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• How to implement Master-Detail with Multi-Selection in WPF?

  - by gehho

  Hi, I plan to create a typical Master-Detail scenario, i.e. a collection of items displayed in a ListView via DataBinding to an ICollectionView, and details about the selected item in a separate group of controls (TextBoxes, NumUpDowns...). No problem so far, actually I have already implemented a pretty similar scenario in an older project. However, it should be possible to select multiple items in the ListView and get the appropriate shared values displayed in the detail view. This means, if all selected items have the same value for a property, this value should be displayed in the detail view. If they do not share the same value, the corresponding control should provide some visual clue for the user indicating this, and no value should be displayed (or an "undefined" state in a CheckBox for example). Now, if the user edits the value, this change should be applied to all selected items. Further requirements are: MVVM compatibility (i.e. not too much code-behind) Extendability (new properties/types can be added later on) Does anyone have experience with such a scenario? Actually, I think this should be a very common scenario. However, I could not find any details on that topic anywhere. Thanks! gehho. PS: In the older project mentioned above, I had a solution using a subclass of the ViewModel which handles the special case of multi-selection. It checked all selected items for equality and returned the appropriate values. However, this approach had some drawbacks and somehow seemed like a hack because (besides other smelly things) it was necessary to break the synchronization between the ListView and the detail view and handle it manually.

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• PyGTK/GIO: monitor directory for changes recursively

  - by detly

  Take the following demo code (from the GIO answer to this question), which uses a GIO FileMonitor to monitor a directory for changes: import gio def directory_changed(monitor, file1, file2, evt_type): print "Changed:", file1, file2, evt_type gfile = gio.File(".") monitor = gfile.monitor_directory(gio.FILE_MONITOR_NONE, None) monitor.connect("changed", directory_changed) import glib ml = glib.MainLoop() ml.run() After running this code, I can then create and modify child nodes and be notified of the changes. However, this only works for immediate children (I am aware that the docs don't say otherwise). The last of the following shell commands will not result in a notification: touch one mkdir two touch two/three Is there an easy way to make it recursive? I'd rather not manually code something that looks for directory creation and adds a monitor, removing them on deletion, etc. The intended use is for a VCS file browser extension, to be able to cache the statuses of files in a working copy and update them individually on changes. So there might by anywhere from tens to thousands (or more) directories to monitor. I'd like to just find the root of the working copy and add the file monitor there. I know about pyinotify, but I'm avoiding it so that this works under non-Linux kernels such as FreeBSD or... others. As far as I'm aware, the GIO FileMonitor uses inotify underneath where available, and I can understand not emphasising the implementation to maintain some degree of abstraction, but it suggested to me that it should be possible. (In case it matters, I originally posted this on the PyGTK mailing list.)

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• SWT: problems with clicking button after using setEnabled() on Linux

  - by Laimoncijus

  Hi, I have a strange case with SWT and Button after using setEnabled() - seems if I disable and enable button at least once - I cannot properly click with mouse on it anymore... Already minify code to very basic: import org.eclipse.swt.SWT; import org.eclipse.swt.events.SelectionEvent; import org.eclipse.swt.events.SelectionListener; import org.eclipse.swt.layout.GridLayout; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Button; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Shell; public class TestButton { public TestButton() { Display display = new Display(); Shell shell = new Shell(display); GridLayout mainLayout = new GridLayout(); shell.setLayout(mainLayout); shell.setSize(100, 100); Button testButton = new Button(shell, SWT.PUSH); testButton.addSelectionListener(new TestClickListener()); testButton.setText("Click me!"); //testButton.setEnabled(false); //testButton.setEnabled(true); shell.open(); while (!shell.isDisposed()) { if (!display.readAndDispatch()) display.sleep(); } display.dispose(); } class TestClickListener implements SelectionListener { @Override public void widgetDefaultSelected(SelectionEvent e) { } @Override public void widgetSelected(SelectionEvent e) { System.out.println("Click!"); } } public static void main(String[] args) { new TestButton(); } } When I keep these 2 lines commented out - I can properly click on a button and always get "Click!" logged, but if I uncomment them - then I can't click on button properly with mouse anymore - button visually seems to be clicked, but nothing is logged... Am I doing something wrong here? Or maybe it's some kind of bug on Linux platform? Because on Mac running the same code I never experienced such problems... Thanks for any hint! P.S. Running code on Ubuntu 9.10, Gnome + Compiz, Sun Java 1.6.0.16

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• Re-using aggregate level formulas in SQL - any good tactics?

  - by Cade Roux

  Imagine this case, but with a lot more component buckets and a lot more intermediates and outputs. Many of the intermediates are calculated at the detail level, but a few things are calculated at the aggregate level: DECLARE @Profitability AS TABLE ( Cust INT NOT NULL ,Category VARCHAR(10) NOT NULL ,Income DECIMAL(10, 2) NOT NULL ,Expense DECIMAL(10, 2) NOT NULL ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 1, 'Software', 100, 50 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 2, 'Software', 100, 20 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 3, 'Software', 100, 60 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 4, 'Software', 500, 400 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 5, 'Hardware', 1000, 550 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 6, 'Hardware', 1000, 250 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 7, 'Hardware', 1000, 700 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 8, 'Hardware', 5000, 4500 ) ; SELECT Cust ,Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability GROUP BY Cust SELECT Category ,Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability GROUP BY Category SELECT Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability Notice how the same formulae have to be used at the different aggregation levels. This results in code duplication. I have thought of using UDFs (either scalar or table valued with an OUTER APPLY, since many of the final results may share intermediates which have to be calculated at the aggregate level), but in my experience the scalar and multi-statement table-valued UDFs perform very poorly. Also thought about using more dynamic SQL and applying the formulas by name, basically. Any other tricks, techniques or tactics to keeping these kinds of formulae which need to be applied at different levels in sync and/or organized?

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• Why is an Add method required for { } initialization?

  - by Dan Tao

  To use initialization syntax like this: var contacts = new ContactList { { "Dan", "[email protected]" }, { "Eric", "[email protected]" } }; ...my understanding is that my ContactList type would need to define an Add method that takes two string parameters: public void Add(string name, string email); What's a bit confusing to me about this is that the { } initializer syntax seems most useful when creating read-only or fixed-size collections. After all it is meant to mimic the initialization syntax for an array, right? (OK, so arrays are not read-only; but they are fixed size.) And naturally it can only be used when the collection's contents are known (at least the number of elements) at compile-time. So it would almost seem that the main requirement for using this collection initializer syntax (having an Add method and therefore a mutable collection) is at odds with the typical case in which it would be most useful. I'm sure I haven't put as much thought into this matter as the C# design team; it just seems that there could have been different rules for this syntax that would have meshed better with its typical usage scenarios. Am I way off base here? Is the desire to use the { } syntax to initialize fixed-size collections not as common as I think? What other factors might have influenced the formulation of the requirements for this syntax that I'm simply not thinking of?

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• Extracting [] elements from form collection - mvc - should use icollection but have mix of types

  - by bergin

  hi there. have looked at Phil Haacks project on books at http://haacked.com/archive/2008/10/23/model-binding-to-a-list.aspx which has been useful, but I have a mix of data types. I use a modelview so that i can have a mix of objects, in this case: Order (ie order.id, order.date etc), Customer, SoilSamplingOrder and a list of SoilSamplingSubJobs which is like this [0].id, [0].field, [1].id, [1].field etc Perhaps I should be using ICollection instead of List? I had problems getting UpdateModel to work so I used an extract from collection method. the first 4 method calls : orderRepository.FindOrder(id); etc give the model the original to be edited. but after this point i'm a little lost in how to update the subjobs. I hope i have delineated enough to make sense of the problem. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Order order = orderRepository.FindOrder(id); Customer cust = orderRepository.FindCustomer(order.customer_id); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssj = orderRepository.FindSubOrders(id); SoilSamplingOrder sso = orderRepository.FindSoilSampleOrder(id); try { UpdateModel(order, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(cust, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssjs = orderRepository.extractSSSJ(collection); foreach (var sj in sssjs) UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=order.order_id}); } catch { return View(); } }

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• How to know if a graphics card provides hardware rendering for wpf

  - by happyclicker

  I have to run a wpf-app in an environment that has all the same dell-pc's with an intel gma 3000 graphics chip (onbard, Q963/Q965). The app renders only with software rendering (Stated so by the RenderCapability.Tier-property (it says the rendering tier is 0!) and I also see this with Perforator). On all of this machines, DirectX 9c is installed and DXDiag states on many but not on all of this machines, that Direct-3d and Direct-Draw-acceleration is activated. I checked also the registry if the setup of these machines disabled wpf-hw rendering but that's also not the case. On one machine I also updated the video-driver and dx with no success. I found a lot of ressources that say, that directX must be installed and active, so that wpf does not use its own software renderer but uses the DirectX HW-Rendering. But on the above machines, DX9c is installed but there is no hw rendering. May it be that wpf uses dx-graphicscards but does the communication with the graphics card direct and not over dx? How can I find out if a specific graphics-chip has to support hardware rendering for wpf or not. The statement that the graphics card must support dx 9c seems not to be the only condition. The second question is, if wpf renders through dx, is this done through direct-3d or is direct-draw used. Is there any good documentation on this topic?

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• WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

  - by PaN1C_Showt1Me

  Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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• Log4net Logging Problem : Very simple file appender logging not working

  - by contactmatt

  Here's my web.config information <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> </configSections> <log4net> <root> <level value="ALL" /> </root> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="c:\temp\log-file.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.SimpleLayout" /> </appender> </log4net> ... Here's the code that initalizes the logger protected void SendMessage() { log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Contact)); ... log.Info("here we go!"); log.Debug("debug afasf"); ... } it doesn't work, no matter what I seem to do. I am referencing the 'log4net.dll' correctly, and by debugging the application i can see that the log object is getting initiated properly. This is a asp.net 3.5 framework web project. Any ideas/suggestions? I thought originally this error may be due to a file write permission constraint, but that doesn't seem to be the case (or so I think).

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• Method binding to base method in external library can't handle new virtual methods "between"

  - by Berg

  Lets say I have a library, version 1.0.0, with the following contents: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { } and I reference this library in a console application with the following contents: class Program { static void Main( string[] args ) { var c3 = new Class3(); c3.Test(); Console.ReadKey(); } } public class Class3 : ClassLibrary1.Class2 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Console:Class3 - Test"); base.Test(); } } Running the program will output the following: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test If I build a new version of the library, version 2.0.0, looking like this: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test V2" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Library:Class2 - Test V2"); base.Test(); } } and copy this version to the bin folder containing my console program and run it, the results are: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test V2 I.e, the Class2.Test method is never executed, the base.Test call in Class3.Test seems to be bound to Class1.Test since Class2.Test didn't exist when the console program was compiled. This was very surprising to me and could be a big problem in situations where you deploy new versions of a library without recompiling applications. Does anyone else have experience with this? Are there any good solutions? This makes it tempting to add empty overrides that just calls base in case I need to add some code at that level in the future...

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• DIY intellisense on XPath - design approach? (WinForms app)

  - by Cheeso

  I read the DIY Intellisense article on code project, which was referenced from the Mimic Intellisense? question here on SO. I wanna do something similar, DIY intellisense, but for XPath not C#. The design approach used there makes sense to me: maintain a tree of terms, and when the "completion character" is pressed, in the case of C#, a dot, pop up the list of possible completions in a textfield. Then allow the user to select a term from the textfield either through typing, arrow keys, or double-click. How would you apply this to XPath autocompletion? should there be an autocomplete key? In XPath there is no obvious separator key like "dot" in C#. should the popup be triggered explicitly in some other way, let's say ctrl-. ? or should the parser try to autocomplete continuously? If I do the autocomplete continuously, how to scale it properly? There are 93 xpath functions, not counting overloads. I certainly don't want to popup a list of 93 choices. How do I decide when I've narrowed it enough to offer a useful lsit of possible completions? How to populate the tree of possible completions? For C#, it's easy: walk the type space via reflection. At a first level, the "syntax tree" for C# seems like a single tree, and the list of completions at any point depends on the graph of nodes you've traversed to that point. Typing System.Console. traverses to a certain node in that tree, and the list of completions is the set of child nodes available at that node in the tree. On the other hand, the xpath syntax seems like it is a "flatter" tree - function names, axis names, literals. Does this make sense? what have I not considered?

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• Ruby on Rails: How to sanitize a string for SQL when not using find and other built-in methods?

  - by williamjones

  I'm trying to sanitize a string that involves user input without having to resort to manually crafting my own possibly buggy regex if possible. There are a number of methods in Rails that can allow you to enter in native SQL commands, how do people escape user input for those? The question I'm asking is a broad one, but in my particular case, I'm working with a column in my Postgres database that Rails does not natively understand as far as I know, the tsvector, which holds plain text search information. Rails is able to write and read from it as if it's a string, however, unlike a string, it doesn't seem to be automatically escaping it when I do things like vector= inside the model. For example, when I do model.name='::', where name is a string, it works fine. When I do model.vector='::' it errors out: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: PGError: ERROR: syntax error in tsvector: "::" "vectors" = E'::' WHERE "id" = 1 This seems to be a problem caused by lack of escaping of the semicolons, and I can manually set the vector='\:\:' fine. I also had the bright idea, maybe I can just call something like: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute "UPDATE medias SET vectors = ? WHERE id = 1", "::" However, this syntax doesn't work, because the raw SQL commands don't have access to find's method of escaping and inputting strings by using the ? mark. This strikes me as the same problem as calling connection.execute with any type of user input, as it all boils down to sanitizing the strings, but I can't seem to find any way to manually call Rails' SQL string sanitization methods. Can anyone provide any advice?

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• Sorting, Filtering and Paging in ASP.NET MVC

  - by ali62b

  What is the best approach to implement these features and which part of project would involved? I see some example of JavaScript grids, but I'm talking about a general approach which best fits the MVC architecture. I've considered configuring routes and models to implement these features but I don't have a clear idea that if this is the right approach to implementing such features. On the one hand, I think if we put logic in routes (item/page/sort/), we would have benefits like bookmarking and avoiding JavaScript. On the other hand if we use JavaScript grids, we can have behavior like the old school grid views in ASP.NET web forms. I find that using HTML helpers may be useful for paging, but have no idea if they are good for sorting or not. I've looked at jQuery, tableSorter and quick search plug-ins, but they work just on the currently-fetched data and won't help in real sorting and filtering that may need to touch the database. I have some thoughts on using these tools side by side with AJAX to get something which works, but I have no idea if there are similar efforts done yet anywhere. Another approach I looked at was using Dynamic Data on web forms, but I didn't find any suggestions out there as to whether or not it is a good idea to integrate MVC and DD. I know implementing filtering and sorting for an individual case is simple (although it has some issues like using Dynamic LINQ, which is not yet a standard approach), but creating a sorting or filtering tool which works in all cases is the idea I'm looking for. (Maybe this is because I want have something in hand when web form developers are wondering why I'm writing same code each time I want to implement a sort scenario for different Entities).

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• Font not showing bullet points

  - by Hanpan

  I have embedded my font using the embed meta tag, along which the entire range of Unicode characters... here is my CustomTextField class: [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial.ttf',fontName='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold.ttf',fontName='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_BOLD:Class; public static const DEFAULT_FONT:String = "CustomFont"; public static const DEFAULT_TEXT_COLOUR:int = 0x000000; public static const DEFAULT_TEXT_SIZE:int = 14; private var _tf:TextFormat = new TextFormat(DEFAULT_FONT, DEFAULT_TEXT_SIZE, DEFAULT_TEXT_COLOUR); public function CustomTextField():void { Font.registerFont(CustomTextField.MY_FONT); Font.registerFont(CustomTextField.MY_FONT_BOLD); _tf.size = 16; antiAliasType = AntiAliasType.ADVANCED; sharpness = 0; defaultTextFormat = _tf; autoSize = TextFieldAutoSize.LEFT; embedFonts = true; } public override function set htmlText(value:String):void { super.htmlText = value; setTextFormat(_tf); } For some reason, using tags intends the text perfectly, but I am not seeing any bullet points. The font is just standard Arial, so it isn't a case of the font missing the bullet character. Does anyone have any idea as to why Flex is not showing the bullet point characters?

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• TextBox should display text in hexadecimal in a specific format

  - by Owais Wani

  I have a textbox in my xaml file which is editable. Now according to my project requirements content in textbox should only be 0-9 and a-f (hexadecimal values) and textbox should take the input based on hexadecimal values. Demonstratation: 12 ab 32 a5 64 Now if my cursor is at the end and i go on pressing backspace, it shud remove the values as it happens in a general text box. Now If my cursor is at the beginning of a5, and i press "delete key", the value should become like: 12 ab 32 56 4 If my cursor is at the end of a5 and i press the 'delete key" nothing should happen. I had done this successful in my C++ application as follows: void CMSP430CommPanel::textEditorTextChanged (TextEditor& editor) { if(&editor == m_texti2cWrite) { int count = 0; int location; String text1 = m_texti2cWrite->getText(); String text = m_texti2cWrite->getText().removeCharacters(" "); String hexString = String::empty; int countCaret = m_texti2cWrite->getCaretPosition(); for(int i=0; i < text.length(); i++) { hexString = hexString + String (&text[i], 1); if((i+1) % 2 == 0) { if(i != text.length()-1) { hexString = hexString + T(" "); count ++; } } count ++; } m_texti2cWrite->setText(hexString,false); if(text1.length() == m_texti2cWrite->getCaretPosition()) { m_texti2cWrite->setCaretPosition(count); } else { m_texti2cWrite->setCaretPosition(countCaret); } } } where m_texti2cWrite is the name given to textbox. How can i implement the same case in my wpf application which is MVVM based. I have a textbox which shud take inputs as I said above. please help!!!

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• Excel COM Add-In dialog interrupts script

  - by usac

  Hi all! I have written an Excel COM Add-In in C++ for automation of Excel with VBA. It contains an own dialog showing some general informations about the Add-In. Now i create a button in Excel that opens the dialog. Leaving the dialog with the escape key leads to an Excel message that the script is being interrupted instead of just closing the dialog. I could suppress the interruption message with: Application.EnableCancelKey = xlDisabled But that seems not to be the solution as the script can not be interrupted any more. Here is an example how i use VBA to open the dialog: Private Sub ShowAboutDialog_Click() Dim oComAddIn As COMAddIn Set oComAddIn = Application.COMAddIns.Item("MyComAddIn.Example") oComAddIn.Connect = True Call oComAddIn.Object.ShowAboutDlg End Sub My guess is that the problem is somewhere in the message handler of the dialog: INT_PTR CALLBACK CAboutDialog::AboutDlg( HWND hwndDlg, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { switch(uMsg) { ... case WM_COMMAND: if (LOWORD(wParam) == IDOK || LOWORD(wParam) == IDCANCEL) { // Here, the ESCAPE key should also be trapped? EndDialog(hwndDlg, LOWORD(wParam)); return TRUE; } ... } return FALSE; } The Dialog is created with: DialogBox(g_hModule, MAKEINTRESOURCE(IDD_ABOUT), hWndParent, (DLGPROC)AboutDlg) Thanks a lot!

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• ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

  - by Zote

  I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

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• Download file in coldfusion and read its content

  - by Deepak

  cfhttp with a get to download the files. Does anyone have an example of cfhttp working? Are there special settings that need to be set up on the server side to get this tag to work. When I try the following code: <CFHTTP METHOD = "get" URL="http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/servlet/SurveyOutputServlet?series_id=LNU04032231&years_option=specific_years&to_year=2010&from_year=2009&delimiter=comma&output_view&output_format=excelTable" path="/Users/Deepak" file="testfile.xls"> Nothing comes back to my computer? How do you get it to pop up the "where do you want to save the file box" dialogue box? I am submitting a form in coldfusion by hitting this link http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/servlet/SurveyOutputServlet?series_id=LNU04032231&years_option=specific_years&to_year=2010&from_year=2009&delimiter=comma&output_view&output_format=excelTable I am getting a excel file as a result. How can I save this file on my local box. Or, is it possible to directly read the content of file without saving it in my local box through coldfusion using cfftp or cfhttp? cfhttp.mimeType is application/vnd.ms-excel in this case. Thanks!!

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• How to run validator from javascript?

  - by David Shochet

  Here is a part of my code: <asp:ListBox ID="lbRD" runat="server" DataSourceID="RDSqlDataSource" onchange="JSFillDetail();" DataTextField="????????" DataValueField="ID" Width="188px" Height="200px"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDescription" runat="server" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="txtDescriptionRequiredFieldValidator" runat="server" ErrorMessage="???????? ???????? ???????????? ??? ??????????" ControlToValidate="txtDescription" /> I have a listbox, a textbox and a required field validator on my page. When the user selects something from the listbox, the selected item appears in the textbox using a javascript function. When the page is submitted, the validator reports an error in case the textbox is empty. If after that the user selects something from the listbox, the error message is still displayed, even though the textbox is not empty anymore. How can I make the validator validate the textbox, or even better, to clear the error message from the javascript function that fills the textbox? Thanks, David

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• Link to RSS/Atom feed, relative, doesn't work in Firefox

  - by Adrian Smith

  I have a weird problem. I generate a HTML page, hosted let's say at http://www.x.com/stuff which contains <head> <link type="application/atom+xml" rel="alternate" href="/stuff/feed"/> .. </head> The result is: In IE7 all works well - you can click on the feed icon in the browser and the feed is displayed In Firefox, view source, click on the linked /stuff/feed and you see the source of the feed, so that works as expected In Firefox, view the page (not source), then click on the feed icon in the address bar, I get an error that it can't retrieve the URL feed://http//www.x.com/stuff/feed So the problem is, that it's appending feed:// to the front of the URL and then taking out the colon : after the http. I understand that feed: is HTTP anyway so perhaps the adding of that isn't a big problem. But anyway, the fact is, that URL Firefox generates out of my <link> tag doesn't work. I have considered making the URL absolute, but I haven't found any evidence that those URLs have to be absolute, nor can I understand why that would be the case. And for various reasons it would be inconvenient in my code to generate an absolute URL. I can do it if necessary but I would prefer to see proof (e.g. specification, or Mozilla bug report) that it's necessary before making my code messy What do you think? Does anyone know of any evidence that the URL should be absolute? Or am I doing something else wrong? It seems such a simple/obvious tag, where nothing could go wrong, but I can't get it to work.

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• Client unable to authenticate when connecting to WCF service

  - by davecoulter

  I have a WCF service hosted in a Windows service. The application is an intranet app, and I have programmatically set the bindings on both the service and the client as: NetTcpBinding aBinding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Transport); aBinding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = TcpClientCredentialType.Windows; aBinding.Security.Transport.ProtectionLevel = System.Net.Security.ProtectionLevel.EncryptAndSign; Both the service and client have endpoints configured with SPNs: EndpointAddress = new EndpointAddress(uri, EndpointIdentity.CreateSpnIdentity("Service1")); As far as I know, I have setup the bindings correctly-- and I am usually able to connect to the service just fine. I did however run into a case where on a server running Windows Server 2003 R2, x64, SP2 I get the following exception immediately when the client tries to connect: INNEREXCEPTION -- Exception Message: InvalidCredentialException: Either the target name is incorrect or the server has rejected the client credentials. Stack Trace: at System.Net.Security.NegoState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.Security.NegotiateStream.AuthenticateAsClient(NetworkCredential credential, String targetName, ProtectionLevel requiredProtectionLevel, TokenImpersonationLevel allowedImpersonationLevel) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeProvider.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeInitiator.OnInitiateUpgrade(Stream stream, SecurityMessageProperty& remoteSecurity) I get the exception when I try to connect to the service from another machine in the domain, but if I connect to the service on the same machine running the service it works fine. The hosting service itself is running as a domain user account-- but I have tried running the service as a Local System and Network Service to no avail. I have checked the Local Security Policies for the server and didn't see anything amiss (i.e. 'Access this computer from the network' includes 'Everyone'). Anyone have an idea of what could resolve this? I am wondering if I need to do something in Active Directory with respect to the service's SPN? I have read some about using setspn.exe to register or refresh SPNs, but I haven't needed to do this before. Why would this be working with other configurations but not the one above?

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• How do I pass a const reference in C#?

  - by Maciek

  In C++, passing const references is a common practice - for instance : #include <iostream> using namespace std; class X { public : X() {m_x = 0; } X(const int & x) {m_x = x; } X(const X & other) { *this = other; } X & operator = (const X & other) { m_x = other.m_x; return *this; } void print() { cout << m_x << endl; } private : int m_x; }; void main() { X x1(5); X x2(4); X x3(x2); x2 = x1; x1.print(); x2.print(); x3.print(); } This very simple example illustrates how it's done - pretty much. However I've noticed that in C# this doesn't seem to be the case. Do I have to pass const references in C# ? what do I need the "ref" keyword for? Please note that I know and understand what C# reference and value types are.

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• Access Denied while using System.Diagnostics.Process

  - by Mike C

  I am trying to use the unmanaged ImageMagick library in my ASP.NET application from the command line using System.Diagnostics.Process. Basically, users will upload an .eps file to the site, and then I will run the command line command to convert it into .jpg. This is the code I'm using to try and run the command: Dim proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = True proc.StartInfo.FileName = "C:\Program Files (x86)\ImageMagick-6.6.1-Q16\convert.exe" proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False proc.StartInfo.Arguments = String.Format("{0} {1}", Server.MapPath("~/logo/test.eps"), _ Server.MapPath("~/certificates/temp/test-1234.jpg")) proc.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = True proc.Start() I am able to run this code just fine on our development Win 2k3 server, but not on our production Win 2k3 Server. I get the error "System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied". The main between the two servers is that the production is 64-bit and runs Plesk to manage multiple domains. I've tried adding rights asp.net user to the ImageMagick directory. The PS Admin says that in the case of Plesk, it's the same account that I use to access the site in VS using FPE. Does anyone know what I might do in order to allow this process to run on my production server? Thanks, Mike

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• Why use SQL database?

  - by martinthenext

  I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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• MVC view engine that can render classic ASP?

  - by David Lively

  I'm about to start integrating ASP.NET MVC into an existing 200k+ line classic ASP application. Rewriting the existing code (which runs an entire business, not just the public-facing website) is not an option. The existing ASP 3.0 pages are quite nicely structured (given what was available when this model was put into place nearly 15 years ago), like so: <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/db.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/stats.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/topbar.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/lftbar.asp"--> <h1>page name</h1> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>.....</p> <h2>Today's Top Forum Posts</h2> <%=forum_top_posts(1)%> <!--#include virtual="/_template/footer.asp"--> ... or somesuch. Some pages will include function and sub definitions, but for the most part these exist in include files. I'm wondering how difficult it would be to write an MVC view engine that could render classic ASP, preferably using the existing ASP.DLL. In that case, I could replace <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> with <%= Html.RenderPartial("lib/user"); %> as I gradually move existing pages from ASP to ASP.NET. Since the existing formatting and library includes are used very extensively, they must be maintained. I'd like to avoid having to maintain two separate versions. I know the ideal way to go about this would be to simply start a new app and say to hell with the ASP code, however, that simply ain't gonna happen. Ideas?

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