Search Results

Search found 56300 results on 2252 pages for 'local working'.

Page 754/2252 | < Previous Page | 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761  | Next Page >

• Building out a well-structured service layer

  - by Chris Stewart

  First, I want to say that it has been awhile since I've gotten into the kind of detail I am at currently. Lately, I've been very much in the SharePoint world and my entire thought process was focused there for quite some time. I'm very glad to be creating databases again, writing "lower level" code to deal with data access, and so forth. I'm working on a very simple web application and taking the opportunity to reacquaint myself with the way I used to structure my projects and various layers of code. For instance, I might have created something like this the last time I went about building something basic from scratch: - MyProject/ -- Domain/ --- Impl/ ---- Person -- Model/ --- IPersonRepository --- Impl/ ---- PersonRepository : IPersonRepository -- Services --- IPersonService --- Impl/ ---- PersonService : IPersonService That would have been the project I did the real work in, and then referenced in the ASP.NET project. My approach was very much inspired by what I saw from the CodeCampServer project as at that time ASP.NET MVC was still very new and it was the only open project I could find actively being developed, and by solid people at that. What ways are you going about structuring your projects and code, when it comes to a general problem you're working on? Certainly various problems can put constraints on this, but assume it's a basic problem without specific needs that affect the structure and layout of your code.

  Read the article

• Conditional execution of EventTriggers in Silverlight 3

  - by Jason

  I'm currently working on the UI of a Silverlight application and need to be able to change the visual state of a control to one of two possible states based on it's current state when handling the same event trigger. For example: I have a control that sits partially in a clipping path, when I click the visible part of the control I want to change the state to "visible" and if I click it again when it is in its "visible" state I want to change to the "hidden" state. Example XAML: <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="MouseLeftButtonUp"> <ic:GoToStateAction StateName="Visible"/> <ic:GoToStateAction StateName="Hidden"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> Where "i" is "System.Windows.Interactivity;assembly=System.Windows.Interactivity" and "ic" is "Microsoft.Expression.Interactivity.Core;assembly=Microsoft.Expression.Interactions". I'm currently working in Expression Blend 3 and would prefer to have a XAML only solution but am not opposed to coding this if it is completely necessary. I have tried recording a change in the target state name in Blend but this did not work. Any thoughts on this?

  Read the article

• Generating URLs when not using an integer as an id?

  - by Synthesezia

  So I'm building a blog engine which has /articles/then-the-article-permalink as it's URL structure. I need to have prev and next links which will jump to the next article by pub_date, my code looks like this: In my articles#show @article = Article.find_by_permalink(params[:id]) @prev_article = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date < ?", @article.pub_date]) @next_picture = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date > ?", @article.pub_date]) And in my show.html.erb <%= link_to "Next", article_path(@next_article) %> <%= link_to 'Prev', article_path(@prev_article) %> In my articles model I have this: def to_param self.permalink end The specific error message I get is: article_url failed to generate from {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles", :id=>nil}, expected: {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles"}, diff: {:id=>nil} Without the prev and next everything is working fine but I'm out of ideas as to why this isn't working. Anyone want to helo?

  Read the article

• AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

  - by Soonts

  I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Update database every 30 minutes once

  - by Ravi

  Hi, I am working on C#.Net Windows application with SQL Server 2005. This project i am using ADO.Net Data-service for database maintenance. I am working on industrial automation domain, here data keep on reading more than 8 hours. After reading data from device based on the trigger i have periodically update data to database. for example start reading data on 9.00AM, trigger firing on 9.50AM. Once trigger fire, last 30 minutes(9.20 AM to 9.50AM) data store into data base. After trigger firing keep on reading data from device and store into data base. 10.00AM trigger going to off at time storing data to database has to be stop. Again trigger firing on 11.00AM. Once trigger fire, last 30 minutes(10.30 AM to 11.00AM) data store into data base. After trigger firing keep on reading data from device and store into data base. After 10.00AM trigger not firing means data keep on store locally. Here i don't know until trigger fire keep on reading data where & how to maintain temporarily , After trigger firing, last 30 minutes data how to bring and store into database. I don't know how to achieve it. It would be great if anyone could suggest any idea. Thanks

  Read the article

• Exporting de-aggregated data

  - by Ben

  I'm currently working on a data export feature for a survey application. We are using SQL2k8. We store data in a normalized format: QuestionId, RespondentId, Answer. We have a couple other tables that define what the question text is for the QuestionId and demographics for the RespondentId... Currently I'm using some dynamic SQL to generate a pivot that joins the question table to the answer table and creates an export, its working... The problem is that it seems slow and we don't have that much data (less than 50k respondents). Right now I'm thinking "why am I 'paying' to de-aggregate the data for each query? Why don't I cache that?" The data being exported is based on dynamic criteria. It could be "give me respondents that completed on x date (or range)" or "people that like blue", etc. Because of that, I think I have to cache at the respondent level, find out what respondents are being exported and then select their combined cached de-aggregated data. To me the quick and dirty fix is a totally flat table, RespondentId, Question1, Question2, etc. The problem is, we have multiple clients and that doesn't scale AND I don't want to have to maintain the flattened table as the survey changes. So I'm thinking about putting an XML column on the respondent table and caching the results of a SELECT * FROM Data FOR XML AUTO WHERE RespondentId = x. With that in place, I would then be able to get my export with filtering and XML calls into the XML column. What are you doing to export aggregated data in a flattened format (CSV, Excel, etc)? Does this approach seem ok? I worry about the cost of XML functions on larger result sets (think SELECT RespondentId, XmlCol.value('//data/question_1', 'nvarchar(50)') AS [Why is there air?], XmlCol.RinseAndRepeat)... Is there a better technology/approach for this? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Adding defaults and indexes to a script/generate command in a Rails Template?

  - by charliepark

  I'm trying to set up a Rails Template that would allow for comprehensive set-up of a specific Rails app. Using Pratik Naik's overview (http://m.onkey.org/2008/12/4/rails-templates), I was able to set up a couple of scaffolds and models, with a line that looks something like this ... generate("scaffold", "post", "title:string", "body:string") I'm now trying to add in Delayed Jobs, which normally has a migration file that looks like this: create_table :delayed_jobs, :force => true do |table| table.integer :priority, :default => 0 # Allows some jobs to jump to the front of the queue table.integer :attempts, :default => 0 # Provides for retries, but still fail eventually. table.text :handler # YAML-encoded string of the object that will do work table.text :last_error # reason for last failure (See Note below) table.datetime :run_at # When to run. Could be Time.now for immediately, or sometime in the future. table.datetime :locked_at # Set when a client is working on this object table.datetime :failed_at # Set when all retries have failed (actually, by default, the record is deleted instead) table.string :locked_by # Who is working on this object (if locked) table.timestamps end So, what I'm trying to do with the Rails template, is to add in that :default = 0 into the master template file. I know that the rest of the template's command should look like this: generate("migration", "createDelayedJobs", "priority:integer", "attempts:integer", "handler:text", "last_error:text", "run_at:datetime", "locked_at:datetime", "failed_at:datetime", "locked_by:string") Where would I put (or, rather, what is the syntax to add) the :default values in that? And if I wanted to add an index, what's the best way to do that?

  Read the article

• mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

  - by meeble

  I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

  Read the article

• PHP Preg_replace after a specific amount of characters with a conditional

  - by Marc Ripley

  I've been working on this for a bit, but my regex is weak. I need to check to see if a number is a whole number (single digit) and append a ".001" to it if so. The problem is, it's in the middle of a line with values separated by commas. MATERIALS,1,1,9999;1 4PL1 PB_Mel,,1,6,0.173,0.173,0.375,0,0.375,0,0,0,0,2,0,1,1 Needs to be MATERIALS,1,1,9999;1 4PL1 PB_Mel,,1.001,6,0.173,0.173,0.375,0,0.375,0,0,0,0,2,0,1,1 The line must start with "MATERIALS". There are more than one MATERIALS lines. The value will always be after 5 commas. I was trying something like this to even replace the number, but I don't think the approach is quite right: $stripped = preg_replace('/(MATERIALS)(,.*?){4}(,\d+?),/', '\2,', $stripped); I tried going through a preg_match_all for if process, to at least get the conditional working, but I still have to replace the lines. for($i=0;$i<sizeof($materialsLines[0]);$i++) { $section = explode(",",$materialsLines[0][$i]); if (strlen($section[5]) == 1) { $section[5] .= ".001"; } $materialsLines[0][$i] = implode(",",$section); }

  Read the article

• INSERT INTO table doesn't work???

  - by Joann

  I found a tutorial from nettuts and it has a source code in it so tried implementing it in my site.. It is working now. However, it doesn't have a Registration system so I am making one. The thing is, as I have expected, my code is not working... It doesn't seem to know how to INSERT into the database. Here's the function that inserts data into the db. function register_User($un, $email, $pwd) { $query = "INSERT INTO users( username, password, email ) VALUES(:uname, :pwd, :email) LIMIT 1"; if($stmt = $this->conn->prepare($query)) { $stmt->bind_param(':uname', $un); $stmt->bind_param(':pwd', $pwd); $stmt->bind_param(':email', $email); $stmt->execute(); if($stmt->fetch()) { $stmt->close(); return true; } else return "The username or email you entered is already in use..."; } } I have debugged the connection to the database from within the class, it says it's connected. I tried using this method instead: function register($un, $email, $pwd) { $registerquery = $this->conn->query( "INSERT INTO users(uername, password, email) VALUES('".$un."', '".$pwd."', '".$email."')"); if($registerquery) { echo "<h4>Success</h4>"; } else { echo "<h4>Error</h4>"; } } And it echos "Error"... Can you please help me pen point the error in this??? :(

  Read the article

• MYSQL JOIN WHERE ISSUES - need some kind of if condition

  - by Breezer

  Hi Well this will be hard to explain but ill do my best The thing is i have 4 tables all with a specific column to relate to eachother. 1 table with users(agent_users) , 1 with working hours(agent_pers), 1 with sold items(agent_stat),1 with project(agent_pro) the user and the project table is irrelevant in the issue at hand but to give you a better understanding why certain tables is included in my query i decided to still mention them =) The thing is that I use 2 pages to insert data to the working hour and the sold items during that time tables, then i have a third page to summarize everything for current month, the query for that is as following: SELECT *, SUM(sv_p_kom),SUM(sv_p_gick),SUM(sv_p_lunch) FROM (( agent_users LEFT JOIN agent_pers ON agent_users.sv_aid = agent_pers.sv_p_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_stat ON agent_pers.sv_p_uid = agent_stat.sv_s_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_pro ON agent_pers.sv_p_pid=agent_pro.p_id WHERE MONTH(agent_pers.sv_p_datum) =7 GROUP BY sv_aname so the problem is now that i dont want sold items from previous months to get included in the data received, i know i could solve that by simple adding in the WHERE part MONTH(agent_stat.sv_s_datum) =7 but then if no items been sold that month no data at all will show up not the time or anything. Any aid on how i could solve this is greatly appreciated. if there's something that's not so clear dont hesitate to ask and ill try my best to answer. after all my english isn't the best out there :P regards breezer

  Read the article

• Alternative to using c:out to prevent XSS

  - by lynxforest

  I'm working on preventing cross site scripting (XSS) in a Java, Spring based, Web application. I have already implemented a servlet filter similar to this example http://greatwebguy.com/programming/java/simple-cross-site-scripting-xss-servlet-filter/ which sanitizes all the input into the application. As an extra security measure I would like to also sanitize all output of the application in all JSPs. I have done some research to see how this could be done and found two complementary options. One of them is the use of Spring's defaultHtmlEscape attribute. This was very easy to implement (a few lines in web.xml), and it works great when your output is going through one of spring's tags (ie: message, or form tags). The other option I have found is to not directly use EL expressions such as ${...} and instead use <c:out value="${...}" /> That second approach works perfectly, however due to the size of the application I am working on (200+ JSP files). It is a very cumbersome task to have to replace all inappropriate uses of EL expressions with the c:out tag. Also it would become a cumbersome task in the future to make sure all developers stick to this convention of using the c:out tag (not to mention, how much more unreadable the code would be). Is there alternative way to escape the output of EL expressions that would require fewer code modifications? Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• Upgraded to Xcode 4 -- Endless stream of duplicate symbol errors causing build errors

  - by D-Nice

  Everything was working perfectly fine in Xcode 3 yesterday before I upgraded. So I completed the upgrade, restarted my computer, and opened my old project. I had to reconfigure a few settings like the header paths so that I could begin to compile. I'm using AdWhirl for ad mediation, and at this point my errors begin to read something like duplicate symbol _OBJC_METACLASS_$_SBJSON in /Users/Admin/Desktop/TMapLiteAdwhirl/AdWhirl/MMSDK/libMMSDK.a(SBJSON.o) and /Users/Admin/Library/Developer/Xcode/DerivedData/TruxMapLite-bgpylibztethnlhkfkdumpvrjvgy/Build/Intermediates/TruxMapLite.build/Debug-iphoneos/TruxMapLite.build/Objects-normal/armv6/SBJSON.o for architecture armv6 The library it's referring to is the SDK for one of the ad networks I'm including in AdWhirl. Both of the 'duplicate symbols' refer to the SAME FILE, but they use different paths. If I had still had XCode 3, I would simply try excluding these libraries from the build path, but I have no idea how that can be done in Xcode 4. I've tried everything all the way down to deleting the library and all associated files from my project, but when I do this, i will simply get the same type of error for a different library in the AdWhirl directory. This is incredibly frustrating because before my upgrade everything was working smoothly and I was prepared to submit my binary. If anyone has any advice, id be more than happy to give it a try. Thanks!

  Read the article

• RTTI Dynamic array TValue Delphi 2010

  - by user558126

  Hello I have a question. I am a newbie with Run Time Type Information from Delphi 2010. I need to set length to a dynamic array into a TValue. You can see the code. Type TMyArray = array of integer; TMyClass = class publihed function Do:TMyArray; end; function TMyClass.Do:TMyArray; begin SetLength(Result,5); for i:=0 to 4 Result[i]=3; end; ....... ....... ...... y:TValue; Param:array of TValue; ......... y=Methods[i].Invoke(Obj,Param);//delphi give me a DynArray type kind, is working, Param works to any functions. if Method[i].ReturnType.TypeKind = tkDynArray then//is working... begin I want to set length for y to 10000//i don't know how to write. end; I don't like Generics Collections.

  Read the article

• Invert the 1bbp color under a rectangle.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I am working with GDI+, the image I am working with is a 1bbp image. What i would like to do is draw a rectangle on the image and everything under that rectangle will be inverted (white pixels will become black and black pixels become white). All of the sample code I have seen is for 8 bit RGB color scale images, and I don't think the techniques they use will work for me. Here is the code I have so far. This is the parent control, one of the Epl2.IDrawableCommand's will be the command that does the inverting. protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { base.OnPaint(e); if (Label != null) { using (Bitmap drawnLabel = new Bitmap((int)((float)Label.LabelHeight * _ImageScaleFactor), (int)((float)Label.LableLength *(int) _ImageScaleFactor), System.Drawing.Imaging.PixelFormat.Format1bppIndexed)) { using (Graphics drawBuffer = Graphics.FromImage(drawnLabel)) { drawBuffer.ScaleTransform(_ImageScaleFactor, _ImageScaleFactor); foreach (Epl2.IDrawableCommand cmd in Label.Collection) { cmd.Paint(drawBuffer); } drawBuffer.ResetTransform(); } drawnLabel.RotateFlip(Rotation); pbLabelDrawArea.Size = drawnLabel.Size; using (Graphics drawArea = pbLabelDrawArea.CreateGraphics()) { drawArea.Clear(Color.White); drawArea.DrawImage(drawnLabel, new Point(0, 0)); } } } } What should I put in the Paint(Graphic g) for this command?

  Read the article

• Publishing WCF .NET 3.5 to IIS 5.1

  - by Adam

  I've been developing a WCF web service using .NET 3.5 with IIS7 and it works perfectly on my local computer. I tried publishing it to a server running IIS 5.1 and even though I can view the WSDL in my browser, the client application doesn't seem to be connecting to it correctly. I launched a packet sniffing app (Charles Proxy) and the response for the first message comes back to the client empty (0 bytes). Every message after the first one times out. The WCF service is part of a larger application that uses ASP .NET 3.5. That application has been working fine on IIS 5.1 for awhile now so I think it's something specific to WCF. I also tried throwing an exception in the SVC file to see if it made it that far and the exception never got thrown so I have a feeling it's something more low level that's not working. Any thoughts? Is there anything I need to install on the IIS5 server? If so how am I still able to view the WSDL in my browser?

  Read the article

• A question about entities, roles and interfaces in Entity Framework 4.

  - by mvole

  Hi, I am an experienced .NET developer but new to EF - so please bear with me. I will use an example of a college application to illustrate my problem. I have these user roles: Lecturer, Student, Administrator. In my code I envisage working with these entities as distinct classes so e.g. a Lecturer teaches a collection of Students. And work with 'is Student' 'TypeOf' etc. Each of these entities share lots of common properties/methods e.g. they can all log onto the system and do stuff related to their role. In EF designer I can create a base entity Person (or User...) and have Lecturer, Student and Administrator all inherit from that. The difficulty I have is that a Lecturer can be an Administrator - and in fact on occasion a Student can be a Lecturer. If I were to add other entities such as Employee and Warden then this gets even more of an issue. I could presumably work with Interfaces so a person could implement ILecturer and IStudent, however I do not see how this fits within EF. I would like to work within the EF designer if possible and I'm working model-first (coding in C#). So any help and advice/samples would be very welcome and much appreciated. Thanks

  Read the article

• PHP mail() function not delivering mail

  - by Ryan Jones

  Hi there, I have a slight problem. I am using a working script (works on my testing account - shared server) to send a mail through PHP using the mail() function. I just got a dedicated server, and I haven't been able to get the function to work. I've spent the last 10 or so hours reading various documentations on BIND (for the SPF record), dovecot, sendmail and postfix trying various things to get this to work. There is clearly something that I am missing. So we know the PHP code works fine. All the headers are fine everything. We know this as it's a direct copy from my testing account. So the problem must arise somewhere in the server config. The path to sendmail is correct, and sendmail is (apparently) working fine. I've set up the script to now deliver "Sent" or "Error" based on the boolean result from the PHP mail() function. That is: if(mail($blah,$blah,$blah,$blah,$blah)) { echo "Sent"; } else { echo "Error";} And the result ALWAYS comes up as "Sent" - however, the email never arrives. Can someone suggest things to check, as I'm completely new to this (24 hours or so!). Thanks in advance. Ryan

  Read the article

• Shrinking the transaction log of a mirrored SQL Server 2005 database

  - by Peter Di Cecco

  I've been looking all over the internet and I can't find an acceptable solution to my problem, I'm wondering if there even is a solution without a compromise... I'm not a DBA, but I'm a one man team working on a huge web site with no extra funding for extra bodies, so I'm doing the best I can. Our backup plan sucks, and I'm having a really hard time improving it. Currently, there are two servers running SQL Server 2005. I have a mirrored database (no witness) that seems to be working well. I do a full backup at noon and at midnight. These get backed up to tape by our service provider nightly, and I burn the backup files to dvd weekly to keep old records on hand. Eventually I'd like to switch to log shipping, since mirroring seems kinda pointless without a witness server. The issue is that the transaction log is growing non-stop. From the research I've done, it seems that I can't truncate a log file of a mirrored database. So how do I stop the file from growing!? Based on this web page, I tried this: USE dbname GO CHECKPOINT GO BACKUP LOG dbname TO DISK='NULL' WITH NOFORMAT, INIT, NAME = N'dbnameLog Backup', SKIP, NOREWIND, NOUNLOAD GO DBCC SHRINKFILE('dbname_Log', 2048) GO But that didn't work. Everything else I've found says I need to disable the mirror before running the backup log command in order for it to work. My Question (TL;DR) How can I shrink my transaction log file without disabling the mirror?

  Read the article

• Wrapping unmanaged C++ with C++/CLI - a proper approach.

  - by Jamie

  Hi there, as stated in the title, I want to have my old C++ library working in managed .NET. I think of two possibilities: 1) I might try to compile the library with /clr and try "It Just Works" approach. 2) I might write a managed wrapper to the unmanaged library. First of all, I want to have my library working FAST, as it was in unmanaged environment. Thus, I am not sure if the first approach will not cause a large decrease in performance. However, it seems to be faster to implement (not a right word :-)) (assuming it will work for me). On the other hand, I think of some problems that might appear while writing a wrapper (e.g. how to wrap some STL collection (vector for instance)?) I think of writing a wrapper residing in the same project as the unmanaged C++ resides - is that a reasonable approach (e.g. MyUnmanagedClass and MyManagedClass in the same project, the second wrapping the other)? What would you suggest in that problem? Which solution is going to give me better performance of the resulting code? Thank you in advance for any suggestions and clues! Cheers

  Read the article

• Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

  - by baldtrol

  Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Custom Server to communicate with my software?

  - by Zachary Brown

  I am working on a major project that I need for work. I am working on a project that requires software validation. I would like this to be handled by a custom server I will write in Python, this server will be the "gateway" between the user and product activation. The software program will be purchased from other companies in volume licensing. So this is what I need the server to do: 1). The user clicks to activate their software. (easy, all is good so far) 2). The software gets the distributor's id from another online server. ( this is also easy, and already coded.) 3). Then, the software asks my custom server if the distributor is allowed to activate anymore copies of the software. 4). The server will then check ( an online encoded text file ) to see if the distributor can or can't. If they can, it will tell the software that registration can proceede, at which point the software will pass the software serial number to the server. I have done my best to explain what I am trying to accomplish, but if something is not quite sensible, please let me know. Thanks to all members of Stackoverflow.com for the help in the past, and those who will help me now. I am using Python 2.6 Win. XP Home Edition

  Read the article

• Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

  - by colinodell

  I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• How do you program a windows service in C# to start an application for a user?

  - by Swoop

  Is it possible to start a program so that it is available to a user with a windows service? I have been working with the Process.Start() in C#. I can get the service to kickoff some sort of process that appears in the Task Manager list under processes. However, the program nevers appears on the screen. By default, it runs under the user name "SYSTEM". I have adjusted the "Log On" option in the service manager to match the person logged into the computer, but this does not cause a window to appear either. I feel like I am either missing a simple setting, or need to take a different direction for this. Below is the code I have been working with to start up Firefox as a test app. private void startRunDap() { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.FileName = "Firefox"; startInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Normal; startInfo.UseShellExecute = true; Process.Start(startInfo); //Process.Start("Firefox"); }

  Read the article

• Is Assert.Fail() considered bad practice?

  - by Mendelt

  I use Assert.Fail a lot when doing TDD. I'm usually working on one test at a time but when I get ideas for things I want to implement later I quickly write an empty test where the name of the test method indicates what I want to implement as sort of a todo-list. To make sure I don't forget I put an Assert.Fail() in the body. When trying out xUnit.Net I found they hadn't implemented Assert.Fail. Of course you can always Assert.IsTrue(false) but this doesn't communicate my intention as well. I got the impression Assert.Fail wasn't implemented on purpose. Is this considered bad practice? If so why? @Martin Meredith That's not exactly what I do. I do write a test first and then implement code to make it work. Usually I think of several tests at once. Or I think about a test to write when I'm working on something else. That's when I write an empty failing test to remember. By the time I get to writing the test I neatly work test-first. @Jimmeh That looks like a good idea. Ignored tests don't fail but they still show up in a separate list. Have to try that out. @Matt Howells Great Idea. NotImplementedException communicates intention better than assert.Fail() in this case @Mitch Wheat That's what I was looking for. It seems it was left out to prevent it being abused in another way I abuse it.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761  | Next Page >