our web servers. When we get blitzed with concurrent requests for the same request that's not in the cache, Squid proxies all the requests through to our web ("origin") servers. For us, this behavior isn't ideal: our origin servers gets bogged down trying to fulfill N identical requests concurrently. Instead, we'd like the first request to proxy through to the origin server, the rest of the requests to queue at the Squid layer, and then all be fulfilled by Squid when the origin server has responded to that first request. Does anyone know how to configure Squid to do this? We've read through the documentation multiple times and thoroughly web-searched the topic, but can't figure out how to do it. We use Akamai too and, interestingly, this is its default behavior. (However, Akamai has so many nodes that we still see lots of concurrent requests in certain traffic spike scenarios, even with Akamai's super-node feature enabled.) This behavior is clearly configurable for some other caches, eg. the Ehcache documentation offers the option "Concurrent Cache Misses: A cache miss will cause the filter chain, upstream of the caching filter to be processed. To avoid threads requesting the same key to do useless duplicate work, these threads block behind the first thread." Some folks call this behavior a "blocking cache," since the subsequent concurrent requests block behind the first request until it's fulfilled or timed-out. Thx for looking over my noob question! Oliver

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  • unable to implement HTTP Tunneling correctly in order to enable Java rmi calls over internet(and und

    - by Lokesh Kumar
    in my previous question :-How to Setup RMI Server under(NAT/ISP) Now,i m able to start my RMI server by Installing apache Tomcat 6.0 server. i have also installed servlet programs into apache Tomcat server in order to enable HTTP tunneling. my servlet codes:- (1) [SimplifiedServletHandler.java][2] (2) [ServletForwardCommand.java][3] these servlets resides inside :- C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\examples\WEB-INF\classes\ one more thing that i hv added to my CalcultorClient.java program:- try { RMISocketFactory. setSocketFactory(new sun.rmi.transport.proxy .RMIHttpToCGISocketFactory( )); }catch (IOException ignored) { System.out.println("Error :- ignored.getMessage()"); } But,when i try to make client connect with server(under ISP/NAT) i get the following Exception :- RemoteException java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return header; nested exception is: java.io.IOException: HTTP request failed i don't know the correct reason behind this Exception.. but,i think that i haven't installed or invoke my servlet programs properly on server side. so,can anybody tell me the correct reason behind this error/Exception????? and if u think that it is servlet problem then tell me the correct procedure to run my serlvet program inside tomcat server.

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  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • Modal dialog focus problems on WPF application

    - by Donal
    Hi, I have a problem with my wpf application where a modal dialog will appear behind the main application causing it to hang. It is very inconsistent, where most of the time the pop-up works correctly and is shown in front but occasionally it will pop-up behind, which stops any interaction with it. I can still close the dialog using the taskbar if this happens. I have noticed that it generally occurs when lots of other applications are open and the taskbar is full. Also, I am working with two screens and the problem only occurs on the screen with the taskbar - very wierd! The dialog is a window control, which contains an injected usercontrol as it's data context. To set the owner of the window before calling ShowDialog(), the first active window in the application is used instead of Window.GetWindow(this): private static Window GetOwner() { if (Application.Current != null) { var owner = Application.Current.Windows.Cast().FirstOrDefault(w = w.IsActive); return owner ?? Application.Current.MainWindow; } return null; } Any ideas of what may be causing this problem? or even how to try and track it so I can gather more information when it happens? Thanks, Donal

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  • Remove "Flash" between pages while using Internet Explorer modal boxes

    - by AaronS
    I have an internal web application, that is IE specific, and uses a lot of IE specific modal boxes: (window.showModalDialog). I recently received a request to remove the "flash" when navigating between pages of the site. To accomplish this, I just added a meta transition tag to my master page: <meta http-equiv="Page-Enter" content="blendTrans(duration=0.0)" /> This works perfectly except for the modal boxes. When you launch a modal box, and then move it around, the web page behind it keeps a trail of the modal box instead of re-drawing the web page content. This prevents the user from moving the modal box to read anything that was behind it. Is there a way to prevent the "flash" between pages in an IE specific site and have the site still work with modal boxes? Please note, this is a large and complex site, so re-architecting it to not use modal boxes isn't an option. This is an asp.net, c# web application, and all of my users are using IE 7 and IE 8 if it makes any difference. -Edit- To duplicate this, put the following into an html page, and open it in Internet Explorer: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <meta content="blendTrans(duration=0.0)" http-equiv="Page-Exit"> </head> <body> <script language="javascript"> window.showModalDialog('modal.htm', window); </script> </body> </html>

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  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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  • How to estimate tomcat server requirements?

    - by Daniil
    We have a brand new webapp written that runs on Tomcat. So far, only one client is using it through the day. They run about 180 unique logins a day. Not really a lot IMO. Now, we managed to sell it to a brand new client who likes and wants to roll it out to 50,000 clients. How many of them will login at the same time - no idea. But I need to do the whole thing - allocate, create, config and maintain. OK - last is simple(errrr). The application runs off of Tomcat 5.5 on Gentoo (I'm thinking to upgrade to Tomcat 6) with MSSQL & mySQL behind. I do realize that a more enterprise ready application would be a better fit, but that's not an option at the moment. Since I've never done this before, I'm a bit lost. Can someone advice on how to go about estimating the equipment requirements for this client? Tomcat does have clustering, so that I can do. MS SQL - I'm sure they have something too. I'm thinking to stick it behind LVS (which we do use at the moment for something else too). Any help from people who deal with these details is greatly appreciated!

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  • Can I force Apache 2.2 connection close from inside a C module?

    - by Amos Shapira
    Hello, We'd like to have a more fine-grained control on the connections we serve in a C++ Apache 2.2 module (on CentOS 5). One of the connections needs to stay alive for a few multiple requests, so we set "KeepAlive" to "On" and set a short keep-alive period. But for every such connection we have a few more connections from the browser which we don't need to leave behind and instead want to force them to close after a single request. Some of these connections are on different ports (so we can distinguish them by port, since KeepAlive can be set per virtual host) and some request a different URL (so we can tell from the path and parameters that we don't want to leave them behind). Also for the one we do want to keep alive, we know that after a certain request we'd like to close it too. But so far the only way we found to "cancel" the keep-alive is to send a polite "Connection: close" header to the client. If the client is not well behaved, or malicious, then they can keep it open and waste our resources. Is there a way to tell Apache to close the connection from the server side? The documentation advises against just plain close(2) call on the socket since Apache needs to do some clean up before that's done. But is there some API or a trick to "override" the static "KeepAlive On" configuration dynamically (and convince Apache to call close(2))? Thanks.

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  • How do I get a ComboBox SelectionChanged event to fire from a nested ListBoxItem?

    - by Stephen McCusker
    This is a rather complex problem that has me really confused right now. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The Setup: ListBox of Type A UserControls -ListBoxItem of Type A UserControl --ListBox of Type B UserControls ---ListBoxItem of Type B UserControl ----ListBox of Type C UserControls -----ListBoxItem of Type C UserControl (contains the ComboBox) In other words, the Type A control has a ListBox of Type B controls that has a ListBox of Type C controls. All of the controls are hierarchical in nature. Type A contains the data that's needed to load the Type B controls and the Type B contains the data that's needed to load the Type C controls. The Type C control has a standard ComboBox in it for changing the values of the present items. In addition to the above structure, I have drag and dropping tied to the PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown event on both the Type A and Type B UserControl levels to handle reordering/deleting/etc commands in the GUI. All of this is working as intended. The Problem: When I attempt to change the value in the ComboBox, the SelectionChanged event never fires on the Type C "level" unless I'm careful enough to click on the borders/spacing in between any Type A or B controls. This happens when my ComboBox popout menu overlaps on either a Type A or B control located below itself. The selection events for Type A or B are firing instead of the Type C events, so the ComboBox is never changing its value reliably. In the debugger, the code for handling the drag and drop is triggering on the next ListBoxItem that's located underneath the ComboBox. Thoughts: Is there a way I can make my ComboBox popup take prevalence over the items behind it while double-nested in a ListBox (ie, ignore anything behind it while it's open)? Is there some way to reroute the incorrectly firing SelectionChanged events down to the ComboBox that's supposed to be triggering them?

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  • Understanding sql queries formulation methodoloy. How do you think while formulating Sql Queries

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I have been working on sql server and front end coding and have usually faced problem formulating queries. I do understand most of the concepts of sql that are needed in formulating queries but whenever some new functionality comes into the picture that can be dont using sql query, i do usually fails resolving them. I am very comfortable with select queries using joins and all such things but when it comes to DML operation i usually fails For every query that i never done before I usually finds uncomfortable with that while creating them. Whenever I goes for an interview I usually faces this problem. Is it their some concept behind approaching on formulating sql queries. Eg. I need to create an sql query such that A table contain single column having duplicate record. I need to remove duplicate records. I know i can find the solution to this query very easily on Googling, but I want to know how everyone comes to the desired result. Is it something like Practice Makes Man Perfect i.e. once you did it, next time you will be able to formulate or their is some logic or concept behind.

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  • Consecutive Tables in Latex

    - by Tim
    Hi, I wonder how to place several tables consecutively in Latex? The page with the text right before the first table has a little space but not enough for the first table, so the first table is to be placed on the top of the next page, although I use "\begin{table}[!h]" for it. The second table does not fit into the place in the rest of the page of the first table, so I think I might use longtable for it to span the rest of the page and the top of the next page. Similarly, I use longtable for the third table. The latex code is as follows: ... % some text \begin{table}[!h] \caption{Table 1. \label{tab:1}} \begin{center} \begin{tabular}{c c} ... \end{tabular} \end{center} \end{table} \begin{center} \begin{longtable}{ c c } \caption{Table 2. \label{tab:2}}\\ ... \end{longtable} \end{center} \begin{center} \begin{longtable}{ c c } \caption{Table 3. \label{tab:3}}\\ ... \end{longtable} \end{center} ... % some text In the compiled pdf file it turns out that the order of the tables is messed up. The first table is placed behind the second and third one, and the second one spans the page with text before the tables and the next page with the third one following it. I would like to know how I can make the three tables appear consecutively in order, and there are no space left blank between them and between the text and the tables? Or if what I hope is not possible, what is the best strategy then? Thanks and regards! EDIT: Removing [!h] does not make improvement, the first table is still behind the second and the third.

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  • Separating Content (aspx) from Code (aspx.cs) in ASP.NET

    - by firedrawndagger
    I would like to know what is the best practice on separating the content of an aspx page (ASP.NET 3.5) from the code (I'm using C#). I have a form that users can type data in - for example they are allowed to enter a percent. If they Otherwise for example I would like to display the following error messages: <p id="errormsg" class="percenthigh">Please enter a percent below 100</p> <p id="errormsg" class="percentnegative">Percent cannot be below 0</p> <p id="errormsg" class="percentnot">This is not a percent</p> So in essence I'm hiding the error messages and showing one depending on what the user input is. I believe this is the best way to seperate the content from the code behind. However, how do I select elements and hide/unhide them depending on the user input? I'm aware I can do a runat="server" on the elements but the problem is that I can't select by class and am limited only to ID's. What workarounds do you recommend? Aside from putting in the values in code behind which is notoriously difficult to debug. Also has this been "fixed" in ASP.NET 4?

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  • ASP.NET catching controls from html generated from the database

    - by Drahcir
    I have a set of websites that basically do the exact same thing in terms of functionality, the only thing that varies is the css and how the html is laid out. Is there a way to generate the html from a database (ie retreiving the html from a table) and then catching the controls (like buttons, textboxes etc) from the code behind? UPDATE: Here is an example of what I want to acheive: <html> <div id="generatedContent" runat="server"> <!-- the following content has been generated from the database on the page load event --> <div> This is a textbox <input id="tb1" runat="server" type="text" /> This is a button <input type="submit" id="btn1" runat="server" value="My Button" /> </div> </div> </html> This is the code behind var tb1 = new HtmlControls.HtmlInputText(); tb1 = FindControl("tb1"); var btn1 = new New HtmlControls.HtmlInputSubmit(); btn1 = FindControl("btn1"); Now obviously since the html has been generated from the database (ie after the page has already been initialised) the FindControl method will return null.

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