Search Results

Search found 2396 results on 96 pages for 'inner'.

Page 76/96 | < Previous Page | 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83  | Next Page >

  • Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

    - by regex
    Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

    Read the article

  • Using FluentNHibernate with .Net4

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

    Read the article

  • PHP: How To Integrate HTML Purifier To Fileter User Submitted Data?

    - by TaG
    I have this script that collects data from users and I wanted to check their data for malicious code like XSS and SQL injections by using HTML Purifier http://htmlpurifier.org/ but how do I add it to my php form submission script? Here is my HTML purifier code require_once '../../htmlpurifier/library/HTMLPurifier.auto.php'; $config = HTMLPurifier_Config::createDefault(); $config->set('Core.Encoding', 'UTF-8'); // replace with your encoding $config->set('HTML.Doctype', 'XHTML 1.0 Strict'); // replace with your doctype $purifier = new HTMLPurifier($config); $clean_html = $purifier->purify($dirty_html); Here is my PHP form submission code. if (isset($_POST['submitted'])) { // Handle the form. $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT users.*, profile.* FROM users INNER JOIN contact_info ON contact_info.user_id = users.user_id WHERE users.user_id=3"); $about_me = mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $_POST['about_me']); $interests = mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $_POST['interests']); if (mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"INSERT INTO profile (user_id, about_me, interests) VALUES ('$user_id', '$about_me', '$interests')"); } if ($dbc == TRUE) { $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"UPDATE profile SET about_me = '$about_me', interests = '$interests' WHERE user_id = '$user_id'"); echo '<p class="changes-saved">Your changes have been saved!</p>'; } if (!$dbc) { // There was an error...do something about it here... print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } }

    Read the article

  • IIS 7.5 can't access file from managed code

    - by Bob
    I am working on a project that is click-once deployed from an IIS 7.5 web server. After installing the parent application (i.e. setting up the IIS site) I am able to hit the url for the click-once app's config file from a remote box. HOWEVER, when I attempt to do the same thing from my app (and the stub app below), I get a 401 Unauthorized. What is the difference between hitting the URL from IE, and from a .NET app? The file and directory itself have full control granted to everyone on the webserver at the moment, and I am an admin on the box. We are using Windows Authentication with NTLM only. Thanks, -Bob Here is the stub app that produces the 401 - Unauthorized when on the doc.Load() line. I can hit the same URL successfully from IE and open the file... static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Config Test"); string filename = "http://dev-rs/myClient/myClickOnce/myApp.config.xml"; Console.WriteLine(filename); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(filename); Console.WriteLine("Loaded"); Console.WriteLine("Inner Text : " + doc.InnerText); }

    Read the article

  • Strange constructor

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

    Read the article

  • GET variable after doing a Join Query

    - by John
    Hello, For the code below, on the second link (http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'), I would like to pass $row["submissionid"], on as a GET variable. I tried this and it caused all of the code below to produce a blank result. Is there a way that I can do I want? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid ,s.title ,s.url ,s.displayurl ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM submission s INNER JOIN login l ON s.loginid = l.loginid LEFT OUTER JOIN comment c ON s.submissionid = c.submissionid GROUP BY s.submissionid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

    Read the article

  • Where is the error in this code.

    - by basit74
    Hello, Here is my code snippt. But the code is breaking after inner for loop. But getting no error message. Any idea? Thanks. var lastnames = document.getElementsByClassName('box_nachname'); var firstnames = document.getElementsByClassName('box_vorname'); var teilnehmer = document.getElementsByClassName('select'); observers = []; // iterate over nachname array. for (var i = 0; i < lastnames.length; i++) { // Create an observer instance. observers[i] = new Observer(); // Subscribe oberser object. for(idx in teilnehmer) { if(teilnehmer[idx].id.split("_")[0].toLowerCase() !== "zl") { var anynum = function(element) { observers[i].subscribe(element, updateTeilnehmerSelectbox); }(teilnehmer[idx]); } } //on blur the Observer fire the updated info to all the subscribers. var anynumNachname = function(j, element, value, observer) { cic.addEvent(lastnames[j], 'blur', observer.fire(element, value)); } (i, lastnames[i], lastnames[i].value, observers[i]); cic.addEvent(firstnames[i], 'blur', function(element, value, observer) {observer.fire(element, value)}(lastnames[i], lastnames[i].value, observers[i])); }

    Read the article

  • Problems when handling orientation changes

    - by nixau
    Hi all, I need to handle orientation changes in my Android application. For this purpose I decided to use OrientationEventListener convenience class. But his callback method is given somewhat strange behavior. My application starts in the portrait mode and then eventually switches to the lanscape one. I have some custom code executing in the callback onOrientationChanged method that provides some additional UI handling logic - it has a few calls to findViewById. What is strange is that when switching back from landscape to portrait mode onOrientationChanged callback is called twice, and what's even worse - the second call is dealing with bad Context - findViewById method starts returning null. These calls are made right from the MainThread @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); listener = new OrientationListener(); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); // enabling listening listener.enable(); } @Override protected void onPause() { super.onPause(); // disabling listening listener.disable(); } I've replicated the same behavior with a dummy Activity without any logic except for one that deals with orientation hadling. I initiate orientation switch from the Android 2.2 emulator by pressing Ctrl+F11 What could be wrong? Upd: Inner class that implements OrientationEventListener private class OrientationListener extends OrientationEventListener { public OrientationL() { super(getBaseContext()); } @Override public void onOrientationChanged(int orientation) { toString(); } } }

    Read the article

  • Exclude rows with Doctrine ORM DQL (NOT IN)

    - by Sheriffen
    I'm building a chat application with codeigniter and doctrine. Tables: - User - User_roles - User_available Relations: ONE user have MANY roles. ONE user_available have ONE user. Users available for chatting will be in the user_available table. Problem: I need to get all users in in user_available that hasn't got role_id 7. So I need to express in DQL something like (this is not even SQL, just in words): SELECT * from user_available WHERE NOT user_available.User.Role.role_id = 7 Really stuck on this one EDIT: Guess I was unclear. The tables are already mapped and Doctrine does the INNER JOIN job for me. I'm using this code to get the admin that waited the longest but now I need the user: $admin = Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('c.id') ->from('Chat_available c') ->where('c.User.Roles.role_id = ?', 7) ->groupBy('c.id') ->orderBy('c.created_at ASC') ->fetchOne(); Now I need to get the user that waited the longest but this does NOT work $admin = Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('c.id') ->from('Chat_available c') ->where('c.User.Roles.role_id != ?', 7) ->groupBy('c.id') ->orderBy('c.created_at ASC') ->fetchOne();

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Oracle stored procedure problem

    - by Mr. Flint
    ------Using VS2008, ASP.Net with C#, Oracle, NHibernate---- I have tested my stored procedure. It's working but not with NHibernate. Here are the codes: Procedure : create or replace procedure ThanaDelete (id number) as begin delete from thana_tbl where thana_code = id; end Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="DataTransfer" namespace="DataTransfer"> <class name="DataTransfer.Models.Thana, DataTransfer" table="THANA_TBL"> <id name="THANA_CODE" column="THANA_CODE" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"> <param name="sequence"> SEQ_TEST </param> </generator> </id> <property name="THANA_NAME" column="THANA_NAME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="DISTRICT_CODE" column="DISTRICT_CODE" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="USER_ID" column="USER_ID" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_DATE" column="TRANSACTION_DATE" type="Date" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_TIME" column="TRANSACTION_TIME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <sql-delete>exec THANADELETE ? </sql-delete> </class> </hibernate-mapping> error: Message: could not delete: [DataTransfer.Models.Thana#10][SQL: exec THANADELETE ?] Source: NHibernate Inner Exception System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException Message: ORA-00900: invalid SQL statement

    Read the article

  • AJAX.NET __doPostBack changes other content

    - by Raul
    Hi. I have an application where a javascript reads the GPS location of the device and sends it to serverside script like this: f() { var initialLocation= Someshit(); document.getElementById('<% = text.ClientID %>').value=initialLocation; var button = document.getElementById('<% = Button4.ClientID %>'); button.click(); } And i have some AJAX.NET code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Button ID="Button4" runat="server" Text="PlaceHolder" onclick="Button4_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="text" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> And a bit further down <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <div> <some divs and asp:gridviews and god knows what > </div> <ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> The problem is that the the last divs inner content changes when the event of UpdatePanel1 has finished. Why is that? I don't want the content outside of UpdatePanel1 to be changed whenever UpdatePanel1 is doing its thing. Please help.

    Read the article

  • How do I properly display all content in a JTabbedPane?

    - by maleki
    I am nesting a JPanel inside a JTabbedPane. I am having trouble displaying all the content inside of the JTabbedPane. The outside borders of the internal content get chopped off. I am currently not using a Layout Manager for my JTabbedPane or dummy Panel because it stretches my content automatically. How do I add a JPanel inside the JTabbedPane so that I can have an even border around all the content.My attempts to create a dummy panel and setting a border for the inner panel using BorderFactory haven't worked. Is there a convention that I need to know to do this correctly? JTabbedPane tabPane = new JTabbedPane(); GridPane tab1 = new GridPane(); GridPane tab2 = new GridPane(); tabPane.add("My Pieces",tab1); tabPane.add("Opponent Pieces",tab2); public class GridPane extends JPanel { public GridPane() { this.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(400,160)); this.setLayout(new GridLayout(4,10)); this.setComponentOrientation(ComponentOrientation.LEFT_TO_RIGHT); for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < 10; j++) { boardSquares[i][j] = new JPanel(); boardSquaresArr.add(boardSquares[i][j]); this.add(boardSquares[i][j]); } } } }

    Read the article

  • how can I speed up insertion of many rows to a table via ADO.NET?

    - by jcollum
    I have a table that has 5 columns: AcctId (int), Address1 (varchar), Address2 (varchar), Person1 (varchar), Person2 (varchar) . I'm generating random data to insert into this table via a C# console application. I've tried doing this random data insert via SQL-Server and decided it was not a good solution -- SQL is not good at random on an each-row basis. Generating the random data -- 975k rows of it -- takes a minimal amount of time. It's in a List of custom objects. I need to take this random data and update many rows in the database with the new random data. I tried updating the rows one at a time, very slow because of the repeated searching of the List object in code. So I think the best approach is to put all the randomized data into a table in the database, then update all the other tables that use this data. I.e. UPDATE t SET t.Address1=d.Address1 FROM Table1 t INNER JOIN RandomizedData d ON d.AcctId = t.Acct_ID. The database is very un-normalized so this Acct data is sprinkled all over the place. I've got no control of the normalization. So, having decided to insert all of the randomized data into a single table, I set out to create insert scripts: USE TheDatabase Insert tmp_RandomizedData SELECT 1,'4392 EIGHTH AVE','','JENNIFER CARTER','BARBARA CARTER' UNION ALL SELECT 2,'2168 MAIN ST','HNGR F','DANIEL HERNANDEZ','SUSAN MARTIN' // etc another 98 times... // FYI, this is not real data! I'm building this INSERT script in batches of 100. It's taking on average 175 ms to run each insert. Does this seem like a long time? It's going to take about 35 mins to run the whole insert. The table doesn't have a primary key or any indexes. I was planning on adding those after all the data in inserted (thinking that that would be faster). Is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • jQuery UI slider coming out looking wierd

    - by jondavidjohn
    http://cl.ly/2W1V3s0G2G3y3D133I3U <--screenshot of rendered slider It acts normally by clicking the inner whitespace of the slider and dragging, values act accordingly, but the handles do not move and fill the area, and the line at the top grows/shrinks with the difference of the two values. Here is the code I am using to initiate the slider. $('.sliderific').each(function(){ alert($(this).attr('id')); $(this).slider({ range: true, min: 0, max: 500, values: [ 75, 300 ], slide: function( event, ui ) { $(this).nextAll('.left:first').text(ui.values[ 0 ]); $(this).nextAll('.right:first').text(ui.values[ 1 ]); } }); }); and here is the DOM it's being applied to... <div class="white notwide"> <div id="price-slider" class="sliderific"></div> <span class="em small gray left center">Min Price</span> <span class="em small gray right center">Max Price </span> </div> EDIT : Also, I have verified I am including the proper css and the jquery theme images are connecting and being loaded.

    Read the article

  • how to join tables sql server

    - by Rick
    Im having some trouble with joining two tables. This is what my two tables look like: Table 1 Customer_ID CustomerName Add. 1000 John Smith 1001 Mike Coles 1002 Sam Carter Table 2 Sensor_ID Location Temp CustIDFK 1000 NY 70 1002 NY 70 1000 ... ... 1001 1001 1002 Desired: Sensor_ID Location Temp CustIDFK 1000 NY 70 John Smith 1002 NY 70 Sam Carter 1000 ... ... John Smith 1001 Mike Coles 1001 1002 I have made Customer_ID from table 1 my primary key, created custIDFK in table 2 and set that as my foreign key. I am really new to sql server so I am still having trouble with the whole relationship piece of it. My goal is to match one customer_ID with one Sensor_ID. The problem is that the table 2 does not have "unique IDs" since they repeat so I cant set that to my foreign key. I know I will have to do either an inner join or outer join, I just dont know how to link the sensor id with customer one. I was thinking of giving my sensor_ID a unique ID but the data that is being inserted into table 2 is coming from another program. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Missing Intellisense While Describing Custom Control Properties Declaratively

    - by Albert Bori
    So, I've been working on this project for a few days now, and have been unable to resolve the issue of getting intellisense support for my custom-defined inner properties for a user control (ascx, mind you). I have seen the solution to this (using server controls, .cs mind you) many times. Spelled out in this article very well. Everything works for me while using ascx controls except intellisense. Here's the outline of my code: [PersistChildren(true)] [ParseChildren(typeof(BreadCrumbItem))] [ControlBuilder(typeof(BreadCrumbItem))] public partial class styledcontrols_buttons_BreadCrumb : System.Web.UI.UserControl { ... [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty)] public List<BreadCrumbItem> BreadCrumbItems { get { return _breadCrumbItems; } set { _breadCrumbItems = value; } } ... protected override void AddParsedSubObject(object obj) { base.AddParsedSubObject(obj); if (obj is BreadCrumbItem) BreadCrumbItems.Add(obj as BreadCrumbItem); } ... public class BreadCrumbItem : ControlBuilder { public string Text { get; set; } public string NavigateURL { get; set; } public override Type GetChildControlType(string tagName, System.Collections.IDictionary attribs) { if (String.Compare(tagName, "BreadCrumbItem", true) == 0) { return typeof(BreadCrumbItem); } return null; } } } Here's my mark up (which works fine, just no intellisense on the child object declarations): <%@ Register src="../styledcontrols/buttons/BreadCrumb.ascx" tagname="BreadCrumb" tagprefix="uc1" %> ... <uc1:BreadCrumb ID="BreadCrumb1" runat="server" BreadCrumbTitleText="Current Page"> <BreadCrumbItem Text="Home Page" NavigateURL="~/test/breadcrumbtest.aspx?iwentsomewhere=1" /> <BreadCrumbItem Text="Secondary Page" NavigateURL="~/test/breadcrumbtest.aspx?iwentsomewhere=1" /> </uc1:BreadCrumb> I think the issue lies with how the intellisense engine traverses supporting classes. All the working examples I see of this are not ascx, but Web Server Controls (cs, in a compiled assembly). If anyone could shed some light on how to accomplish this with ascx controls, I'd appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Enter ID instead of name on submit (form)

    - by Derek
    In my activities table, I have a user ID and a project ID. When a user (of admin level) creates an activity they select from a drop down menu a project. Here is the select query to draw up appropriate values: $sql = "SELECT usersprojects_tb.projectid, projects.projectname FROM projects INNER JOIN usersprojects on projects.projectid = usersprojects.projectid WHERE usersprojects.userid = '".$_SESSION['SESS_USERID']."'"; And for the tag with the dropdown menu, I have this: <?php echo $row['projectname']?> I have tried submitting the form with 'projectid' here instead and the project ID is stored successfully in my activies table. However, the user needs to see the project names (IDs arent exactly user-friendly!) And with 'projectname' as displayed, they can select the names of the available projects (to associate an activity with) but the project ID is not stored, how I link this up, so that when the project name is sent, the ID for this project is stored properly in my activities table. I'm also having the exact same problem with the users drop down. As the admin user selects a user from the drop down to assign the task to. I exactly what I want, but I think I may be using the wrong syntax! Any help is much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Problems with "global" exception handlers for unhandled exceptions in multithreaded WPF

    - by JustABill
    I have a program that, among other things, needs to be able to refresh the contents of a directory when the user tells it to. The actual task doesn't really matter, but this is the simplest way of causing this problem to occur that I know of. If I tell it to open a directory that doesn't exist, I get the "unhandled exception" dialog in VS with a stack trace of, from outer to inner: [External code] Textbox PreviewKeyUp event [External code] ClassA's path property being set ClassA's internal path update function being called A call to the INotifyPropertyChanged event [External code] A call to the getter for ClassB's list of children A call to ClassB's internal directory list function And then it fails inside this internal function. I have the following in my App.xaml.cs: private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); Application.Current.Dispatcher.UnhandledException += new System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherUnhandledExceptionEventHandler(Dispatcher_UnhandledException); } But neither of their exception handlers are being called. If I run this program from outside VS, I don't get notified of an exception at all, it just breaks because of the invalid input. And yes, the Application_Startup event is being called. How can I properly "trap" this exception so I can provide a friendly error message and kill the program?

    Read the article

  • Improving field get and set performance with ASM or Javassist

    - by ng
    I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM and Javasist examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Can you overlay transparent images in Blackberry Apps?

    - by Greg
    I have a very simple application that has one screen and one button. The main screen has a verticalFieldManager with a BitmapField inside it, and one button beneath the bitmap. I want to be able to overlay another image on top of this when the user clicks a button. The overlay image is a PNG with transparent background, and this is important for design, so I can't use popupscreen or a new screen because the backgrounds are always white by default, and I've heard alpha doesn't really do the trick. I guess what I'm asking is if anyone knows a simple way to... A) take a standard verticalFieldManager and overlay a PNG on top of the inner contents B) overlay a PNG over the screen, no matter the contents The basic functionality of this app was intended to be - show an image. on click, show another overlaid on top. on click again, remove the popup image. I haven't found anything that addresses something like this online, but I have read of people doing similar things that utilize popupscreen and new screens in a way I don't need to do. Hopefully this makes sense. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Serialize Object

    - by Mark Pearl
    Hi.. I am new to serialization and I cannot for the life of me figure out how to fix this exception I am getting... I have an object that has the following structure [XmlRoot("MaxCut2")] public class MaxCut2File : IFile { public MaxCut2File() { MyJob = new Job(); Job.Reference = "MyRef"; } [XmlElement("JobDetails", typeof(Job))] public IJob MyJob { get; set; } } An inteferface... public interface IJob { string Reference { get; set; } } And an class [Serializable()] public class Job : IJob { [XmlElement("Reference")] public string Reference { get; set; } } When I try to serialize an instance of the MaxCut2File object I get an error {"Cannot serialize member 'MaxCut2File.MaxCut2File.MyJob' of type 'MaxCut2BL.Interfaces.IJob', see inner exception for more details."} "There was an error reflecting type 'MaxCut2File.MaxCut2File'." However if I change my property MyJob from the IJob type to the Job type it works fine... Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Cannot edit values of DataGridView bound to a BindingList

    - by m_oLogin
    Hello community, I have trouble editing a databound bindinglist. Let me illustrate it with the following: Say I have the Person class: public Class Person{ private string m_firstname; private string m_lastname; public string FirstName{get;set;} public string LastName{get;set;} public Person{ ... } } I then have a containing class called Population: public class Population{ private BindingList<Person> m_lstPerson = new BindingList<Person>(); private string m_countryName; public BindingList<Person> ListPerson{get; set;} public string CountryName { get; set; } } I then have on one form a first datagridview with DataSource = m_lstPopulation (BindingList). The binding works like a charm when working with the Population objects. When I double click, it opens up a dialog form showing the object details. One tab in the details holds a datagridview bound to that population's ListPerson. The second datagridview displays fine. However, I cannot edit or add cells in this datagridview. None of the columns is set to read-only. In fact, both datagridview have just about the same parameters. What am I missing? It seems that a lock has been placed on the Population object so that its inner fields cannot be edited... Please advise. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

    Read the article

  • What are some typing patterns using a standard QWERTY keyboard that work well for you as a programme

    - by OrbMan
    After hunting and pecking for about 35 years, I have decided to learn to type. I am learning QWERTY and have learned about 2/3 of the letters so far. While learning, I have noticed how asymmeterical the keyboard is, which really bothers me. (I will probably switch to a symmetrical keyboard eventually, but for now am trying to do everything as standard and "correct" as possible.) Although I am not there yet in my lessons, it seems that many of the keys I am going to use as a C# web developer are supposed to be typed by the pinky of my right hand. Are there any typing patterns you have developed that are more ergonomic (or faster) when typing large volumes of code rife with braces, colons, semi-colons and quotes? Or, should I just accept the fact that every other key is going to be hit with my right pinky? It is not that speed is such a huge concern, as much as that it seems so inefficient to rely on one finger so much... As an example, some of the conventions I use as a hunt and pecker, like typing open and close braces right away with my index and middle finger, and then hitting the left arrow key to fill in the inner content, don't seem to work as well with just a pinky. What are some typing patterns using a standard QWERTY keyboard that work really well for you as a programmer? Update: US layout and I use home row Update 2: Despite my best efforts to the contrary, people are interpreting this questionas "how do I learn to type" or "what keyboard should I use". Take it as a given, that I will learn to type, and that I will be doing so on a standard QWERTY layout keyboard, not DVORAK. I am interested in aquiring a skill that will be useful wherever I go.

    Read the article

  • How do I bind an iTunes style source list to an NSTableView using Core Data?

    - by Austin
    I have an iTunes style interface in my application: Source list (NSOutlineView) on the left that contains different libraries and playlists with an NSTableView on the right side of the interface displaying information for "Presentations". Similar to iTunes, I am showing the same type of information in the table view whether a library or playlist is selected (title, author, date created, etc). I currently have an NSArrayController connected to my NSTableView and was setting the fetch predicate based on what was selected in the source list. This works fine when selecting a library because I can just set the fetch predicate to filter by the "type" field in my Presentation Core Data entity. When I try to adjust the fetch predicate for the playlist however, it doesn't look like there is any way to set the fetch predicate because I've got a table in between Playlists and Presentations to keep up with the order within the Playlist. According to the Apple docs, these type of predicates are not doable with Core Data (it basically doesn't multiple inner joins). Below is the relevant portion of my Data Model. Is my data model setup incorrectly? Should I drop the NSArrayController and handle connecting the NSTableView up by hand? I'm trying to figure out if there is a simple fix, or really a design flaw.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83  | Next Page >