Search Results

Search found 20409 results on 817 pages for 'url routing'.

Page 75/817 | < Previous Page | 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82  | Next Page >

  • Apache not routing to tomcat on correct Virtual host

    - by ttheobald
    We are looking at moving from Websphere to Tomcat. I'm trying to send traffic to tomcat from apache web server based on the virtual host directives in apache web server. After some playing around I have it sort of working, but I'm noticing that if I have a JKMount directive in the first VirtualHost in apache, all virtualHosts will send to the application server. If I have the JKMount in Virtual hosts further down in the configs, then only that VirtualHost works with the request. For Example, with the configs below here are my symptoms mysite.com/Webapp1/ -- I resolve to the proper application mysite2.com/Webapp1/ -- I resolve to the proper application (bad!) mysite.com/MonitorApp/ -- I resolve to the proper application mysite2.com/MonitorApp/ -- I resolve to the proper application (bad!) mysite.com/Webapp2/ -- I DO NOT get to the app (good) mysite2.com/Webapp2/ -- I resolve to the proper application Here's what my web server virtualhosts look like. <VirtualHost 255.255.255.1:80> ServerName mysite.com ServerAlias aliasmysite.ca ##all our rewrite rules JkMount /Webapp1/* LoadBalanceWorker JKmount /MonitorApp/* LoadBalanceWorker </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 255.255.255.2:80> ServerName mysite2.com ServerAlias aliasmysite2.ca ##all our rewrite rules JkMount /Webapp2/* LoadBalanceWorker </VirtualHost> we are running apache webserver 2.2.10 and tomcat 7.0.29 on Solaris10 I've posted an image of our architecture here. http://imgur.com/IFaA6Rh I HAVE not defined VirtualHosts on Tomcat. Based on what I've read, my understanding is that it's only needed if I'm accessing Tomcat directly. Any assistance is appreciated. Edit Here's my worker.properties. worker.list= LoadBalanceWorker,App1,App2 worker.intApp1.port=8009 worker.intApp1.host=10.15.8.8 worker.intApp1.type=ajp13 worker.intApp1.lbfactor=1 worker.intApp1.socket_timeout=30 worker.intApp1.socket_connect_timeout=5000 worker.intApp1.fail_on_status=302,500,503 worker.intApp1.recover_time=30 worker.intApp2.port=8009 worker.intApp2.host=10.15.8.9 worker.intApp2.type=ajp13 worker.intApp2.lbfactor=1 worker.intApp2.socket_timeout=30 worker.intApp2.socket_connect_timeout=5000 worker.intApp2.fail_on_status=302,500,503 worker.intApp2.recover_time=30 worker.LoadBalanceWorker.type=lb worker.LoadBalanceWorker.balanced_workers=intApp1,intApp2 worker.LoadBalanceWorker.sticky_session=1

    Read the article

  • How can I tell if a host is bridged and acting as a router

    - by makerofthings7
    I would like to scan my DMZ for hosts that are bridged between subnets and have routing enabled. Since I have everything from VMWare servers, to load balancers on the DMZ I'm unsure if every host is configured correctly. What IP, ICMP, or SNMP (etc) tricks can I use to poll the hosts and determine if the host is acting as a router? I'm assuming this test would presume I know the target IP, but in a large network with many subnets, I'd have to test many different combinations of networks and see if I get success. Here is one example (ping): For each IP in the DMZ, arp for the host MAC Send a ICMP reply message to that host directed at an online host on each subnet I think that there is a more optimal way to get the information, namely from within ICMP/IP itself, but I'm not sure what low level bits to look for. I would also be interested if it's possible to determine the "router" status without knowing the subnets that the host may be connected to. This would be useful to know when improving our security posture.

    Read the article

  • Separate 2 networks with 1 Windows Server

    - by SamuGG
    The situation is: I have 1 router 192.168.1.1, 1 switch, 1 windows server and a basic LAN of devices accessing it. I need to split into 2 separate LANs with full Internet access each, but isolated from each other. Given that, the server is a Windows Server 2008 R2 with 2 NICs: NIC1: 192.168.1.2 NIC2: 192.168.2.2 The router has no dhcp configuration. Please, can anyone explain gracefully, step by step, what do I need to do? What would be the 2 NICs full configuration? What services do I need to install? I don't want devices on either network to see devices on the other network, they must be completely separate. I guess I'm missing the routing procedure step, but I have no idea how is that done. For example: tell the server that devices with gateway 192.168.2.2 must send traffic for internet to 192.168.1.1 router. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Restricting URL w.r.t HTTP method and setting different authentication mechanism for each

    - by user31745
    I shall start with an example. I want to restrict to POST requests only for http://path/to/logical/abc.xml and restrict to GET only for http://path/to/logical/def.xml. How do I put constraints like this as the paths are logical and location directive is not supported in .htaccess? The actual problem is to set different authentication type(basic, digest) on diff logical file.for eg. for abc.xml I want to authenticate for Basic type of authentication and def.xml with digest.

    Read the article

  • Apache routing vhosts to /var/www

    - by FHannes
    One user at my site has reported that he reaches the content at /var/www when browsing to any of the vhosts at my server. As far as I’m aware, my Apache server does not contain a document root that references this folder. On top of that, this user seems to be the only one experiencing the issue. According to his ISP, the issue isn’t caused by them, yet, on his mobile connection, he can access the site. When browsing to my server’s IP, he also receives the correct content from the default vhost. What could be the possible causes of this issue and how can I get it to stop? I’ve explored pretty much every option I could think of.

    Read the article

  • Excluding four IP's from a /32 static route

    - by Justin
    I have a Cisco ASA routing a /32 of public addresses (non RFC-1812) through a private link. When the device sees the destination address it selects the private route instead of going out over the public network. This works great but I am now trying to exclude 4 IP's from the private route. Traffic to these addresses should go over the public internet instead of being routed over the private network. Can I just add anothe route for these four IP's or do I have to modify the existing route for the /32?

    Read the article

  • Routing Traffic With OpenVPN

    - by user224277
    Few minutes ago i configured my VPN server, and actually I can connect to my VPN but all trafic is going through my normal home network. On my OpenVPN application I've got an information : Server IP: **.185.***.*10 Client IP: 10.8.0.6 Traffic: 7.3 KB in, 5.6 KB out Connected: 10 June 2014 19:21:59 So everything is connected but how I can setup on windows 7 that all trafic have to go through OpenVPN network card ?? Client setting : client dev tun proto udp # enter the server's hostname # or IP address here, and port number remote **.185.***.*10 1194 resolv-retry infinite nobind persist-key persist-tun # Use the full filepaths to your # certificates and keys ca ca.crt cert user1.crt key user1.key ns-cert-type server comp-lzo verb 6 Server setting : port 1194 proto udp dev tun # the full paths to your server keys and certs ca /etc/openvpn/keys/ca.crt cert /etc/openvpn/keys/server.crt key /etc/openvpn/keys/server.key dh /etc/openvpn/keys/dh2048.pem cipher BF-CBC # Set server mode, and define a virtual pool of IP # addresses for clients to use. Use any subnet # that does not collide with your existing subnets. # In this example, the server can be pinged at 10.8.0.1 server 10.8.0.0 255.255.255.0 # Set up route(s) to subnet(s) behind # OpenVPN server push "dhcp-option DNS 8.8.8.8" push "dhcp-option DNS 8.8.4.4" ifconfig-pool-persist /etc/openvpn/ipp.txt keepalive 10 120 status openvpn-status.log verb 6 and sysctl : net.ipv4.ip_forward=1 Thank you for your time and help.

    Read the article

  • how to design LAN connectivity between private and corporate ?

    - by maruti
    there is a bunch of servers connected to shared storage in a private LAN (10.x.x.x). this privateLAN is managed by a windows server (DHCP, DNS and directory services). how can these hosts be accessed from outside of this privateLAN? Eg. Remote desktop. can the NIC2 on each of the hosts be connected to the other public LAN (compromising speed or security? what are improtant considerations: additional hardware? like switches? routing&DNS software?

    Read the article

  • Routing connections through VPN based on hostname (not IP range)

    - by Michal M
    This bugs me immensly. I need to connect to client's network through VPN. But I definitely do not want to send all the traffic through client's network so this option is out of question. What I need basically is for the OS to know that all client's network subdomains (*.example.com) need to go through the VPN connection. I tried a couple of options: Changing order of services and setting the VPN on top, but this works the same as "Send all traffic over VPN connection". Using "VPN on Demand" option from network advanced options, but this feature is quite rubbish to be honest. Seems to work only in Safari (?!) and it doesn't route the connection, but it basically triggers the OS to connect to the selected VPN. The reason I need it to work based on hostnames rather than IP range is simple - my client has a lot of servers inside his network and it's impossible for me to remember all IPs. They are all within a range, but this doesn't help me remembering. Another option would be to put the VPN connection on the bottom of network services and untick "Send all traffic..." and then put all known hostnames in hosts file, but considering there could be hundreds of servers (therefore hostnames and ips too) it ridiculous job. And if new server appears on the network I'd need to edit the hosts file again. Sisyphean labours. However this works on Windows very simply. If a hostname is not available through default network interface, then it seems to try VPN connection and this works brilliantly. So, how can I achieve that on Mac, then? I know client's internal DNS addresses if that is of any help (like directing a certain domains through a different DNS)? PS. Using latest version 10.6.6. PS2. I am using VPN to access intranet, version control servers (svn://), samba shares and for SSH access to servers.

    Read the article

  • MAC-Address based routing

    - by d-fens
    Here is what i want to do: I have a bunch of systems, some might have the same Public-IP, i disable ARP. I have a Firewall (either IP Layer or bridge-FW) between these systems and the internet. Depending on the destination port of incoming IP-Packets to some of these Public-IPs i want to set the destinsation-Ethernet-Adress. So for instance System A has IP 8.8.8.8, mac de:ad:be:ef:de:ad, arp disabled System B has IP 8.8.8.8, mac 1f:1f:1f:1f:1f:1f, arp disabled Firewall has IP 8.8.8.1, arp disabled on that interface Incoming packet to IP 8.8.8.8 tcp dest port 100 Incoming packet to IP 8.8.8.8 tcp dest port 101 Firewall sets dest-mac for 1.) - de:ad:be:ef:de:ad Firewall sets dest-mac for 2.) - 1f:1f:1f:1f:1f:1f Second scenario: System A and System B establish outgoing TCP-Connections, and the firewall matches the dst-mac of the incoming IP-Packets (response packets) to the senders-mac address. is this possible in any way with linux and iptables? edit: i read ebtables might "work" in a hackish way for this purpose but i am not sure...

    Read the article

  • openvpn and selective routing

    - by mx2323
    hi everyone, whats the best way to configure openvpn clients to go selectively go about using an openvpn connection? i want to setup a vpn server for friends in china, but i dont want them to use it for everything, just so they can access sites like youtube, facebook, cnn, etc. while they are in china through the vpn (these are blocked). it would be nice if the vpn was a backup, so for instance if they are trying to go to facebook (which is blocked), it would go through the vpn connection once finding that the normal connection does not work. this would save a lot of bandwidth cost actually, and give them a better browsing experience. is this a iptable route thing? or a dns server that i push to my clients?

    Read the article

  • How to Retrieve URL Data With the PHP GET Function

    Learn how to use $_GET effectively to collect data on any PHP page. When a request is made to a PHP script, take advantage of the built in PHP Super Global Array $_GET which automatically stores any Request data. Learn the difference between the Request and Response cycle of the web.

    Read the article

  • How to redirect / route VPN traffic to back standing local network?

    - by Milkywayfarer
    There are two computers one "HOME" with Ubuntu 10.10 installed, and another "WORK" with WinXP installed. WORK PC is behind draconian firewall. However, let's imagine, that there is VPN connection installed between this 2 work stations, for example, with teamviewer, hamachi, openvpn, or by some other mean (by the way, what is the best mean for such purposes?). One is interested in working with WORK's LAN resources from his HOME computer via VPN. So my question is about configuration required to be done on WinXP machine (or, maybe on both machines), to make such interaction possible? I'm guessing that some routing stuff should be performed somewhere. But I don't know what exactly and how to do?

    Read the article

  • Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

    - by pdkl95
    I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

    Read the article

  • Session Id in url and/or cookie? [closed]

    - by Jacco
    Most people advice against rewriting every (internal) url to include the sessionId (both GET and POST). The standard argument against it seems to be:   If an attacker gets hold of the sessionId, they can hijack the session.   With the sessionId in the url, it easily leaks to the attacker (by referer etc.) But what if you put the sessionId in both an (encrypted) cookie and the url. if the sessionId in either the cookie or the url is missing or if they do not match, decline the request. Let's pretend the website in question is free of xss holes, the cookie encryption is strong enough, etc. etc. Then what is the increased risk of rewriting every url to include the sessionId? UPDATE: @Casper That is a very good point. so up to now there are 2 reasons: bad for search engines / SEO if used in public part of the website can cause trouble when users post an url with a session Id on a forum, send it trough email or bookmark the page apart from the:   It increases the security risk, but it is not clear what the increased risk is. some background info: I've a website that offers blog-like service to travellers. I cannot be sure cookies work nor can I require cookies to work. Most computers in internet cafes are old and not (even close to) up-to-date. The user has no control over them and the connection can be very unreliable for some more 'off the beaten path' locations. Binding the session to an IP-address is not possible, some places use load-balancing proxies with multiple IP addresses. (and from China there is The Great Firewall). Upon receiving the first cookie back, I flag cookies as mandatory. However, if the cookie was flagged as mandatory but not there, I ask for their password once more, knowing their session from the url. (Also cookies have a 1 time token in them, but that's not the point of this question). UPDATE 2: The conclusion seems to be that there are no extra *security* issues when you expose you session id trough the URL while also keeping a copy of the session id in an encrypted cookie. Do not hesitate to add additional information about any possible security implications

    Read the article

  • TSQL - How to URL Encode

    - by Billy Logan
    Hello Everyone, Looking for a bug free tested sql script that i could use in a UDF to encode a url through sql. Function would take in a URL and pass out a URL Encoded URL. I have seen a few, but all i have come across seem to have some flaws. Thanks in advance, Billy

    Read the article

  • Python requests - saving cookie for later url usage

    - by PythonRocks
    I been trying to get a cookie and post it to a url in later use in the program, but I cant seem to get the cookie parameters to work. Right now I have response = requests.get("url") But how exactly do I retrive cookies from this url and post them to a new url (the same cookies). The tutorial in requests is somewhat vague on the topic and gives examples I cannot test. Hope someone can help with further examples. This is python 2.7 btw.

    Read the article

  • Javascript newbie, how to choose between window.URL.createObjectURL() and window.webkitURL.createObjectURL() based on browser

    - by Rohith Raveendran
    From the firefox developer website I know that firefox use objectURL = window.URL.createObjectURL(file); to get url of file type, but in chrome and other webkit browsers we have window.webkitURL.createObjectURL() for detecting url. I don't know how to swap this functions based on browser engines, and I need it to be worked on both browsers (Chrome and firefox) https://developer.mozilla.org/en/DOM/window.URL.createObjectURL

    Read the article

  • Appfabric WF-WCF services retrive current url in codeactivity

    - by tartafe
    Hi, i have developed a wf-wcf services with a code activity and in it i want to retrive the current url of the service. If i disabling the persistence feature of appfabric i can retrive the url using HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString() If the persistence feature is enabled the httpcontext is null. There is a different way to retrive the url of th wcf that host my code activity? Thanks in advace

    Read the article

  • How to populate object dependencies with routing bapi

    - by Ben V
    I'm using BAPI_ROUTING_CREATE to interface routing creation/changes from an external system. There doesn't seem to be a way to pass VC object dependencies for each operation. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically update object dependencies? I'd prefer to avoid BDCs if possible.

    Read the article

  • what is the openid url of facebook ???

    - by zjm1126
    i made my openid in my site like this : livejournal: { name: 'LiveJournal', label: 'Enter your Livejournal username.', url: 'http://{username}.livejournal.com/' }, wordpress: { name: 'Wordpress', label: 'Enter your Wordpress.com username.', url: 'http://{username}.wordpress.com/' }, blogger: { name: 'Blogger', label: 'Your Blogger account', url: 'http://{username}.blogspot.com/' }, and i want add facebook on my openid provide, so what is the url of facebook openid ?? thanks but this can login use facebook: https://www.gigya.com/site/LogIn.aspx you can try it by yourself use facebook login.

    Read the article

  • why jsessionid is appended to each url?

    - by sword101
    greetings all i am deploying an app using spring framework on the apache tomcat when running the application from the tomcat directly,there's no jsessionid appended to any url at all but after mapping the application to the domain,and trying to run it i got a jsessionid appended to each url in the application,i tried the spring security attribute disable-url-rewriting but it doesn't work,it removes the jsessionid from the url but the application doesn't work no more,the user cannot login. so i guess it's another problem,any ideas why this happens,how to solve it? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Storing Requested URL in Global.asax without Session State in ASP.NET

    - by Mark Richman
    I have a complex URL rewriting scheme which breaks the built in Forms Authentication ReturnUrl mechanism. I would like to grab the requested URL for later redirection away from my login.aspx. I can get this URL in Application_BeginRequest via HttpContext.Current.Request.AppRelativeCurrentExecutionFilePath. However, Session state is not available in Application_BeginRequest. How can I store this URL prior to ASP.NET redirecting me to login.aspx?

    Read the article

  • Custom URL Scheme from settings.bundle

    - by S-T-R-E-G-A
    Is it possible to set a custom URL scheme to launch my app from a link but make this a user defined setting? My app relies on a user defined server url and I would like to be able to set a URL scheme to launch my app using the users custom URL from lets say an email link. I noticed the info.plist has these references ${EXECUTABLE_NAME} can I define my own custom reference maybe?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82  | Next Page >