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  • Intent.putExtras not consistent

    - by martinjd
    I have a weird situation with AlarmManager. I am scheduling an event with AlarmManager and passing in a string using intent.putExtra. The string is either silent or vibrate and when the receiver fires the phone should either turn of the ringer or set the phone to vibrate. The log statement correctly outputs the expected value each time. Intent intent; if (eventType.equals("start")) { intent = new Intent(context, SReceiver.class); } else { intent = new Intent(context, EReceiver.class); } intent.setAction(eventType+Long.toString(newId)); Log.v("EditQT",ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); intent.putExtra("ringerModeType", ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); PendingIntent appIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService (Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), appIntent); The receiver that fires when the alarm executes also has a log statement and I can see the first time around that the statement outputs the expected string either SILENT or VIBRATE. The alarm executes and then I change the value for putExtra to opposite string and the receiver still displays the previous value event though the call from the code above shows that the new value was passed in. The value for setAction is the same each time. audioManager = (AudioManager) context.getSystemService(Activity.AUDIO_SERVICE); Log.v("Start",intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").toString()); if (intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").equals("SILENTMODE")) { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_SILENT); } else { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_VIBRATE); } Any thoughts?

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  • 32 bit dllimport generating incorrect format error (0x8007000b) on win7 x64 platform

    - by DFP
    Hello, I'm trying to install and run a 32 bit application on a Win7 x64 machine. The application is built as a Win32 app. It runs fine on 32 bit platforms. On the x64 machine it installs correctly in the Programs(x86) directory and runs fine until I make a call into a 32 bit dll. At that time I get the incorrect format error (0x8007000b) indicating it is trying to load the dll of the wrong bitness. Indeed it is trying to load the 64 bit dll from the System32 directory rather than the 32 bit version in the SystemWOW64 directory. Another 32 bit application provided by the dll vendor runs correctly and it does load the 32 bit dll from the SystemWOW64 directory. I do not have source to their application to see how they are accessing the DLL. I'm using the DllImport function as shown below to access the dll. Is there a way to decorate the DllImport calls to force it to load the 32 bit version? Any thoughts appreciated. Thanks, DP public static class Micronas { [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacBuildDeviceList(uint uFlags); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacGetNumberOfDevices(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetFirstDevice(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetNextDevice(uint handle); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacSetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, uint data); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public unsafe static extern uint UacGetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, IntPtr data); }

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  • Bound checkbox does not update its datasource.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a checkbox who's checked value is bound to a binding source which is bound to a boolean data table column. When I click my save button to push my changes in my data table to my sql server the value in the data table is never changed. Designer code. this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges = new System.Windows.Forms.CheckBox(); this.preProductionBindingSource = new System.Windows.Forms.BindingSource(); // // cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges // this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.AutoSize = true; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("Checked", this.preProductionBindingSource, "WEBINFINTY_CHANGES", true, System.Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged)); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(6, 98); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Name = "cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges"; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(152, 17); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.TabIndex = 30; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Text = "Keep WebInfinity Changes"; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.UseVisualStyleBackColor = true; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.CheckedChanged += new System.EventHandler(this.CauseApplyChangesActivation); // // preProductionBindingSource // this.preProductionBindingSource.AllowNew = false; this.preProductionBindingSource.DataMember = "PreProduction"; this.preProductionBindingSource.DataSource = this.salesLogix; Save Code //the comments are the debugger values before the call in going from checked when loaded to unchecked when saved. private void btnApplyChanges_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { (...) // non related saving logic for other controls preProductionBindingSource.EndEdit(); // checked = false, databinding = true, datatable = true preProductionTableAdapter.Update(salesLogix.PreProduction); // checked = false, databinding = true, datatable = true } After the saving code the box rechecks itself. The same things happens when going from unchecked to checked. does not save the change and reverts to the old value. Other items I have bound to the same data-binding source (I have two combo boxes) are updating correctly.

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  • Can a web app in xul:iframe access functions from its parent XUL file?

    - by oskar
    I want to deploy a web app as a self-contained program using XULRunner. I'm simply loading it in a xul:iframe tag within the main XUL file. It works, but I want the web app to have access to XUL components, specifically nsiFilePicker. My tentative solution is to run the xul:iframe with escalated privileges (by omitting the "type" attribute), wait for the xul:iframe to load, then define a javascript function that the web app will then call. <window id="main" width="800" height="600" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <iframe id="contentview" src="web/index.html" flex="1"/> <script> //listen for XUL window to load window.addEventListener("load",Listen,false); function Listen() { var frame = document.getElementById("contentview"); frame.addEventListener("DOMContentLoaded", DomLoadedEventHandler, true); } //listen for iframe to load function DomLoadedEventHandler() { //set function in iframe called testMe() var frame = document.getElementById("contentview"); frame.contentWindow.testMe = function () { alert("This is a test"); }; } </script> </window> ...and then in the index.html file of the web app... <script> testMe(); </script> This doesn't seem to work. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • java Properties - to expose or not to expose?

    - by ring bearer
    This might be an age old problem and I am sure everyone has their own ways. Suppose I have some properties defined such as secret.user.id=user secret.password=password website.url=http://stackoverflow.com Suppose I have 100 different classes and places where I need to use these properties. Which one is good (1) I create a Util class that will load all properties and serve them using a key constant Such as : Util is a singleton that loads all properties and keeps up on getInstance() call. Util myUtil = Util.getInstance(); String user = myUtil.getConfigByKey(Constants.SECRET_USER_ID); String password = myUtil.getConfigByKey(Constants.SECRET_PASSWORD); .. //getConfigByKey() - inturns invokes properties.get(..) doSomething(user, password) So wherever I need these properties, I can do steps above. (2) I create a meaningful Class to represent these properties; say, ApplicationConfig and provide getters to get specific properties. So above code may look like: ApplicationConfig config = ApplicationConfig.getInstance(); doSomething(config.getSecretUserId(), config.getPassword()); //ApplicationConfig would have instance variables that are initialized during // getInstance() after loading from properties file. Note: The properties file as such will have only minor changes in the future. My personal choice is (2) - let me hear some comments?

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  • While trying to set up Django on Windows: AttributeError: 'Settings' object has no attribute 'DATABA

    - by user326370
    I'm following these instructions in order to set up Django on Windows. I have installed Python 2.6, PostgreSQL 8.4, Psycopg 2.0.14 for Python 2.6 and the latest version of Django from SVN. I'm now following these instructions to run a test project (copied from the page linked to above): C:\Documents and Settings\John>cd C:\ C:\>mkdir django C:\>cd django C:\django>django-admin.py startproject testproject C:\django>cd testproject C:\django\testproject>python manage.py runserver When I run the last line, this is the output: Validating models... Unhandled exception in thread started by <function inner_run at 0x01ECB930> Traceback (most recent call last): File "J:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\core\management\commands\runserver.py", line 48, in inn er_run self.validate(display_num_errors=True) File "J:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\core\management\base.py", line 249, in validate num_errors = get_validation_errors(s, app) File "J:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\core\management\validation.py", line 22, in get_validat ion_errors from django.db import models, connection File "J:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\db\__init__.py", line 14, in <module> if not settings.DATABASES: File "J:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\utils\functional.py", line 273, in __getattr__ return getattr(self._wrapped, name) AttributeError: 'Settings' object has no attribute 'DATABASES' Did I forget to do something with the database? Any help will be appreciated. Thank you!

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  • encodeURIComponent is really useful?

    - by Marco Demaio
    Something I still don't understand when perfoming an http-get request to the server is what the advantage is in using JS fucntion encodeURIcomponent to encode each component of the http-get. Doing some tests I saw the server (using PHP) gets the values of the http-get request properly also if I don't use encodeURIcomponent!!! Obviuosly I still need to encode at client level the special character & ? = / : otherwise an http-get value like this "peace&love=virtue" would be considered as new key value pair of the http-get request instead of a one single value. But why does encodeURIcompenent encodes also many other charcaters like 'è' for example wich is translated into %C3%A8 that must be decoded on a PHP server using the utf8_decode function. By using encodeURIcomponent all values of the http-get request are utf8 encoded, therefor when getting them in PHP I have to call each time the utf8_decode function on each $_GET value which is quite annoying. Why can't we just encode only the & ? = / : charcaters??? see also: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2607946/js-encodeuricomponent-result-different-from-the-one-created-by-form It shows that encodeURIComponent does not even encode properly because a simple browser FORM GET encodes charactrs like '€', in different way. So I still wonder what does this encodeURIComponent is for?

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  • Using PHP to display button with hyperlink or greyed out button if no URL in database

    - by Diane
    I've got a webpage that I'm working on where you click on a letter or category and it displays records matching that query from a database. One of the things I want to display is a hyperlinked button that says "Website" if the database record contains a URL in the 'URL' field, and if there is no value in that field, it will display a greyed out version of that button. I tried using an if...else statement, but was absolutely unable to get the syntax correct trying to get php to call up the 'URL' value in the middle of an "echo " So here's what I did: <?php if($row_rsmemalpha['URL'] != NULL) ?><a href="http://<?php echo ($row_rsmemalpha['URL']);?>"><target ="_blank"><img src="web_button_on.gif" alt="Website" border="0" height="18" width="103" /></target></a> <?php if($row_rsmemalpha['URL'] == NULL) echo "<img src=\"web_button_off.gif\" alt=\"No Website Available\" height=\"18\" width=\"103\" />"; ?> If there is a URL available it shows the button properly. But if there isn't a URL in the database it shows both buttons. I have spent a few days studying examples and tutorials on the web, but haven't found too much that helps. The buttons were completely non-functional when I started, so I'm pretty proud of getting this far with it! I've just run out of time and patience for more trial-and-error experimenting. Any help is appreciated... Diane

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  • JavaScript keeps returning ambigious error

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    this is my function (with other lines ive tried/abandoned)... function DoClicked(eNumber) { //obj.style = 'bgcolor: maroon'; var eid = 'cat' + eNumber; //$get(obj).style.backgroundColor = 'maroon'; //var nObj = $get(obj); var nObj = document.getElementById(eid) //alert(nObj.getAttribute("style")); nObj.style.backgroundColor = 'Maroon'; alert(nObj.style.backgroundColor); //nObj.setAttribute("style", "backgroundcolor: Maroon"); }; This error keeps getting returned even after the last line in the function runs: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.ArgumentUndefinedException: Value cannot be undefined. Parameter name: method this function is called with an "OnSuccess" set in my Ajax.ActionLink call (ASP.NET MVC)... anyone any ideas on this? i have these referenced... even when i remove the 'debug' versions for normal versions, i still get an error but the error just has much less information and says 'b' is undefined (probably a ms js library internal variable)... <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> also, this is how i am calling the actionlink method: Ajax.ActionLink(item.CategoryName, "SubCategoryList", "Home", New With {.CategoryID = item.CategoryID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "SubCat", .HttpMethod = "Post", .OnSuccess = "DoClicked(" & item.CategoryID.ToString & ")"}, New With {.id = "cat" & item.CategoryID.ToString})

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  • Passing control references as ref parameters

    - by Enmanuel
    Hi everyone. Please help me out here because im getting kind of confused.. I have a form in a C# winforms project and a couple of methods that are suposed to perform some tasks for this particular form and all derived ones, so one of those helper methods can make the example.. this one should fill comboboxes with a dataset. Its working properly now but when i coded the method with this signature protected void FillComboBox(kComboBox target, IEntClass_DA entity) { target.DataSource = entity.GetList().Tables[0]; target.DisplayMember = "name"; target.ValueMember = "id"; } I saw that the displayMember and ValueMember in the comboboxes were not holding the values after the method call. I just thought I should use ref parameters so the asignments are not wasted in read-only reference variables. It was ok by then but later, making an exercise of passing the whole form as a parameter I was warned by the compiler with the notice that this could not be passed as a ref parameter because it is read-only. Fine then, I keep working and see that even without the ref keyword i can use the ref variable from the form, update some properties and see the changes. So whats happening here: passing a reference of the control to the helper method gives me ability to change its members even when not using the ref parameter?? Thanks.

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  • Prevent deferred creation of controls.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    Here is a test framework to show what I am doing, just create a new project add a tabbed control, on tab 1 put a button on tab 2 put a check box (default names) and paste this code for its code public partial class Form1 : Form { private List<bool> boolList = new List<bool>(); BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); boolList.Add(false); bs.DataSource = boolList; checkBox1.DataBindings.Add("Checked", bs, ""); } bool updating = false; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { updating = true; boolList[0] = true; bs.ResetBindings(false); Application.DoEvents(); updating = false; } private void checkBox1_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!updating) MessageBox.Show("CheckChanged fired outside of updating"); } } The issue is if you run the program and look at tab 2 then press the button on tab 1 the program works as expected, however if you press the button on tab 1 then look at tab 2 the event for the checkbox will not fire untill you look at tab 2. The reason for this is the controll on tab 2 is not in the "created" state, so its binding to change the checkbox from unchecked to checked does not happen until after the control has been "Created". checkbox1.CreateControl() does not do anything because according to MSDN CreateControl does not create a control handle if the control's Visible property is false. You can either call the CreateHandle method or access the Handle property to create the control's handle regardless of the control's visibility, but in this case, no window handles are created for the control's children. I tried getting the value of Handle(there is no CreateHandle for Button) but still the same result. Any suggestions other than have the program quickly flash all of my tabs that have data-bound check boxes when it first loads?

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  • Where does django look for sqlite3 installation/libraries?

    - by gath
    Am having a bit of a problem making my django application run in SUSE linux 9. I have Python2.5 installed well, Django 1.0 installed well. Am able to execute django command django-admin startproject fine But when i run the runserver command i get the error below. i have a folder with sqlite3, i can go in there and actually run the sqlite3* application, now am wondering where does Django look for the sqlite libraries? and how can i fix this? Validating models... Unhandled exception in thread started by <function inner_run at 0x2a96cb4f50> Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/core/management/commands/runserver.py", line 48, in inner_run self.validate(display_num_errors=True) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 122, in validate num_errors = get_validation_errors(s, app) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/core/management/validation.py", line 22, in get_validation_errors from django.db import models, connection File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/db/__init__.py", line 16, in <module> backend = __import__('%s%s.base' % (_import_path, settings.DATABASE_ENGINE), {}, {}, ['']) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/django/db/backends/sqlite3/base.py", line 27, in <module> raise ImproperlyConfigured, "Error loading %s module: %s" % (module, exc) django.core.exceptions.ImproperlyConfigured: Error loading sqlite3 module: No module named _sqlite3 Gath

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  • How do I supply extra info to IApplicationSettingsProvider class?

    - by joebeazelman
    Perhaps this question has been asked before in a different way, but I haven’t been able to find it. I have one or more plugin adapter assemblies in my application all having the type IPlugin, for instance. Each adapter has its own settings structures stored in a common directory. Whether they are stored in one contiguous file or in separate ones doesn’t matter. Each adapter can have one or more settings associated with it. The settings will have both a name and the Plugin it will be used for. How would I create such a configuration system using the following requirements: I want to use .NETs built in settings system and avoid writing one from scratch The host application will be responsible for locating the plugin settings and passing it to the plugin Each plugin will be responsible for reading and writing its own settings to separate concerns. The host application should call Plugin.Save(thePath) and it does its thing. All settings are user scoped So far, I realize that I would need to write my own SettingsProvider, but the provider seems to work in isolation in that there’s no way to pass it parameters such as the path of the plugin directory and the name of the settings. All of the example code I've seen has the provider getting the data from the runtime environment.

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  • How to run some code only once in view

    - by Freewind
    I have a partial view called '_comment.erb', and it may be called by parent many times(e.g. in a loop). The '_comment.erb' looks like: <script> function aaa() {} </script> <%= comment.content %> <%=link_to_function 'Do', 'aaa()' %> You can see if the '_comment.erb' be called many times, that the javascript function 'aaa' will be re-defined many times. I hope it can be define only once, but I don't want to move it to parent view. I hope there is a method, say 'run_once', and I can use it like this: <%= run_once do %> <script> function aaa() {} </script> <% end %> <%= comment.content %> <%=link_to_function 'Do', 'aaa()' %> No matter how many time I call the '_comment.erb', the code inside 'run_once' will be run only once. What shall I do?

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  • Emailing smtp with Python error

    - by jakecar
    I can't figure out why this isn't working. I'm trying to send an email from my school email address with this code I got online. The same code works for sending from my GMail address. Does anyone know what this error means? The error occurs after waiting for about one and a half minutes. import smtplib FROMADDR = "FROM_EMAIL" LOGIN = "USERNAME" PASSWORD = "PASSWORD" TOADDRS = ["TO_EMAIL"] SUBJECT = "Test" msg = ("From: %s\r\nTo: %s\r\nSubject: %s\r\n\r\n" % (FROMADDR, ", ".join(TOADDRS), SUBJECT) ) msg += "some text\r\n" server = smtplib.SMTP('OUTGOING_SMTP', 587) server.set_debuglevel(1) server.ehlo() server.starttls() server.login(LOGIN, PASSWORD) server.sendmail(FROMADDR, TOADDRS, msg) server.quit() And here's the error I get: Traceback (most recent call last): File "emailer.py", line 13, in server = smtplib.SMTP('OUTGOING_SMTP', 587) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/smtplib.py", line 239, in init (code, msg) = self.connect(host, port) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/smtplib.py", line 295, in connect self.sock = self._get_socket(host, port, self.timeout) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/smtplib.py", line 273, in _get_socket return socket.create_connection((port, host), timeout) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 514, in create_connection raise error, msg socket.error: [Errno 60] Operation timed out

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  • How to have a policy class implement a virtual function?

    - by dehmann
    I'm trying to design a policy-based class, where a certain interface is implemented by the policy itself, so the class derives from the policy, which itself is a template (I got this kind of thinking from Alexandrescu's book): #include <iostream> #include <vector> class TestInterface { public: virtual void test() = 0; }; class TestImpl1 { public: void test() {std::cerr << "Impl1" << std::endl;} }; template<class TestPolicy> class Foo : public TestInterface, TestPolicy { }; Then, in the main() function, I call test() on (potentially) various different objects that all implement the same interface: int main() { std::vector<TestInterface*> foos; foos.push_back(new Foo<TestImpl1>()); foos[0]->test(); delete foos[0]; return 0; } It doesn't compile, though, because the following virtual functions are pure within ‘Foo<TestImpl1>’: virtual void TestInterface::test() I thought TestInterface::test() is implemented because we derive from TestImpl1?

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  • Objective-C Implementation Pointers

    - by Dwaine Bailey
    Hi, I am currently writing an XML parser that parses a lot of data, with a lot of different nodes (the XML isn't designed by me, and I have no control over the content...) Anyway, it currently takes an unacceptably long time to download and read in (about 13 seconds) and so I'm looking for ways to increase the efficiency of the read. I've written a function to create hash values, so that the program no longer has to do a lot of string comparison (just NSUInteger comparison), but this still isn't reducing the complexity of the read in... So I thought maybe I could create an array of IMPs so that, I could then go something like: for(int i = 0; i < [hashValues count]; i ++) { if(currHash == [[hashValues objectAtIndex:i] unsignedIntValue]) { [impArray objectAtIndex:i]; } } Or something like that. The only problem is that I don't know how to actually make the call to the IMP function? I've read that I perform the selector that an IMP defines by going IMP tImp = [impArray objectAtIndex:i]; tImp(self, @selector(methodName)); But, if I need to know the name of the selector anyway, what's the point? Can anybody help me out with what I want to do? Or even just some more ways to increase the efficiency of the parser...

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  • Field specific errors for ETL

    - by AaronLS
    I am creating a ETL process in MS SQL Server and I would like to have errors specific to a particular column of a particular row. For example, the data is initially loaded from excel files into a table(we'll call the Initial table) where all columns are varchar(2000) and then I stage the data to another table(the DataTypedTable) that contains more specific data types (datetime,int, etc.) or more tightly constrained varchar lengths. I need to be able to create error messages for a specific field such as: "Jan. 13th" is not a valid date format for the submission date. Please use a format of MM/DD/YYYY These error messages would need to be stored in some way such that later in the process a automated process can create reports with the error messages such that each message references a specific row and field(someone will need to go back and correct the data in the source system and resubmit the excel file). So ideally it would be inserted into a Failures tables of some sort and contain the primary key of the failed row, the column name, and the error message. Question: So I am wondering if this can be accomplished with SSIS, or some open source tool like Talend, and if so, what would be your general approach? Or what hand coded approach you would take? Couple approaches I've thought of using SQL(up until no I have done ETL by hand in SQL procs, but I want to consider other approaches. Possible C# even.): Use a cursor to read through the Initial table, and for each row insert a blank record with only the primary key into the DataTyped table, then use a single update statement for each column, such that if that update fails I can insert a very specific error message specific to that column in the error messages table. Insert all the data as is into the DataTyped table, but have duplicate columns like SubmissionDate and SubmissionDateOld. After the initial insert the *Old columns have data, the rest are blank, and I have a single update for each column that sets the SubmissionDate based on the SubmissionDateOld. In addition to suggesting an approach, I'd like to know if you are using that approach or something similar already in the work you do.

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  • NSOutlineView/NSTreeController - calculate sum of column

    - by matei
    I have a NSOutlineView bound to a NSTreeController. My data items are a custom class , let's call them "Row", and suppose a Row contains a "name" and a numeric field called "number" . All these "Rows" are found in let's say a "RowContainer" which has a "rows" mutable array holding the parent (level 0) rows. Each row also has a "children" NSMutableArray member which holds it's children. I have this working, and I want to display under the outlineview a textfield with the sum of all the "number" values of the rows. I bound this textfield to a "total" property of the "RowContainer". Now the problem is how or from where to trigger the recalculation of the "total" property, since this involves a recursive walk on the tree of rows, and I always get a "Collection was mutated while being enumerated" error. I've tried making a method "recalculateTotal", and calling it from the "setNumber" method of the "Row" class , but same error occurs. If I put the recalculation logic in the "total" getter, I can't trigger it to do the math. I'm sure the solution is simple but I can't see it

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  • Web Workers - Transferable Objects for JSON

    - by kclem06
    HTML 5 Web workers are very slow when using worker.postMessage on a large JSON object. I'm trying to figure out how to transfer a JSON Object to a web worker - using the 'Transferable Objects' types in Chrome, in order to increase the speed of this. Here is what I'm referring to and appears it should speed this up quite a bit: http://updates.html5rocks.com/2011/12/Transferable-Objects-Lightning-Fast I'm having trouble finding a good example of this (and I don't believe I want to use an ArrayBuffer). Any help would be appreciated. I'm imagining something like this: worker = new Worker('workers.js'); var large_json = {}; for(var i = 0; i < 20000; ++i){ large_json[i] = i; large_json["test" + i] = "string"; }; //How to make this call to use Transfer Objects? Takes approx 2 seconds to serialize this for me currently. worker.webkitPostMessage(large_json);

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  • Objects in JavaScript defined and undefined at the same time (in a FireFox extension)

    - by Alexey Romanov
    I am chasing down a bug in a FireFox extension. I've finally managed to see it for myself (I've only had reports before) and I can't understand how what I saw is possible. One error message from my extension in the Error Console is "gBrowser is not defined". This by itself would be surprising enough, since the overlay is over browser.xul and navigator.xul, and I expect gBrowser to be available from both. Even worse is the actual place where it happens: line 101 of nextplease.js. That is, inside the function isTopLevelDocument, which is only called from onContentLoaded, which is only called from onLoad here: gBrowser.addEventListener(this.loadType, function (event) { nextplease.loadListener.onContentLoaded(event); }, true); So gBrowser is defined in onLoad, but somehow undefined in isTopLevelDocument. When I tried to actually use the extension, I got another error: "nextplease is not defined". The interesting thing is that it happened on lines 853 and 857. That is, inside the functions nextplease.getNextLink = function () { nextplease.getLink(window.content, nextplease.NextPhrasesMap, nextplease.NextImagesMap, nextplease.isNextRegExp, nextplease.NEXT_SEARCH_TYPE); } nextplease.getPrevLink = function () { nextplease.getLink(window.content, nextplease.PrevPhrasesMap, nextplease.PrevImagesMap, nextplease.isPrevRegExp, nextplease.PREV_SEARCH_TYPE); } So nextplease is somehow defined enough to call these functions, but isn't defined inside them. Finally, executing typeof(nextplease) in Execute JS returns "object". Same for gBrowser. How can this happen? Any ideas?

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  • Syncing two separate structures to the same master data

    - by Mike Burton
    I've got multiple structures to maintain in my application. All link to the same records, and one of them could be considered the "master" in that it reflects actual relationships held in files on disk. The other structures are used to "call out" elements of the main design for purchase and work orders. I'm struggling to come up with a pattern that deals appropriately with changes to the master data. As an example, the following trees might refer to the same data: A |_ B |_ C |_ D |_ E |_ B |_ C |_ D A |_ B E C |_ D A |_ B C D E These secondary structures follow internal rules, but their overall structure is usually user-determined. In all cases (including the master), any element can be used in multiple locations and in multiple trees. When I add a child to any element in the tree, I want to either automatically build the secondary structure for each instance of the "master" element or at least advertise the situation to the user and allow them to manually generate the data required for the secondary trees. Is there any pattern which might apply to this situation? I've been treating it as a view problem, but it turns out to be more complicated than that when you look at the initial generation of the data.

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  • ActiveScaffold custom action_link that should respond like update

    - by doug316
    I have a custom action link which is :inline and :post. It's a quick-link to update an attribute, and that part works just fine. After the action, my intent is to respond just like it was an update, so the row is re-rendered in the index. After the record is updated in my controller action, I call respond_to_action(:create) Just like in the create method in active scaffold. It seems like the content of the javascript response is returned correctly to the client, however, the problem: The content-type of the response header is "text/html" instead of "text/javascript", unlike with an actual update. So the JS is not executed and the row doesn't update. I can't figure out what the difference could possibly be here, I've traced extensively and even have replaced the respond_to_action with: respond_to do |format| format.js do render ... end end And it still won't set the content-type like every other action in the app. Anybody have a clue here? Something in active scaffold must be overriding the content-type and I can't figure out what it might be. Surprising this isn't documented, this doesn't seem like an unusual use-case, making an action a slave to the update re-render.

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  • Why a "private static" is not seen in a method?

    - by Roman
    I have a class with the following declaration of the fields: public class Game { private static String outputFileName; .... } I set the value of the outputFileName in the main method of the class. I also have a write method in the class which use the outputFileName. I always call write after main sets value for outputFileName. But write still does not see the value of the outputFileName. It say that it's equal to null. Could anybody, pleas, tell me what I am doing wrong? ADDED As it is requested I post more code: In the main: String outputFileName = userName + "_" + year + "_" + month + "_" + day + "_" + hour + "_" + minute + "_" + second + "_" + millis + ".txt"; f=new File(outputFileName); if(!f.exists()){ try { f.createNewFile(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } System.out.println("IN THE MAIN!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!"); System.out.println("------>" + outputFileName + "<------"); This line outputs me the name of the file. Than in the write I have: public static void write(String output) { // Open a file for appending. System.out.println("==========>" + outputFileName + "<============"); ...... } And it outputs null.

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  • Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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