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  • How to avoid using this in a constructor

    - by Paralife
    I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

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  • Can a function return an object? Objective-C and NSMutableArray

    - by seaworthy
    I have an NSMutableArray. It's members eventually become members of an array instance in a class. I want to put the instantiantion of NSMutable into a function and to return an array object. If I can do this, I can make some of my code easier to read. Is this possible? Here is what I am trying to figure out. //Definition: > function Objects (float a, float b) { > NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:a]]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:b]]; > //[release array]; ???????? return array; > } //Declaration: Math *operator = [[Math alloc] init]; [operator findSum:Objects(20.0,30.0)]; My code compiles if I instantiate NSMutableArray right before I send the message to the receiver. I know I can have an array argument along with the method. What I have problem seeing is how to use a function and to replace the argument with a function call. Any help is appreciated. I am interested in the concept not in suggestions to replace the findSum method.

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  • What's the best way to read a UDT from a database with Java?

    - by Lukas Eder
    I thought I knew everything about UDTs and JDBC until someone on SO pointed out some details of the Javadoc of java.sql.SQLInput and java.sql.SQLData JavaDoc to me. The essence of that hint was (from SQLInput): An input stream that contains a stream of values representing an instance of an SQL structured type or an SQL distinct type. This interface, used only for custom mapping, is used by the driver behind the scenes, and a programmer never directly invokes SQLInput methods. This is quite the opposite of what I am used to do (which is also used and stable in productive systems, when used with the Oracle JDBC driver): Implement SQLData and provide this implementation in a custom mapping to ResultSet.getObject(int index, Map mapping) The JDBC driver will then call-back on my custom type using the SQLData.readSQL(SQLInput stream, String typeName) method. I implement this method and read each field from the SQLInput stream. In the end, getObject() will return a correctly initialised instance of my SQLData implementation holding all data from the UDT. To me, this seems like the perfect way to implement such a custom mapping. Good reasons for going this way: I can use the standard API, instead of using vendor-specific classes such as oracle.sql.STRUCT, etc. I can generate source code from my UDTs, with appropriate getters/setters and other properties My questions: What do you think about my approach, implementing SQLData? Is it viable, even if the Javadoc states otherwise? What other ways of reading UDT's in Java do you know of? E.g. what does Spring do? what does Hibernate do? What does JPA do? What do you do? Addendum: UDT support and integration with stored procedures is one of the major features of jOOQ. jOOQ aims at hiding the more complex "JDBC facts" from client code, without hiding the underlying database architecture. If you have similar questions like the above, jOOQ might provide an answer to you.

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  • How to have a policy class implement a virtual function?

    - by dehmann
    I'm trying to design a policy-based class, where a certain interface is implemented by the policy itself, so the class derives from the policy, which itself is a template (I got this kind of thinking from Alexandrescu's book): #include <iostream> #include <vector> class TestInterface { public: virtual void test() = 0; }; class TestImpl1 { public: void test() {std::cerr << "Impl1" << std::endl;} }; template<class TestPolicy> class Foo : public TestInterface, TestPolicy { }; Then, in the main() function, I call test() on (potentially) various different objects that all implement the same interface: int main() { std::vector<TestInterface*> foos; foos.push_back(new Foo<TestImpl1>()); foos[0]->test(); delete foos[0]; return 0; } It doesn't compile, though, because the following virtual functions are pure within ‘Foo<TestImpl1>’: virtual void TestInterface::test() I thought TestInterface::test() is implemented because we derive from TestImpl1?

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  • Make browser to go back by reloading page 1st and then scrolling it back again too

    - by Marco Demaio
    EXPLAINING WHAT I'M TRYING TO SOLVE: I have a webpage (file_list.php) showing a list of files, and next to each file there is a button to delete it. When user press the DELETE button close to a certain file name, the browser goes to a script called delete_file.php that deletes the file and then it tells browser to go back to the file_list.php delete_file.php uses a simple header("Location: file_list.php”); to go back to file_list.php When browser goes back to file_list.php it reloads the page, but it DOES NOT scroll it back again to where the user was before. So let's say the user scrolled the files list and deleted the last file, when the browser shows again the page file_list.php it won't be scrolled to the bottom of the page again. THE WORKAROUND I CAME OUT WITH: I found a strange way to work around this, basically instead of using header("Location: file_list.php”); in delete_file.php I simply use a javascript call window.history.go(-1). This workaround works perfectly when user is in session (simply using PHP session_start function): the browser RELOADS the file_list.php page and then scrolls it also bask to where it was before. But if the user is NOT in session the browser scrolls the page but IT DOES NOT RELOAD IT before, so the user would still see the file he deleted in the file list. THE QUESTIONS Do you know how to reproduce the behavior of the browser when goes back being in session even if we are not in session? Do you know a way out of this, even another way of solving this matter? Thanks! *I know I could use AJAX to delete the file so I would not have to go every time to delete_file.php, but this is not the answer*.

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  • Emulate domready event with a custom event (mootools)

    - by Rob
    I need to fire a one time only custom event that functions like the domready event, in that if new events are added after the event has occurred they are fired immediately. This is for some code that cannot execute until certain data and resources are initialized, so I want to do something like this: // I am including a script (loadResources.js) to load data and other resources, // when loadResources.js is done doing it's thing it will fire resourcesAreLoaded with: window.fireEvent('resourcesAreLoaded'); window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is fine }); $('mybutton').addEvent('click', function() { window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is not fine, because resourcesAreLoaded has already fired // by the time the button is clicked }); }); If possible I would like resourcesAreLoaded to function like domready, and execute the code immediately if the event has already fired: window.addEvent('testIsReady', function() { alert('firing test'); }); window.fireEvent('testIsReady'); window.addEvent('test', function() { // this will never execute unless I call fireEvent('testIsReady') again alert('test 2'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { alert('domready is firing'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { setTimeout(function() { alert('domready has already fired, so this is executed immediately'); }, 500); });

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  • SharePoint 2010 / ASP.Net Integration - Looking for advice

    - by jpennal
    I have been Googling a problem that I have with trying to integrate the web application that I am working on with SharePoint 2010. The web application is a wiki style tool that allows users to log in via forms authentication or WIA against Active Directory and create content for themselves and others. What we would like to do is to allow a user have a page with the content they have created in our web application mixed in with content that they have living on the SharePoint server. For example, they may want to see a list of documents that they have on the SharePoint server mixed in with some of their content. To accomplish this, we would like to take the credentials the user has logged into our web application with (for example MYDOMAIN\jsmith) and be able to query SharePoint for the documents of that same user (MYDOMAIN\jsmith) WITHOUT the user being prompted to re-enter their credentials to access the SharePoint server (we are trying to avoid the double-hop problem) We have come up with some options for how we want to do this, but we are unsure of what the best approach is. For example, we could - Have a global user, shared by all users to get information we need from SharePoint. The downside is that we cannot filter SharePoint content to a particular user - We could store the users credentials when they log in, but that would only work for users authenticating via forms auth and would be a security issue that some users/clients would not like - Writing a SharePoint extension using WCF to allow us to access the information we need, however we'd still have the issue of figuring out how to impersonate the user we want. Neither of these options are ideal and in our investigation we came across the Claims Authentication/STS option which seems like it is trying to solve the problem we are having. So my question is, based on what I have written, is Claims/STS the best approach for us? We have not been able to find much direction on how to use this method to call into SharePoint from a Web Application and pass along the existing credentials. Does anyone have any experience with any of these issues?

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  • Are there any prototype-based languages with a whole development cycle?

    - by Kaveh Shahbazian
    Are there any real-world prototype-based programming languages with a whole development cycle? "A whole development cycle" like Ruby and Python: web frameworks, scripting/interacting with the system, tools for debugging, profiling, etc. Thank you A brief note on PBPLs: (let's call these languages PBPL : prototype-based programming language) There are some PBPLs out there. Some are being widely used like JavaScript (which Node.js may bring it into the field - or may not!). One other language is ActionScript which is also a PBPL but tightly bound to Flash VM (is it correct to say so?). From less known ones I can speak of Lua which has a strong reputation in game development (mostly spread by WOW) but never took off as a full language. Lua has a table concept which can provide you some sort of prototype based programming facility. There is also JScript (Windows scripting tool) which is already pointless by the newcomer PowerShell (I have used JScript to manipulate IIS but I never understood what is JScript!). Others can be named like io (indeed very very neat, you will fall in love with it; absolutely impossible to use) and REBOL (What is this all about? A proprietary scripting tool? You must be kidding!) and newLISP (Which is actually a full language, but no one ever heard about it). For sure there are much more to list here but either I do not remember or I did not understood them as a real world thing, like Self).

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  • Debugging an unresponsive iPhone UI

    - by buggles
    I have an application that needs to update its display every minute or so. To achieve this I was using performSelector:withObject:afterDelay, calling the selector that most of the time just changes some text in a label based on a very simple (and quick) calculation. [self performSelector:@selector(updateDisplay) withObject:nil afterDelay:60]; Occasionally during an update, I have to go off and get some data from the web, and so I do that in another thread using detachNewThreadSelector. That all worked and the "performSelector after Delay" call completes in a tiny fraction of a second, and only runs once a minute. Despite this, and despite running fine on the simulator, the single button in the app is largely unresponsive, not responding to multiple stabs. So, I had assumed peformSelector:afterDelay would not block, but I'm now wondering if it is blocking in some way? I even tried NOT doing the web-look-up incase this was somehow still impacting the responsiveness. No joy. [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(updateFromURL) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; I then pushed it through shark to see if I could see anything obvious. From here I can see the web-lookup is the only thing taking any time, but it is only being done every couple of minutes, and then clearly not running on the main thread. The app itself is consuming a tiny fraction of 1% of the CPU (0.0000034%) over 20 minutes, so it just must be a blocking issue. So, am I missing something about performSelector:afterDelay? What other common newbie mistakes might I be making. If it helps, although I've been developing applications for over 20 years, the previous 10 have been largely Java. Perhaps I have a Java assumption loaded :-) Essentially I have assumed the main thread is like the EDT (only do UI stuff on it, but keep everything else off it).

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  • Measuring execution time of selected loops

    - by user95281
    I want to measure the running times of selected loops in a C program so as to see what percentage of the total time for executing the program (on linux) is spent in these loops. I should be able to specify the loops for which the performance should be measured. I have tried out several tools (vtune, hpctoolkit, oprofile) in the last few days and none of them seem to do this. They all find the performance bottlenecks and just show the time for those. Thats because these tools only store the time taken that is above a threshold (~1ms). So if one loop takes lesser time than that then its execution time won't be reported. The basic block counting feature of gprof depends on a feature in older compilers thats not supported now. I could manually write a simple timer using gettimeofday or something like that but for some cases it won't give accurate results. For ex: for (i = 0; i < 1000; ++i) { for (j = 0; j < N; ++j) { //do some work here } } Now here I want to measure the total time spent in the inner loop and I will have to put a call to gettimeofday inside the first loop. So gettimeofday itself will get called a 1000 times which introduces its own overhead and the result will be inaccurate.

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  • How to File Transfer client to Server?

    - by Phsika
    i try to recieve a file from server but give me error on server.Start() ERROR : In a manner not permitted by the access permissions to access a socket was attempted to How can i solve it? private void btn_Recieve_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { TcpListener server = null; // Set the TcpListener on port 13000. Int32 port = 13000; IPAddress localAddr = IPAddress.Parse("192.168.1.201"); // TcpListener server = new TcpListener(port); server = new TcpListener(localAddr, port); // Start listening for client requests. server.Start(); // Buffer for reading data Byte[] bytes = new Byte[277577]; String data; data = null; // Perform a blocking call to accept requests. // You could also user server.AcceptSocket() here. TcpClient client = server.AcceptTcpClient(); NetworkStream stream = client.GetStream(); int i; i = stream.Read(bytes, 0, 277577); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(File.Open("GoodLuckToMe.jpg", FileMode.Create)); writer.Write(bytes); writer.Close(); client.Close(); }

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  • How to Persist URL parameters when CakePHP form validation fails

    - by am2605
    Hi, I'm new to cakephp and trying to write a simple app with it, however I'm stuck with some form validation issues. I have a model named "Person" which hasMany "PersonSkill" objects. To add a "PersonSkill" to a person, I have set it up to call a url like this: http://localhost/myapp/person_skills/add/person_id:3 I have been passing through the person_id because I want to display the name of the person we are adding the skills for. My issue is if the validation fails, the person_id parameter is not persisted to the next request, so the person's name is not displayed. The add method on the controller looks like this: function add() { if (!empty($this->data)) { if ($this->PersonSkill->save($this->data)) { $this->Session->setFlash('Your person has been saved.'); $this->redirect(array('action' => 'view', 'id' => $this->PersonSkill->id)); } } else { $this->Person->id = $this->params['named']['person_id']; $this->set('person', $this->Person->read()); } } In my person_skill add.ctp I set a hidden field which holds the person_id, eg: echo $form->input('person_id', array('type'=>'hidden','value'=>$person['Person']['id'])); Is there a way to persist the person_id url parameter when form validation fails, or is there a better way to do this that I'm missing completely? Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using Mod-Rewrite in XAMPP

    - by rrrfusco
    I've followed some tutorials on how to use Mod_Rewrite, but it's not working out. I have a php index page that takes a page parameter like so: call: index?page=name1, name2, name3 etc. <?php if (isset($_GET['page'])) { switch($_GET['page']) { case 'front': include "front.php"; break; default: break; } } ? I'd like to run mod-rewrite so that the urls display as site.com/name1. Is this possible with the code i'm using above? Below is what I've been trying in the apache config files to no avail. apache/conf/http.conf line 122: LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so line 188: DocumentRoot "G:/xampp/htdocs" line 198: #default <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all </Directory> line 215: <Directory "G:/xampp/htdocs"> line 228: Options Indexes FollowSymLinks Includes ExecCGI line 235: AllowOverride All # cgi line 355: <Directory "G:/xampp/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> G:\xampp\apache\conf\extra\http.v-hosts.conf <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot G:/xampp/htdocs/ ServerName localhost ServerAdmin admin@localhost <Directory "G:/xampp/htdocs/localhost/"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride FileInfo Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot G:/xampp/htdocs/site2/ ServerName site2.localhost ServerAdmin [email protected] <Directory "G:/xampp/htdocs/site2.localhost/"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride FileInfo Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> .htaccess file IndexIgnore * RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^([^/\.]+)/?$ /index.php?page=$1 [L]

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  • OpenPeak Flash app XMLSocket Security Problem

    - by Kira
    We're trying to create an app for OpenPeak. The Flash app will act as a client to a Java server on another computer on another domain. The Flash app client connects via XMLSocket. The Java Server uses ServerSocket to receive a request and send back a message. In order to trust the server, the Flash client needs a socket master policy file to tell it that the server comes from a trustworthy domain. According to an article on Adobe, when a connection has succeeded, the Flash client automatically requests the cross-domain policy or socket master policy file on port 843. Still, even when we implement it according to the tutorials and recommendations we have read, the Flash client continues to throw the following security error: SecurityErrorEvent type="securityError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2 text="Error #2048" We've tried logging the policy file request during testing to see if there was any call made to port 843. There was not. Interestingly, even without a policy file, the Flash client still manages to send the first data message to the server successfully. It's just when the server tries to send back a reply that the entire thing hangs for about 10 seconds before the security error above is displayed. Any ideas / suggestions?

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  • SignalR - Handling disconnected users

    - by guilhermeGeek
    Hy, I'm using the signalR library on a project to handle an notification and chat modules. I've a table on an database to keep a track of online users. The HUB for chat is inheriting IDisconnect where i disconnect the user. After disconnecting the user, i warm the users about that event. At this point, i check if the disconnect user is the client. If it's, then i call an method on HUB to reconnect the user (just update the table). I do this because with the current implementation, once the user closes a tab on the browser it calls the Disconnect task but he could have another tab opened. I've not tested (with larger requests) this module yet, but on my development server it could take a few seconds between the IDisconnect event, and the request from the user to connect again. I'm concerned with my implementation to handle disconnected users from the chat but i can't see another way to improve this. If possible, could someone give me a advice on this, or this is the only solution that i've?

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  • Python byte per byte XOR decryption

    - by neurino
    I have an XOR encypted file by a VB.net program using this function to scramble: Public Class Crypter ... 'This Will convert String to bytes, then call the other function. Public Function Crypt(ByVal Data As String) As String Return Encoding.Default.GetString(Crypt(Encoding.Default.GetBytes(Data))) End Function 'This calls XorCrypt giving Key converted to bytes Public Function Crypt(ByVal Data() As Byte) As Byte() Return XorCrypt(Data, Encoding.Default.GetBytes(Me.Key)) End Function 'Xor Encryption. Private Function XorCrypt(ByVal Data() As Byte, ByVal Key() As Byte) As Byte() Dim i As Integer If Key.Length <> 0 Then For i = 0 To Data.Length - 1 Data(i) = Data(i) Xor Key(i Mod Key.Length) Next End If Return Data End Function End Class and saved this way: Dim Crypter As New Cryptic(Key) 'open destination file Dim objWriter As New StreamWriter(fileName) 'write crypted content objWriter.Write(Crypter.Crypt(data)) Now I have to reopen the file with Python but I have troubles getting single bytes, this is the XOR function in python: def crypto(self, data): 'crypto(self, data) -> str' return ''.join(chr((ord(x) ^ ord(y)) % 256) \ for (x, y) in izip(data.decode('utf-8'), cycle(self.key)) I had to add the % 256 since sometimes x is 256 i.e. not a single byte. This thing of two bytes being passed does not break the decryption because the key keeps "paired" with the following data. The problem is some decrypted character in the conversion is wrong. These chars are all accented letters like à, è, ì but just a few of the overall accented letters. The others are all correctly restored. I guess it could be due to the 256 mod but without it I of course get a chr exception... Thanks for your support

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  • Java Swing Threading with Updatable JProgressBar

    - by Anthony Sparks
    First off I've been working with Java's Concurency package quite a bit lately but I have found an issue that I am stuck on. I want to have and Application and the Application can have a SplashScreen with a status bar and the loading of other data. So I decided to use SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait( call the splash component here ). The SplashScreen then appears with a JProgressBar and runs a group of threads. But I can't seem to get a good handle on things. I've looked over SwingWorker and tried using it for this purpose but the thread just returns. Here is a bit of sudo-code. and the points I'm trying to achieve. Have an Application that has a SplashScreen that pauses while loading info Be able to run multiple threads under the SplashScreen Have the progress bar of the SplashScreen Update-able yet not exit until all threads are done. Launching splash screen try { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait( SplashScreen ); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } catch (InvocationTargetException e) { } Splash screen construction SplashScreen extends JFrame implements Runnable{ public void run() { //run threads //while updating status bar } } I have tried many things including SwingWorkers, Threads using CountDownLatch's, and others. The CountDownLatch's actually worked in the manner I wanted to do the processing but I was unable to update the GUI. When using the SwingWorkers either the invokeAndWait was basically nullified (which is their purpose) or it wouldn't update the GUI still even when using a PropertyChangedListener. If someone else has a couple ideas it would be great to hear them. Thanks in advance.

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  • encodeURIComponent is really useful?

    - by Marco Demaio
    Something I still don't understand when perfoming an http-get request to the server is what the advantage is in using JS fucntion encodeURIcomponent to encode each component of the http-get. Doing some tests I saw the server (using PHP) gets the values of the http-get request properly also if I don't use encodeURIcomponent!!! Obviuosly I still need to encode at client level the special character & ? = / : otherwise an http-get value like this "peace&love=virtue" would be considered as new key value pair of the http-get request instead of a one single value. But why does encodeURIcompenent encodes also many other charcaters like 'è' for example wich is translated into %C3%A8 that must be decoded on a PHP server using the utf8_decode function. By using encodeURIcomponent all values of the http-get request are utf8 encoded, therefor when getting them in PHP I have to call each time the utf8_decode function on each $_GET value which is quite annoying. Why can't we just encode only the & ? = / : charcaters??? see also: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2607946/js-encodeuricomponent-result-different-from-the-one-created-by-form It shows that encodeURIComponent does not even encode properly because a simple browser FORM GET encodes charactrs like '€', in different way. So I still wonder what does this encodeURIComponent is for?

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  • ContentControl + RenderTargetBitmap + empty image

    - by Kellls
    Im trying to create some chart images without ever displaying those charts on the screen. I'v been at this for quite a while and tried a lot of different things but nothing seems to work. The code works perfectly if I display the chart in a window first, but if I don't display it in a window, the bitmap is just white with a black border (no idea why). I have tried adding the chart to a border before rendering and giving the border a green borderBrush. In the bitmap, I see the green borderBrush then the black border and white background but no chart. I don't know where the black border is coming from as the chart is not contained in a black border. I have tried adding the chart to a window without calling window.Show() and again just the black boarder and white background. However if I call window.Show() the bitmap contains the chart. I have tried using a drawingVisual as explained here, same result. Here is the code (not including adding the element to a border or window): private static BitmapSource CreateElementScreenshot(FrameworkElement element, int dpi) { if (!element.IsMeasureValid) { Size size = new Size(element.Width, element.Height); element.Measure(size); element.Arrange(new Rect(size)); } element.UpdateLayout(); var scale = dpi/96.0; var renderTargetBitmap = new RenderTargetBitmap ( (int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Width),(int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Height),dpi,dpi,PixelFormats.Default ); // this is waiting for dispatcher to perform measure, arrange and render passes element.Dispatcher.Invoke(((Action)(() => renderTargetBitmap.Render(element))), DispatcherPriority.Render); return renderTargetBitmap; } Note: The chart is a ContentControl. Is there anyway I can get the chart to render without displaying it in a window first?

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  • Dll Import : Unable to find Entry Point "fnMultiply" in DLL "ImportDLL"

    - by user662285
    I am trying to use DLLImport for using Win32 dll method in C#. Win32 dll C++ // .h file #ifdef IMPORTDLL_EXPORTS #define IMPORTDLL_API __declspec(dllexport) #else #define IMPORTDLL_API __declspec(dllimport) #endif // This class is exported from the ImportDLL.dll class IMPORTDLL_API CImportDLL { public: CImportDLL(void); // TODO: add your methods here. int Add(int a , int b); }; extern IMPORTDLL_API int nImportDLL; IMPORTDLL_API int fnImportDLL(void); IMPORTDLL_API int fnMultiply(int a,int b); // .cpp file // ImportDLL.cpp : Defines the exported functions for the DLL application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "ImportDLL.h" // This is an example of an exported variable IMPORTDLL_API int nImportDLL=0; // This is an example of an exported function. IMPORTDLL_API int fnImportDLL(void) { return 42; } IMPORTDLL_API int fnMultiply(int a , int b) { return (a*b); } Once i build this i get ImportDLL.dll Now i create Windows Application and add this dll in debug folder and try to use this method using DLLImport [DllImport("ImportDLL.dll")] public static extern int fnMultiply(int a, int b); And I try to call this in C# int a = fnMultiply(5, 6); // This line gives error Unable to find an entry point Can any body tell what i am missing? Thanks.

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  • Simplest way to handle and display errors in a Python Pylons controller without a helper class

    - by ensnare
    I have a class User() that throw exceptions when attributes are incorrectly set. I am currently passing the exceptions from the models through the controller to the templates by essentially catching exceptions two times for each variable. Is this a correct way of doing it? Is there a better (but still simple) way? I prefer not to use any third party error or form handlers due to the extensive database queries we already have in place in our classes. Furthermore, how can I "stop" the chain of processing in the class if one of the values is invalid? Is there like a "break" syntax or something? Thanks. >>> u = User() >>> u.name = 'Jason Mendez' >>> u.password = '1234' Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "topic/model/user.py", line 79, in password return self._password ValueError: Your password must be greater than 6 characters In my controller "register," I have: class RegisterController(BaseController): def index(self): if request.POST: c.errors = {} u = User() try: u.name = c.name = request.POST['name'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['name'] = error try: u.email = c.email = request.POST['email'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['email'] = error try: u.password = c.password = request.POST['password'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['password'] = error try: u.commit() except ValueError, error: pass return render('/register.mako')

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  • jquery filter .not()

    - by FFish
    I have a form with image thumbnails to select with checkboxes for downloading. I want an array with the images in jQuery for an Ajax call. 2 questions: - On the top of the table there is a checkbox to toggle all checkboxes that I want to exclude from the mapping. I had a look at jQuery's .not() but I can't implement it with the :checkbox selector - is the following example code correct? $(document).ready(function() { $('#myform').submit(function() { var images = $("input:checkbox", this).map(function() { return $(this).attr("name"); }).get().join(); alert(products); // outputs: ",check1,check2,check3" return false; // cancel submit action by returning false }); }); // end doc ready HTML: <form id="myform" action="" > <input type="checkbox" id="toggleCheck" onclick="toggleSelectAll()" checked="checked" ><br /> <input type="checkbox" name="001.jpg" checked="checked" /><br /> <input type="checkbox" name="002.jpg" checked="checked" /><br /> <input type="checkbox" name="003.jpg" checked="checked" /><br /> <br /> <input type="submit" value="download" > </form>

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  • Elegantly handling constraint violations in EJB/JPA environment?

    - by hallidave
    I'm working with EJB and JPA on a Glassfish v3 app server. I have an Entity class where I'm forcing one of the fields to be unique with a @Column annotation. @Entity public class MyEntity implements Serializable { private String uniqueName; public MyEntity() { } @Column(unique = true, nullable = false) public String getUniqueName() { return uniqueName; } public void setUniqueName(String uniqueName) { this.uniqueName = uniqueName; } } When I try to persist an object with this field set to a non-unique value I get an exception (as expected) when the transaction managed by the EJB container commits. I have two problems I'd like to solve: 1) The exception I get is the unhelpful "javax.ejb.EJBException: Transaction aborted". If I recursively call getCause() enough times, I eventually reach the more useful "java.sql.SQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException", but this exception is part of the EclipseLink implementation and I'm not really comfortable relying on it's existence. Is there a better way to get detailed error information with JPA? 2) The EJB container insists on logging this error even though I catch it and handle it. Is there a better way to handle this error which will stop Glassfish from cluttering up my logs with useless exception information? Thanks.

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  • jquery ready function: script not detecting a function

    - by deostroll
    There is a web page with place holder (a normal div). Via ajax calls I am loading a <form> and a <script> into the place holder. The script contains necessary javascript to initialize the form (i.e. for e.g. disable the controls so as to make form read-only, etc). Here is a piece of code I have; it works, but the commented part doesn't work. Because the script engine cannot find the object tristate_DisableControl which is a function in one of those scripts I call via ajax. $(document).ready(function() { // $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { // if (typeof (window.tristate_DisableControl) == 'undefined') { // if (typeof (window.console) != 'undefnied') // console.log((new Date()).toTimeString() + ' not logable'); // pausecomp(1000); // } // else // tristate_DisableControl(this); // }); //end $('#site_prefrences_content div').each() setTimeout(function() { $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { tristate_DisableControl(this); }) }, 1000); }); I thought by the time $(document).ready() executes the DOM will be properly loaded...

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  • Reformat SQLGeography polygons to JSON

    - by James
    I am building a web service that serves geographic boundary data in JSON format. The geographic data is stored in an SQL Server 2008 R2 database using the geography type in a table. I use [ColumnName].ToString() method to return the polygon data as text. Example output: POLYGON ((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666)) MULTIPOLYGON (((-6.1646509904325884 56.435153006374627 0 0, ... -6.1606079906751 56.4338050060666 0 0))) Geographic definitions can take the form of either an array of lat/long pairs defining a polygon or in the case of multiple definitions, an array or polygons (multipolygon). I have the following regex that converts the output to JSON objects contained in multi-dimensional arrays depending on the output. Regex latlngMatch = new Regex(@"(-?[0-9]{1}\.\d*)\s(\d{2}.\d*)(?:\s0\s0,?)?", RegexOptions.Compiled); private string ConvertPolysToJson(string polysIn) { return this.latlngMatch.Replace(polysIn.Remove(0, polysIn.IndexOf("(")) // remove POLYGON or MULTIPOLYGON .Replace("(", "[") // convert to JSON array syntax .Replace(")", "]"), // same as above "{lng:$1,lat:$2},"); // reformat lat/lng pairs to JSON objects } This is actually working pretty well and converts the DB output to JSON on the fly in response to an operation call. However I am no regex master and the calls to String.Replace() also seem inefficient to me. Does anyone have any suggestions/comments about performance of this?

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