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  • WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

    - by Randster
    Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • login/logout problem in PHP

    - by user356170
    i have a question. I have a website in which i am giving security like login id and password( as usual). No what i want is that, 1) I don't want to allow a single user to login in different machine at the same time. 2) For this i am using a column in database which is keeping the current status of user(i.e. loging/logout). I am allowing user to login only when has session has not closed and status is login. 3) So my problem is that when i am logging out manually. it is closing the session as well as updating the database with status "logout". 4) but when i am closing the window from Cross buttonat top right corner. it is closing the ssion but table data is still "login". so later on i can't be able to login into the same user. 5) So how could i solve this problem. Please help me!

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  • Generating a zend form with dynamic data?

    - by meder
    I need to access my session and based on the session property I need to grab stuff from the database to use as options in my dropdown. $_SESSION is: [sess_name] => Array( [properties] => Array( 1=> Hotel A, 2=> Hotel B ), [selected] => 1 ) I need to grab Hotel A from selected, and then access all accounts under Hotel A from the database: id title hotel_id ------------------------------ 1 Hotel A Twitter Account 1 2 Hotel B Facebook Account 2 3 Hotel A Facebook Account 1 I need ids 1 and 3 because my hotel_id is 1 in the context of: $this->addElement( 'select', 'account', array( 'multioptions' => $NEED_IT_HERE )); Here's my query / session grabbing code: $cs = new Zend_Session_Namespace( SESS_NAME ); $model = new Model_DbTable_Social; $s = " SELECT social_accounts.* FROM social_accounts LEFT JOIN social_media_outlets ON social_media_outlets.id = social_accounts.property WHERE social_accounts.property=".(int)$cs->selectedclient; I have this code in my form page, but I need to move it into my model now.

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  • JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate Spring MVC 3.0

    - by user558019
    Dear All i have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate and spring 3.0 mvc annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some refference classes and then my porblem. public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } public class child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate or spring thanks in advance

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  • PHP Session doesn't get read in next page after login validation, Why?

    - by NetStar
    I have a web site and when my users login it takes them to verify.php (where it connects to the DataBase and matches email and password to the user input and if OK puts client data into sessions and take the client to /memberarea/index.php ELSE back to login page with message "Invalid Email or password!") <?php ob_start(); session_start(); $email=$_POST['email']; $pass=md5($_POST['pass']); include("conn.php"); // connects to Database $sql="SELECT * FROM `user` WHERE email='$email' AND pass='$pass'"; $result=mysql_query($sql); $new=mysql_fetch_array($result); $_SESSION['fname']=$new['fname']; $_SESSION['lname']=$new['lname']; $_SESSION['email1']=$new['email1']; $_SESSION['passwrd']=$new['passwrd']; $no=mysql_num_rows($result); if ($no==1){ header('Location:memberarea/index.php'); }else { header("Location:login.php?m=$msg"); //msg="Invalid Login" } ?> then after email id and password is verified it takes them to ` /memberarea/index.php (This is where the problem happens.) where in index.php it checks if a session has been created in-order to block hackers to enter member area and sends them back to the login page. <? session_start(); isset($_SESSION['email'])` && `isset($_SESSION['passwrd'])` The problem is the client gets verified in verify.php (the code is above) In varify.php only after I put ob_start(); ontop of session_start(); It moves on to /memberarea/index.php , If I remove ob_start() It keeps the client on the verify.php page and displays error header is alredy SENT. after I put ob_start() it goes in to /memberarea/index.php but the session is blank, so it goes back to the login page and displays the error ($msg) "Invalid Login" which I programed to display. Can anyone tell me why the session cant pass values from verify.php to /memberarea/index.php

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  • Write out to text file using T-SQL

    - by sasfrog
    I am creating a basic data transfer task using TSQL where I am retrieving certain records from one database that are more recent than a given datetime value, and loading them into another database. This will happen periodically throughout the day. It's such a small task that SSIS seems like overkill - I want to just use a scheduled task which runs a .sql file. Where I need guidance is that I need to persist the datetime from the last run of this task, then use this to filter the records next time the task runs. My initial thought is to just store the datetime in a text file, and update (overwrite) it as part of the task each time it runs. I can read the file in without problems using T-SQL, but writing back out has got me stuck. I've seen plenty of examples which make use of a dynamically-built bcp command, which is then executed using xp_cmdshell. Trouble is, security on the server I'm deploying to precludes the use of xp_cmdshell. So, my question is, are there other ways to simply write a datetime value to a file using TSQL, or should I be thinking about a different approach? EDIT: happy to be corrected about SSIS being "overkill"...

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  • TV Guide script - getting current date programmes to show

    - by whitstone86
    This is part of my TV guide script: //Connect to the database mysql_connect("localhost","root","PASSWORD"); //Select DB mysql_select_db("mytvguide"); //Select only results for today and future $result = mysql_query("SELECT programme, channel, episode, airdate, expiration, setreminder FROM mediumonair where airdate >= now()"); The episodes show up, so there are no issues there. However, it's getting the database to find data that's the issue. If I add a record for a programme that airs today this should show: Medium showing on TV4 8:30pm "Episode" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 6:25pm "Episode 2" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 10:25pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 19th - 7:30pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 1:25am "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 6:25pm "Episode 4" Set Reminder but this shows instead: Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 6:25pm "Episode 2" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 10:25pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 19th - 7:30pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 1:25am "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 6:25pm "Episode 4" Set Reminder I almost have the SQL working; just not sure what the right code is here, to avoid the second mistake showing - as the record (which indicates a show currently airing) does not seem to work at present. Please can anyone help me with this? Thanks

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  • Need help managing MySql connections

    - by David Jenings
    I'm having trouble finding a clear explanation of connection pooling. I'm building an app using the .NET connector I downloaded from mysql.com. The app only needs one db connection but will be running simultaneously on about 6 machines on my network. Normally, I'd create the connection at startup and just leave it. But I'm seeing lots of posts from people who say that's bad practice. Also I'm concerned about timeouts. My app will run 24/7 and there may be extended periods without database activity. I'm leaning toward the following: using (MySqlConnection conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr)) { conn.Open(); // use connection } But I'm not sure I understand what's going on in the background. Is this actually closing the connection and allowing gc to kill the object, or is there a built in pooling behavior that preserves the object and redelivers it the next time I try to create one? I certainly don't want the app reauthenticating across the network every time I hit the database. Can anyone offer me some advise?

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  • Access to SQL Server 2005 from a non-domain machine using Windows authentication

    - by user304582
    Hi, I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I thought that it would be a simple matter of doing something like this: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); However, this fails: the client-side error is: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'domain\user' and the server-side error is: Error 18456, Severity 14, State 5 I have tried various things including setting integrated security to true and false, and \ instead of \ in the User Id, but without success. In general, I know that it possible to connect to the SQL Server 2005 instance from a non-domain machine (for example, I am working with a Linux-based application which happily does this), but I don't seem to be able to work out how to do it from a Windows machine. Help would be appreciated! Thanks, Martin

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  • PHP foreach help

    - by sea_1987
    Hello I have an array that looks like this, Array ( [cfi_title] => Mr [cfi_firstname] => Firstname [cfi_surname] => Lastname [cfi_email] => [email protected] [cfi_subscribe_promotional] => [cfi_tnc] => [friendsName] => Array ( [0] => Firstname 1 [1] => Firstname 2 [2] => Firstname 3 ) [friendsEmail] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => [email protected] [2] => [email protected] ) [submit_form] => Submit ) My dilema is I need to save the values from the friendsName and friendsEmail arrays into a database, I know I can loop through them but how can I send the matching data, for example I need to save [friendsName][0] and friendsEmail][0] on the same row of database? I know I need to use a foreach but I just cannot figure out the logic.

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  • Is MySQL caching occurring, how to fix it?

    - by rlb.usa
    I think that MySQL or ASP.NET is caching my queries. I edited my MySQL sproc to remove some parameters but it keeps saying that those parameters are missing. Here is what happens: ASP.NET app calls a MySQL stored procedure. Everything works perfect. I delete some parameters from the sproc and ASP.NET parameter list accordingly. All parameters exactly match in case and order from the new ASP.NET and MySQL sproc code Upon execution, it fails, saying : System.ArgumentException: Parameter 'deleted_parameter_foo_bar' not found in the collection. at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlParameterCollection ... I delete the sproc from the database, restart my browser, and reexecute the ASP.NET page. It says the same error, that the parameter is missing - but the sproc itself doesn't exist anymore. ( I know 100% that I am editing/deleting from the right database. ) How do I fix this or make it work again; I want it to use my new sproc instead of the old one ? _o

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  • UIDs for data objects in MySQL

    - by Callash
    Hi there, I am using C++ and MySQL. I have data objects I want to persist to the database. They need to have a unique ID for identification purposes. The question is, how to get this unique ID? Here is what I came up with: 1) Use the auto_increment feature of MySQL. But how to get the ID then? I am aware that MySQL offers this "SELECT LAST_INSERT_ID()" feature, but that would be a race condition, as two objects could be inserted quite fast after each other. Also, there is nothing else that makes the objects discernable. Two objects could be created pretty much at the same time with exactly the same data. 2) Generate the UID on the C++ side. No dice, either. There are multiple programs that will write to and read from the database, who do not know of each other. 3) Insert with MAX(uid)+1 as the uid value. But then, I basically have the same problem as in 1), because we still have the race condition. Now I am stumped. I am assuming that this problem must be something other people ran into as well, but so far, I did not find any answers. Any ideas?

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  • [SOLVED]Django - Passing variables to template based on db

    - by George 'Griffin
    I am trying to add a feature to my app that would allow me to enable/disable the "Call Me" button based on whether or not I am at [home|the office]. I created a model in the database called setting, it looks like this: class setting(models.Model): key = models.CharField(max_length=200) value = models.CharField(max_length=200) Pretty simple. There is currently one row, available, the value of it is the string True. I want to be able to transparently pass variables to the templates like this: {% if available %} <!-- Display button --> {% else %} <!-- Display grayed out button --> {% endif %} Now, I could add logic to every view that would check the database, and pass the variable to the template, but I am trying to stay DRY. What is the best way to do this? UPDATE I created a context processor, and added it's path to the TEMPLATE_CONTEXT_PROCESSORS, but it is not being passed to the template def available(request): available = Setting.objects.get(key="available") if open.value == "True": return {"available":True} else: return {} UPDATE TWO If you are using the shortcut render_to_response, you need to pass an instance of RequestContext to the function. from the django documentation: If you're using Django's render_to_response() shortcut to populate a template with the contents of a dictionary, your template will be passed a Context instance by default (not a RequestContext). To use a RequestContext in your template rendering, pass an optional third argument to render_to_response(): a RequestContext instance. Your code might look like this: def some_view(request): # ... return render_to_response('my_template.html', my_data_dictionary, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Many thanks for all the help!

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  • WP_Insert_Post and GUID Issue [Wordpress]

    - by morningglory
    Hello, I have a posting form at my theme. I used wp_insert_post there. My code looks like this $post = array( 'ID' => '', 'post_author' => $post_author, 'post_category' => $post_category, 'post_content' => $post_content, 'post_title' => $post_title, 'post_status' => 'publish', ); $post_id = wp_insert_post($post); $fullpost = get_post($post_id); wp_redirect($fullpost->guid); Everything works fine. But when it's inserted to the database, at the GUID field, the entry format is like this permalinks_structure/id. So if my permalinks_structure is like /category/id , it become like http://www.example.com/uncategorized/1. So the problem is, if i post through wordpress admin panel, GUID of the post is http://www.example.com?p=1 . So my post database GUID become mess, because if i want to change permalinks_structure , the post which becomes from outside form will follow the structure. What I want to do is, I want to get the GUID like that I posted through admin panel which is http://www.example.com?p=1 How can i do it ? Please point me out. Thank you.

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  • How to initialize list with parent child relation

    - by user2917702
    Let's say I have the following classes. public class Parent { public string name; IList<Children> children; } public class Child { public string parentName; public int age; } As it is understandable, each parent can have multiple children, and we can have multiple parents. What is the best way to initialize these classes? Is it better to get all of the parents, and all of the children from database then use LINQ? IList<Parent> parents = GetParents()//assume this gets parents from db IList<Child> children = GetChildren() //assume this gets children from db foreach(Parent parent in parents) { parent.children = children.Where(x=>x.parentName==parent.name).ToList(); } or get all of the parents and iterate through each parent to query database by parentName to get children information? Due to requirement that I have, I cannot use datatable or dataset; I can only use datareader. IList<Parent> parents = GetParents()//assume this gets parents from db foreach(Parent parent in parents) { parent.children = GetChildrenByParentName();//assume this gets parents from db by parentName } Thank you

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  • Data base design with Blob

    - by mmuthu
    Hi, I have a situation where i need to store the binary data into database as blob column. There are three different table exists in my database where in i need to store a blob data for each record. Not every record will have the blob data all the time. It is time and user based. The table one will have to store the *.doc files almost for all the record The table two will have to store the *.xml optionally. The table three will have to store images (not sure what is frequency, etc) Now my questions is whether it is a good idea to maintain a separate table to store the blob data pointing it to the respective table PK's (Yes, there will be no FK's and assuming program will maintain it). It will be some thing like below, BLOB|PK_ID|TABLE_NAME Alternatively, is it a good idea to keep the blob column in respective tables. As for as my application runtime is concerned, The table 2 will be read very frequently. Though the blob column will not be required. The table 2 record will gets deleted frequently. Similarly other blob data in respective table will not be accessed frequently. All of the blob content will be read on-demand basis. I'm thinking first approach will work better for me. What do you guys think? Btw, I'm using Oracle.

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  • strange doctrine update problem

    - by larryzhao
    Hi, guys, I have a simple table like following: class SnookerCurrentInfo extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('current_frame_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_player_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score1', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score2', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); } public function setUp(){ $this->setTableName('snooker_current_info'); } } and I would like to keep only one entry in this table. So every time the value is changed I read the entry with id = 1 out and change the object and execute save. like the following: $info = Doctrine::getTable('SnookerCurrentInfo')->find(1); $info->current_frame_id = $jsonInfo['current_frame_id']; $info->current_player_id = $jsonInfo['current_player_id']; $info->current_score1 = $jsonInfo['current_score1']; $info->current_score2 = $jsonInfo['current_score2']; $info->save(); but the strange thing is, I try to make it clear. Let's say at first, the entry is (30, 1, 1, 0) and I switch player, so update the entry to (30, 2, 1, 0). and I switch the player back again, so the entry should be updated to (30, 1, 1, 0), but this is not affected to the database!! In the database, the entry still remains as (30, 2, 1, 0)!!!! But if after (30, 2, 1, 0), I update the score to (30, 2, 1, 1) and then switch the player back (30, 1, 1, 1) then this is ok. What's that? How should I deal with it? Thanks for a lot helping, really urgent!!

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  • why is Active Record firing extra query when I use Includes method to fetch data

    - by riddhi_agrawal
    I have the following model structure: class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :group_products, :dependent => :destroy has_many :products, :through => :group_products end class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :group_products, :dependent => :destroy has_many :groups, :through => :group_products end class GroupProduct < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :group belongs_to :product end I wanted to minimize my database queries so I decided to use includes.In the console I tried something like, groups = Group.includes(:products) my development logs show the following calls, Group Load (403.0ms) SELECT `groups`.* FROM `groups` GroupProduct Load (60.0ms) SELECT `group_products`.* FROM `group_products` WHERE (`group_products`.group_id IN (1,3,14,15,16,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,33,42,49,51)) Product Load (22.0ms) SELECT `products`.* FROM `products` WHERE (`products`.`id` IN (382,304,353,12,63,103,104,105,262,377,263,264,265,283,284,285,286,287,302,306,307,308,328,335,336,337,340,355,59,60,61,247,309,311,66,30,274,294,324,350,140,176,177,178,64,240,327,332,338,380,383,252,254,255,256,257,325,326)) Product Load (10.0ms) SELECT `products`.* FROM `products` WHERE (`products`.`id` = 377) LIMIT 1 I could analyze the initial three calls were necessary but don't get the reason why the last database call is made, Product Load (10.0ms) SELECT `products`.* FROM `products` WHERE (`products`.`id` = 377) LIMIT 1 Any idea why this is happening? Thanks in advance. :)

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  • Import Excel into Rails app

    - by Jack
    Hi, I am creating a small rails app for personal use and would like to be able to upload excel files to later be validated and added to the database. I had this working previously with csv files, but this has since become impractical. Does anyone know of a tutorial for using the roo or spreadsheet gem to upload the file, display the contents to the user and then add to the database (after validating)? I know this is quite specific, but I want to work through this step by step. All I have so far is an 'import' view: <% form_for :dump, :url=>{:controller=>"students", :action=>"student_import"}, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| -%> Select an Excel File : <%= f.file_field :excel_file -%> <%= submit_tag 'Submit' -%> <% end -%> But have no idea how to access this uploaded file in the controller. Any suggestions/help would be welcomed. Thanks

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  • What is the best way to embed SQL in VB.NET.

    - by Amy P
    I am looking for information on the best practices or project layout for software that uses SQL embedded inside VB.NET or C#. The software will connect to a full SQL DB. The software was written in VB6 and ported to VB.NET, we want to update it to use .NET functionality but I am not sure where to start with my research. We are using Visual Studio 2005. All database manipulations are done from VB. Update: To clarify. We are currently using SqlConnection, SqlDataAdapter, SqlDataReader to connect to the database. What I mean by embed is that the SQL stored procedures are scripted inside our VB code and then run on the db. All of our tables, stored procs, views, etc are all manipulated in the VB code. The layout of our code is quite messy. I am looking for a better architecture or pattern that we can use to organize our code. Can you recommend any books, webpages, topics that I can google, etc to help me better understand the best way for us to do this.

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  • Need help INSERT record(s) MySQL DB

    - by JM4
    I have an online form which collects member(s) information and stores it into a very long MySQL database. We allow up to 16 members to enroll at a single time and originally structured the DB to allow such. For example: If 1 Member enrolls, his personal information (first name, last name, address, phone, email) are stored on a single row. If 15 Members enroll (all at once), their personal information are stored in the same single row. The row has information housing columns for all 'possible' inputs. I am trying to consolidate this code and having every nth member that enrolls put onto a new record within the database. I have seen sugestions before for inserting multiple records as such: INSERT INTO tablename VALUES (('$f1name', '$f1address', '$f1phone'), ('$f2name', '$f2address', '$f2phone')... The issue with this is two fold: I do not know how many records are being enrolled from person to person so the only way to make the statement above is to use a loop The information collected from the forms is NOT a single array so I can't loop through one array and have it parse out. My information is collected as individual input fields like such: Member1FirstName, Member1LastName, Member1Phone, Member2Firstname, Member2LastName, Member2Phone... and so on Is it possible to store information in separate rows WITHOUT using a loop (and therefore having to go back and completely restructure my form field names and such (which can't happen due to the way the validation rules are built.)

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  • How to pass values from array into mysql with php

    - by moustafa
    my original code is this <tr> <th> <label for="user_level"> User Level: * <?php echo isset($valid_user_level) ? $valid_user_level : NULL; ?> </label> </th> </tr> <td> <select name="user_level" id="user_level" class="sel"> <option value="">Select one…</option> <option value="1">User</option> <option value="5">Admin</option> </select> </td> this give me the option to select one of choice from the drop down menu i.e. user and when user is selected and the submit button is pressed this will insert the value 1 into the database which will when the user logs in tell the system that they are are normal user. I want to change the code to the following <tr> <td> <select name="user_level" id="user_level" class="sel"> <option value="">Select one…</option> <?php if(!empty($level)) { foreach($level as $value) { echo "<option value='{$value}'"; echo getSticky(2,'user_level',$value); echo ">{$value}</option>"; } } ?> </select> </td> </tr> With this being my array query $level = array('User','Admin'); How can I pass the values of 1 for user level and 5 for admin in this code so when the user is selected it inouts 1 into the database?

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  • Extending the CI_DB_active_record class in codeigniter 2.0

    - by ctrane
    I am writing my first program with Codeigniter, and have run into a problem. I will start with a focused description of the problem and can broaden it if I need to: I need to write a multi-dimensional array to the DB and want to use the insert_batch function from the CI_DB_active_record class to do so. The problem is that I need to write empty values as NULL for some fields while other fields need to be empty strings. The current function wraps all values with single quotes, and I cannot find a way to write null values to the database for specified fields. I would also like to increase the number of records per batch. I see how to extend models, libraries, etc., but is there a way to extend the CI_DB_active_record class without modifying core classes? The minimal amount of core class modification to make this work that I have found is modifying the following lines in the DB.php file (changing the require_once file to the new file that extends the CI_DB_active_record class and changing the CI_DB_active_record class name to the new class name): require_once(BASEPATH.'database/DB_active_rec'.EXT); if ( ! class_exists('CI_DB')) { eval('class CI_DB extends CI_DB_active_record { }'); } Can I do better?

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  • How to map this class in NHibernate (not FluentNHibernate)?

    - by JMSA
    Suppose I have a database like this: This is set up to give role-wise menu permissions. Please note that, User-table has no direct relationship with Permission-table. Then how should I map this class against the database-tables? class User { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } public string Password { get; set; } public bool? IsActive { get; set; } public IList<Role> RoleItems { get; set; } public IList<Permission> PermissionItems { get; set; } public IList<string> MenuItemKeys { get; set; } } This means, (1) Every user has some Roles. (2) Every user has some Permissions (depending on to Roles). (3) Every user has some permitted MenuItemKeys (according to Permissions). How should my User.hbm.xml look like?

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  • self-destructing objects in php5?

    - by user151841
    I am working on a class in php that is basically an interface to a database row. I wanted to create a delete() method that would 1. delete the database row and 2. destroy the instance of itself so that further attempts to manipulate the row via the object would throw warnings. Doing some googling, it seems that, in php5, it's not possible for an object to unset itself. http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=36971 In fact they discuss the very situation I was wanting to do :( So how should I proceed? I could make boolean flag as a class property, for whether the row still exists, and have each operation check that flag and throw an error if the row has been deleted. This maintains the oo structure of code, so I would have $objDbRow->delete(); But then I have to put checks at the beginning of each method. Or, I could implement a __destruct method that deletes the row. But that would seem counter-intuitive to me; if I saw in code unset($objDbRow); All I would suspect that's happening is that the object is being discarded, not that a row is being deleted. So that to me would seem like bad practice.

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