Search Results

Search found 24201 results on 969 pages for 'andrew case'.

Page 756/969 | < Previous Page | 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763  | Next Page >

  • Android change context for findViewById to super from inline class

    - by wuntee
    I am trying to get the value of a EditText in a dialog box. A the "*"'ed line in the following code, the safeNameEditText is null; i am assuming because the 'findVeiwById' is searching on the context of the 'AlertDialog.OnClickListener'; How can I get/change the context of that 'findViewById' call? protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); switch(id){ case DIALOG_NEW_SAFE: builder.setTitle(R.string.news_safe); builder.setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); LayoutInflater factory = LayoutInflater.from(this); View newSafeView = factory.inflate(R.layout.newsafe, null); builder.setView(newSafeView); builder.setPositiveButton(R.string.ok, new AlertDialog.OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { * EditText safeNameEditText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.new_safe_name); String safeName = safeNameEditText.getText().toString(); Log.i(LOG, safeName); setSafeDao(safeName); } }); builder.setNegativeButton(R.string.cancel, new AlertDialog.OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { dialog.dismiss(); } }); return(builder.create()); default: return(null); } }

    Read the article

  • PyGTK/GIO: monitor directory for changes recursively

    - by detly
    Take the following demo code (from the GIO answer to this question), which uses a GIO FileMonitor to monitor a directory for changes: import gio def directory_changed(monitor, file1, file2, evt_type): print "Changed:", file1, file2, evt_type gfile = gio.File(".") monitor = gfile.monitor_directory(gio.FILE_MONITOR_NONE, None) monitor.connect("changed", directory_changed) import glib ml = glib.MainLoop() ml.run() After running this code, I can then create and modify child nodes and be notified of the changes. However, this only works for immediate children (I am aware that the docs don't say otherwise). The last of the following shell commands will not result in a notification: touch one mkdir two touch two/three Is there an easy way to make it recursive? I'd rather not manually code something that looks for directory creation and adds a monitor, removing them on deletion, etc. The intended use is for a VCS file browser extension, to be able to cache the statuses of files in a working copy and update them individually on changes. So there might by anywhere from tens to thousands (or more) directories to monitor. I'd like to just find the root of the working copy and add the file monitor there. I know about pyinotify, but I'm avoiding it so that this works under non-Linux kernels such as FreeBSD or... others. As far as I'm aware, the GIO FileMonitor uses inotify underneath where available, and I can understand not emphasising the implementation to maintain some degree of abstraction, but it suggested to me that it should be possible. (In case it matters, I originally posted this on the PyGTK mailing list.)

    Read the article

  • How to implement Master-Detail with Multi-Selection in WPF?

    - by gehho
    Hi, I plan to create a typical Master-Detail scenario, i.e. a collection of items displayed in a ListView via DataBinding to an ICollectionView, and details about the selected item in a separate group of controls (TextBoxes, NumUpDowns...). No problem so far, actually I have already implemented a pretty similar scenario in an older project. However, it should be possible to select multiple items in the ListView and get the appropriate shared values displayed in the detail view. This means, if all selected items have the same value for a property, this value should be displayed in the detail view. If they do not share the same value, the corresponding control should provide some visual clue for the user indicating this, and no value should be displayed (or an "undefined" state in a CheckBox for example). Now, if the user edits the value, this change should be applied to all selected items. Further requirements are: MVVM compatibility (i.e. not too much code-behind) Extendability (new properties/types can be added later on) Does anyone have experience with such a scenario? Actually, I think this should be a very common scenario. However, I could not find any details on that topic anywhere. Thanks! gehho. PS: In the older project mentioned above, I had a solution using a subclass of the ViewModel which handles the special case of multi-selection. It checked all selected items for equality and returned the appropriate values. However, this approach had some drawbacks and somehow seemed like a hack because (besides other smelly things) it was necessary to break the synchronization between the ListView and the detail view and handle it manually.

    Read the article

  • Method binding to base method in external library can't handle new virtual methods "between"

    - by Berg
    Lets say I have a library, version 1.0.0, with the following contents: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { } and I reference this library in a console application with the following contents: class Program { static void Main( string[] args ) { var c3 = new Class3(); c3.Test(); Console.ReadKey(); } } public class Class3 : ClassLibrary1.Class2 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Console:Class3 - Test"); base.Test(); } } Running the program will output the following: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test If I build a new version of the library, version 2.0.0, looking like this: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test V2" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Library:Class2 - Test V2"); base.Test(); } } and copy this version to the bin folder containing my console program and run it, the results are: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test V2 I.e, the Class2.Test method is never executed, the base.Test call in Class3.Test seems to be bound to Class1.Test since Class2.Test didn't exist when the console program was compiled. This was very surprising to me and could be a big problem in situations where you deploy new versions of a library without recompiling applications. Does anyone else have experience with this? Are there any good solutions? This makes it tempting to add empty overrides that just calls base in case I need to add some code at that level in the future...

    Read the article

  • Re-using aggregate level formulas in SQL - any good tactics?

    - by Cade Roux
    Imagine this case, but with a lot more component buckets and a lot more intermediates and outputs. Many of the intermediates are calculated at the detail level, but a few things are calculated at the aggregate level: DECLARE @Profitability AS TABLE ( Cust INT NOT NULL ,Category VARCHAR(10) NOT NULL ,Income DECIMAL(10, 2) NOT NULL ,Expense DECIMAL(10, 2) NOT NULL ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 1, 'Software', 100, 50 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 2, 'Software', 100, 20 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 3, 'Software', 100, 60 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 4, 'Software', 500, 400 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 5, 'Hardware', 1000, 550 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 6, 'Hardware', 1000, 250 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 7, 'Hardware', 1000, 700 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 8, 'Hardware', 5000, 4500 ) ; SELECT Cust ,Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability GROUP BY Cust SELECT Category ,Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability GROUP BY Category SELECT Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability Notice how the same formulae have to be used at the different aggregation levels. This results in code duplication. I have thought of using UDFs (either scalar or table valued with an OUTER APPLY, since many of the final results may share intermediates which have to be calculated at the aggregate level), but in my experience the scalar and multi-statement table-valued UDFs perform very poorly. Also thought about using more dynamic SQL and applying the formulas by name, basically. Any other tricks, techniques or tactics to keeping these kinds of formulae which need to be applied at different levels in sync and/or organized?

    Read the article

  • Active Directory - Query Group for all machines

    - by Ben Cawley
    Hi, I'm trying to obtain a list of all Machines that are members of a known group. I have the group GUID and am constructing a query using the "memberof=" format and filtering by ObjectClass. This works fine but doesn't return machines if the PrimaryGroup attribute of a machine is set to be the known group. In this case, that machine won't be returned. I've found the explanation of why this is in the following link (See Joe Kaplan's response) http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/29773581/active-directory-query-c.aspx Unfortunately the outlined answer is how to obtain the list of groups from a given user. I'd like to do the reverse and from a given group obtain the list of machines. It seems that the PrimaryGroup information is stored on the Machine/User side so I'm not sure if what I want to do is even possible. I had thought I would be able to query the TokenGroup attribute of the known group and then construct a query to return all machines that have the TokenGroup attribute set but it seems that not all groups have this attribute. Does anyone have any ideas or suggestions? If any clarification is needed let me know! Cheers, Ben

    Read the article

  • MVC view engine that can render classic ASP?

    - by David Lively
    I'm about to start integrating ASP.NET MVC into an existing 200k+ line classic ASP application. Rewriting the existing code (which runs an entire business, not just the public-facing website) is not an option. The existing ASP 3.0 pages are quite nicely structured (given what was available when this model was put into place nearly 15 years ago), like so: <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/db.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/stats.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/topbar.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/lftbar.asp"--> <h1>page name</h1> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>.....</p> <h2>Today's Top Forum Posts</h2> <%=forum_top_posts(1)%> <!--#include virtual="/_template/footer.asp"--> ... or somesuch. Some pages will include function and sub definitions, but for the most part these exist in include files. I'm wondering how difficult it would be to write an MVC view engine that could render classic ASP, preferably using the existing ASP.DLL. In that case, I could replace <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> with <%= Html.RenderPartial("lib/user"); %> as I gradually move existing pages from ASP to ASP.NET. Since the existing formatting and library includes are used very extensively, they must be maintained. I'd like to avoid having to maintain two separate versions. I know the ideal way to go about this would be to simply start a new app and say to hell with the ASP code, however, that simply ain't gonna happen. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

    - by bleeckerj
    I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

    Read the article

  • WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Strongly Typed Widgets

    - by Ben
    I have developed a plugin system that makes it easy to plug in new logic to an application. Now I need to provide the ability to easily add UI widgets. There are already some good responses on how to create a portal system (like iGoogle) with ASP.NET MVC, and I'm fine about the overall concept. My question is really about how we make strongly typed widgets. Essentially when we set up a widget we define the controller and action names that are used to render that widget. We can use one controller action for widgets that are not strongly typed (since we just return PartialView(widgetControlName) without a model) For widgets that are strongly typed (for example to an IList) we would need to add a new controller action (since I believe it is not possible to use Generics with ActionResult e.g. ActionResult). The important thing is that the widget developers should not change the main application controllers. So my two thoughts are this: Create new controllers in a separate class library Create one partial WidgetController in the main web project and then extend this in other projects (is this even possible?) - not possible as per @mfeingold As far as the development of the widgets (user controls) go, we can just use post build events from our extension projects to copy these into the Views/Widgets directory. Is this a good approach. I am interested to here how others have handled this scenario. Thanks Ben P.S - in case it helps, an example of how we can render widgets - without using Javascript <%foreach (var widget in Model) {%> <%if (widget.IsStronglyTyped) { Html.RenderAction(widget.Action, widget.Controller); } else { Html.RenderPartial(widget.ControlName); } %> <%} %>

    Read the article

  • SWT: problems with clicking button after using setEnabled() on Linux

    - by Laimoncijus
    Hi, I have a strange case with SWT and Button after using setEnabled() - seems if I disable and enable button at least once - I cannot properly click with mouse on it anymore... Already minify code to very basic: import org.eclipse.swt.SWT; import org.eclipse.swt.events.SelectionEvent; import org.eclipse.swt.events.SelectionListener; import org.eclipse.swt.layout.GridLayout; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Button; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Shell; public class TestButton { public TestButton() { Display display = new Display(); Shell shell = new Shell(display); GridLayout mainLayout = new GridLayout(); shell.setLayout(mainLayout); shell.setSize(100, 100); Button testButton = new Button(shell, SWT.PUSH); testButton.addSelectionListener(new TestClickListener()); testButton.setText("Click me!"); //testButton.setEnabled(false); //testButton.setEnabled(true); shell.open(); while (!shell.isDisposed()) { if (!display.readAndDispatch()) display.sleep(); } display.dispose(); } class TestClickListener implements SelectionListener { @Override public void widgetDefaultSelected(SelectionEvent e) { } @Override public void widgetSelected(SelectionEvent e) { System.out.println("Click!"); } } public static void main(String[] args) { new TestButton(); } } When I keep these 2 lines commented out - I can properly click on a button and always get "Click!" logged, but if I uncomment them - then I can't click on button properly with mouse anymore - button visually seems to be clicked, but nothing is logged... Am I doing something wrong here? Or maybe it's some kind of bug on Linux platform? Because on Mac running the same code I never experienced such problems... Thanks for any hint! P.S. Running code on Ubuntu 9.10, Gnome + Compiz, Sun Java 1.6.0.16

    Read the article

  • How to know if a graphics card provides hardware rendering for wpf

    - by happyclicker
    I have to run a wpf-app in an environment that has all the same dell-pc's with an intel gma 3000 graphics chip (onbard, Q963/Q965). The app renders only with software rendering (Stated so by the RenderCapability.Tier-property (it says the rendering tier is 0!) and I also see this with Perforator). On all of this machines, DirectX 9c is installed and DXDiag states on many but not on all of this machines, that Direct-3d and Direct-Draw-acceleration is activated. I checked also the registry if the setup of these machines disabled wpf-hw rendering but that's also not the case. On one machine I also updated the video-driver and dx with no success. I found a lot of ressources that say, that directX must be installed and active, so that wpf does not use its own software renderer but uses the DirectX HW-Rendering. But on the above machines, DX9c is installed but there is no hw rendering. May it be that wpf uses dx-graphicscards but does the communication with the graphics card direct and not over dx? How can I find out if a specific graphics-chip has to support hardware rendering for wpf or not. The statement that the graphics card must support dx 9c seems not to be the only condition. The second question is, if wpf renders through dx, is this done through direct-3d or is direct-draw used. Is there any good documentation on this topic?

    Read the article

  • Running another process without GUI freezing

    - by Adam
    I'm having trouble getting my GUI to appear and not freeze while running (and waiting for) an outside process. In this case, drivers.exe is a very simply program where the user simply clicks "OK". So whenever I click OK, it exits. I am trying to simply make my status strip count numbers up (really fast) as drivers.exe is executing. But in practice, my GUI never appears at all until drivers.exe exits. private void run_drivers() { Console.WriteLine("Start Driver"); int driver_timeout_in_minutes = 20; System.Diagnostics.Process driverproc = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(Application.StartupPath + "\\" + "drivers.exe"); driverproc.WaitForExit(driver_timeout_in_minutes * 1000 * 60); //uses milliseconds, we must convert } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ThreadStart worker = new ThreadStart(run_drivers); Console.WriteLine("Main - Creating worker thread"); toolStripStatusLabel1.Text = "hi"; Thread t = new Thread(worker); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); Console.WriteLine("Main - Have requested the start of worker thread"); int i = 0; while (t.IsAlive) { i++; toolStripStatusLabel1.Text = i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine("Dead"); }

    Read the article

  • Dynamically create a text file from a C# program

    - by techstu
    Can I dynamically create a text file from a C# program, using data from a previously created xml file and text file, I have written half the code, but can't go any further please help using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; namespace Task3 { class TextFileReader { static void Main(string[] args) { String strn=" ", strsn=String.Empty; XmlTextReader reader = new XmlTextReader("my.xml"); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader.NodeType) { case XmlNodeType.Element: // The node is an element. if (reader.HasAttributes) { strn = reader.GetAttribute(0); strsn = reader.GetAttribute(1); int counter = 0; string line; // Read the file and display it line by line. System.IO.StreamReader file = new System.IO.StreamReader("read_file.txt"); string ch, ch1; while ((line = file.ReadLine()) != null) { if (line.Substring(0, 1).Equals("%")) { int a = line.IndexOf('%'); int b = line.LastIndexOf('%'); ch = line.Substring(a + 1, b - 1); ch1 = line.Substring(a, b+1); if (ch == "name") { string test = line.Replace(ch1, strn); Console.WriteLine(test); } else if (ch == "sirname") { string test = line.Replace(ch1, strsn); Console.WriteLine(test); } } else { Console.WriteLine(line); } counter++; } file.Close(); } break; } } // Suspend the screen. Console.ReadLine(); } } } the xml file from which i am reading is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> - <Workflow> <User UserName="pqr" Sirname="sbd" /> <User UserName="abc" Sirname="xyz" /> </Workflow> and the text file is: hi this is me %sirname% %name% but this is not wat i want..please help

    Read the article

  • Log4net Logging Problem : Very simple file appender logging not working

    - by contactmatt
    Here's my web.config information <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> </configSections> <log4net> <root> <level value="ALL" /> </root> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="c:\temp\log-file.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.SimpleLayout" /> </appender> </log4net> ... Here's the code that initalizes the logger protected void SendMessage() { log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Contact)); ... log.Info("here we go!"); log.Debug("debug afasf"); ... } it doesn't work, no matter what I seem to do. I am referencing the 'log4net.dll' correctly, and by debugging the application i can see that the log object is getting initiated properly. This is a asp.net 3.5 framework web project. Any ideas/suggestions? I thought originally this error may be due to a file write permission constraint, but that doesn't seem to be the case (or so I think).

    Read the article

  • PHP header redirection does nor reload <iframe> in IE

    - by Marco Demaio
    When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you migt have exeperienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advises about this. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

    - by Zote
    I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Accessing a class's containing namespace from within a module

    - by SFEley
    I'm working on a module that, among other things, will add some generic 'finder' type functionality to the class you mix it into. The problem: for reasons of convenience and aesthetics, I want to include some functionality outside the class, in the same scope as the class itself. For example: class User include MyMagicMixin end # Should automagically enable: User.name('Bob') # Returns first user named Bob Users.name('Bob') # Returns ALL users named Bob User(5) # Returns the user with an ID of 5 Users # Returns all users I can do the functionality within these methods, no problem. And case 1 (User.name('Bob')) is easy. Cases 2–4, however, require being able to create new classes and methods outside User. The Module.included method gives me access to the class, but not to its containing scope. There is no simple "parent" type method that I can see on Class nor Module. (For namespace, I mean, not superclass nor nested modules.) The best way I can think to do this is with some string parsing on the class's #name to break out its namespace, and then turn the string back into a constant. But that seems clumsy, and given that this is Ruby, I feel like there should be a more elegant way. Does anyone have ideas? Or am I just being too clever for my own good?

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to optimize this LINQ where clause that searches for multiple keywords on multiple

    - by Daniel T.
    I have a LINQ query that searches for multiple keywords on multiple columns. The intention is that the user can search for multiple keywords and it will search for the keywords on every property in my Media entity. Here is a simplified example: var result = repository.GetAll<Media>().Where(x => x.Title.Contains("Apples") || x.Description.Contains("Apples") || x.Tags.Contains("Apples") || x.Title.Contains("Oranges") || x.Description.Contains("Oranges") || x.Tags.Contains("Oranges") || x.Title.Contains("Pears") || x.Description.Contains("Pears") || x.Tags.Contains("Pears") ); In other words, I want to search for the keywords Apples, Oranges, and Pears on the columns Title, Description, and Tags. The outputted SQL looks like this: SELECT * FROM Media this_ WHERE (((((((( this_.Title like '%Apples%' or this_.Description like '%Apples%') or this_.Tags like '%Apples%') or this_.Title like '%Oranges%') or this_.Description like '%Oranges%') or this_.Tags like '%Oranges%') or this_.Title like '%Pears%') or this_.Description like '%Pears%') or this_.Tags like '%Pears%') Is this the most optimal SQL in this case? If not, how do I rewrite the LINQ query to create the most optimal SQL statement? I'm using SQLite for testing and SQL Server for actual deployment.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails: How to sanitize a string for SQL when not using find and other built-in methods?

    - by williamjones
    I'm trying to sanitize a string that involves user input without having to resort to manually crafting my own possibly buggy regex if possible. There are a number of methods in Rails that can allow you to enter in native SQL commands, how do people escape user input for those? The question I'm asking is a broad one, but in my particular case, I'm working with a column in my Postgres database that Rails does not natively understand as far as I know, the tsvector, which holds plain text search information. Rails is able to write and read from it as if it's a string, however, unlike a string, it doesn't seem to be automatically escaping it when I do things like vector= inside the model. For example, when I do model.name='::', where name is a string, it works fine. When I do model.vector='::' it errors out: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: PGError: ERROR: syntax error in tsvector: "::" "vectors" = E'::' WHERE "id" = 1 This seems to be a problem caused by lack of escaping of the semicolons, and I can manually set the vector='\:\:' fine. I also had the bright idea, maybe I can just call something like: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute "UPDATE medias SET vectors = ? WHERE id = 1", "::" However, this syntax doesn't work, because the raw SQL commands don't have access to find's method of escaping and inputting strings by using the ? mark. This strikes me as the same problem as calling connection.execute with any type of user input, as it all boils down to sanitizing the strings, but I can't seem to find any way to manually call Rails' SQL string sanitization methods. Can anyone provide any advice?

    Read the article

  • iphone webview dynamic font support

    - by Kiran
    Friends, I am trying to build a simple iphone application to view a local webpage that uses dynamic fonts. The url is www.eenadu.net. I have just a single view based application and inserted a webview into the view and implementing the webviewdelegate in viewcontroller. The site uses ttf/eot fonts that are dynamically downloadable by browser from http://www.eenadu.net/eenadu.ttf or http://www.eenadu.net/EENADU0.eot. Here is what I am doing in the code by doing some research: Code: ( void ) loadFont { NSString *fontPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"eenadu" ofType:@"ttf"]; CGDataProviderRef fontDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithFilename([fontPath UTF8String]); // Create the font with the data provider, then release the data provider. customFont = CGFontCreateWithDataProvider(fontDataProvider); CGDataProviderRelease(fontDataProvider); fontPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"eenadu" ofType:@"eot"]; fontDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithFilename([fontPath UTF8String]); // Create the font with the data provider, then release the data provider. customFont = CGFontCreateWithDataProvider(fontDataProvider); CGDataProviderRelease(fontDataProvider); } (void) viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self loadFont]; [webView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor whiteColor]]; NSString *urlAddress = @"http://www.eenadu.net/"; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:requestObj]; } I see that the page loads however doesn't display the font. Please help. Also, For loadFont, I have included the fonts in the build with right names and took care of the case as well.

    Read the article

  • Why is an Add method required for { } initialization?

    - by Dan Tao
    To use initialization syntax like this: var contacts = new ContactList { { "Dan", "[email protected]" }, { "Eric", "[email protected]" } }; ...my understanding is that my ContactList type would need to define an Add method that takes two string parameters: public void Add(string name, string email); What's a bit confusing to me about this is that the { } initializer syntax seems most useful when creating read-only or fixed-size collections. After all it is meant to mimic the initialization syntax for an array, right? (OK, so arrays are not read-only; but they are fixed size.) And naturally it can only be used when the collection's contents are known (at least the number of elements) at compile-time. So it would almost seem that the main requirement for using this collection initializer syntax (having an Add method and therefore a mutable collection) is at odds with the typical case in which it would be most useful. I'm sure I haven't put as much thought into this matter as the C# design team; it just seems that there could have been different rules for this syntax that would have meshed better with its typical usage scenarios. Am I way off base here? Is the desire to use the { } syntax to initialize fixed-size collections not as common as I think? What other factors might have influenced the formulation of the requirements for this syntax that I'm simply not thinking of?

    Read the article

  • What's a good way of building up a String where you specific start and end locations?

    - by Michael Campbell
    (java 1.5) I have a need to build up a String, in pieces. I'm given a set of (sub)strings, each with a start and end point of where they belong in the final string. Was wondering if there were some canonical way of doing this. This isn't homework, and I can use any licensable OSS, such as jakarta commons-lang StringUtils etc. My company has a solution using a CharBuffer, and I'm content to leave it as is (and add some unit tests, of which there are none (?!)) but the code is fairly hideous and I would like something easier to read. As I said this isn't homework, and I don't need a complete solution, just some pointers to libraries or java classes that might give me some insight. The String.Format didn't seem QUITE right... I would have to honor inputs too long and too short, etc. Substrings would be overlaid in the order they appear (in case of overlap). As an example of input, I might have something like: String:start:end FO:0:3 (string shorter than field) BAR:4:5 (String larger than field) BLEH:5:9 (String overlays previous field) I'd want to end up with FO BBLEH 01234567890

    Read the article

  • Lightweight development web server with support for PHP v2

    - by David
    In line with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/171655/lightweight-web-app-server-for-php The above question has been asked numerous times and answered exactly the same in all the cases I've found using google. My question is similar to a degree but with a different desired goal: On demand development instances. I have come up with a somewhat questionable solution to host arbitrary directories in my user account for the purpose of development testing. I am not interested in custom vhosts but looking to emulate the behaviour I get when using paster or mongrel for Python & Ruby respectively. Ubuntu 9.10 TOXIC@~/ APACHE_RUN_USER=$USER APACHE_RUN_GROUP=www-data apache2 -d ~/Desktop/ -c "Listen 2990" Is there a better solution, could I do something similar with nginix or lighttpd? Note: The above won't work correctly for stock environments without a copied & altered httpd.conf. Update: The ideal goal is to mimic Paster, Webbrick, and Mongrel for rapid local development hosting. For those light weight servers, it takes less then a minute to get a working instance running ( not factoring any DB support ). Apache2 vhost is great but I've been using Apache2 for over ten years and it would be some sort of abomination hack to setup a new entry in /etc/hosts unless you have your own DNS, in which case a wildcard subdomain setup would probably work great. EXCEPT one more problem, it's pretty easy for me to know what is being hosted ( ex. by paster or mongeral ) just doing a sudo netstat -tulpn while there would be a good possibility of confusion in figure out which vhost is what.

    Read the article

  • Workflow UI Integration - is WF a good approach?

    - by AJ
    Somewhat similar to this question, except we haven't decided that we're going with WF yet. I'm working on designing a system that requires a series of decisions and activities on a "work object," so I naturally began to consider workflow, specifically WF. What I'm wondering is if WF is a good solution for a situation like the following (oversimplified for this question) case (please forgive bad ascii art): __________________ | Gather some info | | (web page) | |__________________| | | / \ / \ / \ / \ / cond \ \ 1 / \ / \ / \ / \ / | | ______________|_______________ | | | | | ______|______ ______|________ / do some / | Get more info | / process / | (web page) | /____________/ |_______________| | | / \ / \ / \ / cond. \ \ 2 / \ / \ / \ / | | |__________________ | | | | _____|_____ _____|_____ / some / / another / / process / / process / /__________/ /__________/ The part I'm struggling with is the get more info (web page) step and what happens subsequent, which would mean a halt in the execution of the workflow runtime. I'm aware that this is possible, but I'm not sure that WF is the best approach for this type of code, as the user interaction may be required at many different points through the entire workflow, and the workflow will drive what data entry screens are needed. We are using a WinForms/ASP.NET web forms package for UI, which is homegrown and difficult to push deployments on, so something like SharePoint integration is out of the question. Our back-end is DB2, and the workflow code (whether it's in WF or otherwise) will need to interact with that as well. I guess the bottom line is, should we look into using WF for this, or would we be better served just coding it ourselves? Can WF easily integrate data entry screens to capture information that can be used further on in the workflow?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763  | Next Page >