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  • Basic 301 Redirection Help

    - by Marc
    I am trying to learn redirection for a WordPress site of my own. I am testing the concept of redirecting a single WordPress post by using a dummy site. However, it doesn't seem to be working for me. I am trying to redirect www.perfectmatchmaker[dot]org/finding-the-right-matchmaker to www.perfectmatchmaker[dot]org/finding-the-perfect-matchmaker I read that using the following is how to do this: Redirect 301 /old.html http://www.you[dot]com/new.html So this is what my .htaccess file currently looks like: # Use PHP5 as default AddHandler application/x-httpd-php5 .php # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress Redirect 301 /finding-the-right-matchmaker.html http://www.perfectmatchmaker.org/finding-the-perfect-matchmaker.html I've also tried removing the ".html". The redirection of the URL is finally working, but the URL shows no posts available. If I try to redirect the other post on the site by adding the following on the next line of the .htaccess file, I get an error that there is a "redirect loop" occurring. redirect 301 /find-love-and-your-perfect-match-through-the-use-of-a-match-maker http://www.perfectmatchmaker.org/find-love-and-your-perfect-match Any help you can provide me would be much appreciated. Thanks! Marc

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  • QoS basics on a Cisco ASA

    - by qbn
    Could someone briefly explain how to use QoS on Cisco ASA 5505? I have the basics of policing down, but what about shaping and priorities? Basically what I'm trying to do is carve out some bandwidth for my VPN subnets (in an object-group called priority-traffic). I've seen this Cisco QoS document, however configuring shaping and priority-queue don't seem to have any effects in my test. A full download of the linux kernel from kernel.org will boost a ping to a server via VPN sky high. Policing has been successful in passing this test, although it doesn't seem as efficient (I cap non-vpn traffic at 3 of my 4.5 megabits of bandwidth). Am I misunderstanding the results of the test? I think there is some simple concept I'm not grasping here. EDIT: Here is my config thus far (I have 4.5 megabits of bandwidth): access-list priority-traffic extended permit ip object-group priority-traffic any access-list priority-traffic extended permit ip any object-group priority-traffic access-list priority-traffic extended permit icmp object-group priority-traffic any access-list priority-traffic extended permit icmp any object-group priority-traffic access-list non-priority-traffic extended deny ip object-group priority-traffic any access-list non-priority-traffic extended deny ip any object-group priority-traffic access-list non-priority-traffic extended permit ip any any priority-queue outside queue-limit 440 class-map non-priority-traffic match access-list non-priority-traffic class-map priority-traffic match access-list priority-traffic class-map inspection_default match default-inspection-traffic policy-map type inspect dns preset_dns_map parameters message-length maximum 512 policy-map global_policy class inspection_default inspect dns preset_dns_map inspect ftp inspect h323 h225 inspect h323 ras inspect rsh inspect rtsp inspect sqlnet inspect skinny inspect sunrpc inspect xdmcp inspect sip inspect netbios inspect tftp policy-map outbound-qos-policy class non-priority-traffic police input 2500000 police output 2500000 class priority-traffic priority service-policy global_policy global service-policy outbound-qos-policy interface outside

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  • Requiring SSH-key Login From Specific IP Ranges

    - by Sean M
    I need to be able to access my server (Ubuntu 8.04 LTS) from remote sites, but I'd like to worry a bit less about password complexity. Thus, I'd like to require that SSH keys be used for login instead of name/password. However, I still have a lot to learn about security, and having already badly broken a test box when I was trying to set this up, I'm acutely aware of the chance of screwing myself while trying to accomplish this. So I have a second goal: I'd like to require that certain IP ranges (e.g. 10.0.0.0/8) may log in with name/password, but everyone else must use an SSH key to log in. How can I satisfy both of these goals? There already exists a very similar question here, but I can't quite figure out how to get to what I want from that information. Current tactic: reading through the PAM documentation (pam_access looks promising) and looking at /etc/ssh/sshd_config. Edit: Alternatively, is there a way to specify that certain users must authenticate with SSH keys, and others may authenticate with name/password? Solution that's currently working: # Globally deny logon via password, only allow SSH-key login. PasswordAuthentication no # But allow connections from the LAN to use passwords. Match Address 192.168.*.* PasswordAuthentication yes The Match Address block can also usefully be a Match User block, answering my secondary question. For now I'm just chalking the failure to parse CIDR addresses up to a quirk of my install, and resolving to try again when I go to Ubuntu 10.04 not too long from now. PAM turns out not to be necessary.

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  • SharePoint Search: processing filenames containing underscores

    - by Todd Owen
    We use SharePoint Server 2007 to allow employees to search network file shares, but it seems that underscores in filenames are not treated as word separators when indexing the files. As a result, a search for chocolate will: match "chocolate milkshake.doc" but not match "chocolate_cake.doc" (Of course, this is a simplified example; in practice the content of the second file might include the word "chocolate" and match on that instead of the filename. But the problem itself is real enough, because a common scenario in a corporate environment is that a user knows the the partial name of the file they are looking for and expects to see matching filenames at the top of the search results. And using underscores in filenames is a widely used convention within our company). Underscores are not treated as word separators in the file content either, although this is less of a concern for us. The root cause of this problem is possibly related to the behaviour of the word breakers that SharePoint uses (i.e. the language-specific DLLs that implement the IWorkBreaker interface), although I haven't confirmed this yet. Does anyone know of a workaround for this issue? I have tested with Search Server 2008 Express too (which is based on the same technology), and it is also affected. I do not know whether the problem is fixed in SharePoint 2010 or not.

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  • Adventures in Drupal multisite config with mod_rewrite and clean urls

    - by moexu
    The university where I work is planning to offer Drupal hosting to staff/faculty who want a Drupal site. We've set up Drupal multisite with clean urls and it's mostly working except for some weird redirects. If you have two sites where one is a substring of the other then you'll randomly be redirected to the other site. I tracked the problem to how mod_rewrite does path matching, so with a config file like this: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/drupal RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /drupal/index.php?q=$1 [last,qsappend] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/drupaltest RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /drupaltest/index.php?q=$1 [last,qsappend] /drupaltest will match the /drupal line and all of the links on the /drupaltest page will be rewritten to point to /drupal. If you put the end of string character ($) at the end of each rewrite condition then it will always match on the correct site and the links will always be rewritten correctly. That breaks down as soon as a user logs in though because the query string is appended to the url so just the base url will no longer match. You can also fix the problem by ordering the sites in the config file so that the smallest substring will always be last. I suggested storing all of the sites in a table and then querying, sorting, and rewriting the config file every time a Drupal site is requested so that we could guarantee the order. The system administrator thought that was kludgy and didn't address the root problem. Disabling clean urls should also fix the problem but the users really want them so I'd prefer to keep them if possible. I think we could also fix it by using an .htaccess file in each site to handle the clean url rewriting but that also seems suboptimal since it will generate a higher load on the server and the server is intended to host the majority of the university's external facing web content. Is there some magic I can do with mod_rewrite to get it to work? Would another solution be better? Am I doing something the wrong way to begin with?

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  • iptables to block non-VPN-traffic if not through tun0

    - by dacrow
    I have a dedicated Webserver running Debian 6 and some Apache, Tomcat, Asterisk and Mail-stuff. Now we needed to add VPN support for a special program. We installed OpenVPN and registered with a VPN provider. The connection works well and we have a virtual tun0 interface for tunneling. To archive the goal for only tunneling a single program through VPN, we start the program with sudo -u username -g groupname command and added a iptables rule to mark all traffic coming from groupname iptables -t mangle -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -j MARK --set-mark 42 Afterwards we tell iptables to to some SNAT and tell ip route to use special routing table for marked traffic packets. Problem: if the VPN failes, there is a chance that the special to-be-tunneled program communicates over the normal eth0 interface. Desired solution: All marked traffic should not be allowed to go directly through eth0, it has to go through tun0 first. I tried the following commands which didn't work: iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname ! -o tun0 -j REJECT iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -o eth0 -j REJECT It might be the problem, that the above iptable-rules didn't work due to the fact, that the packets are first marked, then put into tun0 and then transmitted by eth0 while they are still marked.. I don't know how to de-mark them after in tun0 or to tell iptables, that all marked packet may pass eth0, if they where in tun0 before or if they going to the gateway of my VPN provider. Does someone has any idea to a solution? Some config infos: iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t mangle Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 11M packets, 9798M bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 591K 50M MARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 MARK set 0x2a 2 82812 6938K CONNMARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 CONNMARK save iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t nat Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT 393 packets, 23908 bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 15 1052 SNAT all -- * tun0 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 mark match 0x2a to:VPN_IP ip rule add from all fwmark 42 lookup 42 ip route show table 42 default via VPN_IP dev tun0

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  • Problems configuring logstash for email output

    - by user2099762
    I'm trying to configure logstash to send email alerts and log output in elasticsearch / kibana. I have the logs successfully syncing via rsyslog, but I get the following error when I run /opt/logstash-1.4.1/bin/logstash agent -f /opt/logstash-1.4.1/logstash.conf --configtest Error: Expected one of #, {, ,, ] at line 23, column 12 (byte 387) after filter { if [program] == "nginx-access" { grok { match = [ "message" , "%{IPORHOST:remote_addr} - %{USERNAME:remote_user} [%{HTTPDATE:time_local}] %{QS:request} %{INT:status} %{INT:body_bytes_sent} %{QS:http_referer} %{QS:http_user_agent}” ] } } } output { stdout { } elasticsearch { embedded = false host = " Here is my logstash config file input { syslog { type => syslog port => 5544 } } filter { if [program] == "nginx-access" { grok { match => [ "message" , "%{IPORHOST:remote_addr} - %{USERNAME:remote_user} \[% {HTTPDATE:time_local}\] %{QS:request} %{INT:status} %{INT:body_bytes_sent} %{QS:http_referer} %{QS:http_user_agent}” ] } } } output { stdout { } elasticsearch { embedded => false host => "localhost" cluster => "cluster01" } email { from => "[email protected]" match => [ "Error 504 Gateway Timeout", "status,504", "Error 404 Not Found", "status,404" ] subject => "%{matchName}" to => "[email protected]" via => "smtp" body => "Here is the event line that occured: %{@message}" htmlbody => "<h2>%{matchName}</h2><br/><br/><h3>Full Event</h3><br/><br/><div align='center'>%{@message}</div>" } } I've checked line 23 which is referenced in the error and it looks fine....I've tried taking out the filter, and everything works...without changing that line. Please help

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  • iptables to block VPN-traffic if not through tun0

    - by dacrow
    I have a dedicated Webserver running Debian 6 and some Apache, Tomcat, Asterisk and Mail-stuff. Now we needed to add VPN support for a special program. We installed OpenVPN and registered with a VPN provider. The connection works well and we have a virtual tun0 interface for tunneling. To archive the goal for only tunneling a single program through VPN, we start the program with sudo -u username -g groupname command and added a iptables rule to mark all traffic coming from groupname iptables -t mangle -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -j MARK --set-mark 42 Afterwards we tell iptables to to some SNAT and tell ip route to use special routing table for marked traffic packets. Problem: if the VPN failes, there is a chance that the special to-be-tunneled program communicates over the normal eth0 interface. Desired solution: All marked traffic should not be allowed to go directly through eth0, it has to go through tun0 first. I tried the following commands which didn't work: iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname ! -o tun0 -j REJECT iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -o eth0 -j REJECT It might be the problem, that the above iptable-rules didn't work due to the fact, that the packets are first marked, then put into tun0 and then transmitted by eth0 while they are still marked.. I don't know how to de-mark them after in tun0 or to tell iptables, that all marked packet may pass eth0, if they where in tun0 before or if they going to the gateway of my VPN provider. Does someone has any idea to a solution? Some config infos: iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t mangle Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 11M packets, 9798M bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 591K 50M MARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 MARK set 0x2a 2 82812 6938K CONNMARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 CONNMARK save iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t nat Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT 393 packets, 23908 bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 15 1052 SNAT all -- * tun0 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 mark match 0x2a to:VPN_IP ip rule add from all fwmark 42 lookup 42 ip route show table 42 default via VPN_IP dev tun0

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  • How can I use wildcards in an Nginx map directive?

    - by Ian Clelland
    I am trying to use Nginx to served cached files produced by a web application, and have spotted a potential problem; that the url-space is wide, and will exceed the Ext3 limit of 32000 subdirectories. I would like to break up the subdirectories, making, say, a two-level filesystem cache. So, where I am currently caching a file at /var/cache/www/arbitrary_directory_name/index.html I would store that instead at something like /var/cache/www/a/r/arbitrary_directory_name/index.html My trouble is that I can't get try_files, or even rewrite to make that mapping. My searching on the subject leads me to believe that I need to do something like this (heavily abbreviated): http { map $request_uri $prefix { /aa* a/a; /ab* a/b; /ac* a/c; ... /zz* z/z; } location / { try_files /var/cache/www/$prefix/$request_uri/index.html @fallback; # or # if (-f /var/cache/www/$prefix/$request_uri/index.html) { # rewrite ^(.*)$ /var/cache/www/$prefix/$1/index.html; # } } } But I can't get the /aa* pattern to match the incoming uri. Without the *, it will match an exact uri, but I can't get it to match just the first two characters. The Nginx documentation suggests that wildcards should be allowed, but I can't see a way to get them to work. Is there a way to do this? Am I missing something simple? Or am I going about this the wrong way?

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  • Removing trailing slashes in WordPress blog hosted on IIS

    - by Zishan
    I have a WordPress blog hosted in my IIS virtual directory that has all URLs ending with a forward slash. For example: http://www.example.com/blog/ I have the following rules defined in my web.config: <rule name="wordpress" patternSyntax="Wildcard"> <match url="*" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="index.php" /> </rule> <rule name="Redirect-domain-to-www" patternSyntax="Wildcard" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="*" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="example.com" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.example.com/blog/{R:0}" /> </rule> In addition, I tried adding the following rule for removing trailing slashes: <rule name="Remove trailing slash" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)/$" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="Permanent" url="{R:1}" /> </rule> It seems that the last rule doesn't work at all. Anyone around here who has attempted to remove trailing slashes from WordPress blogs hosted on IIS?

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  • nginx: Rewrite PHP does not work

    - by Ton Hoekstra
    I've a Suffix Proxy installed and I'm using the following rewrite with wildcard subdomain DNS on: location / { if (!-e $request_filename) { rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php last; break; } } My suffix proxy has the following URL format: (subdomain and/or domain + domain extension to proxy).proxy.org/(request-uri to proxy) I've this php code in my index.php: if(preg_match('#([\w\.-]+)\.example\.com(.+)#', $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'].$_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], $match)) { header('Location: http://example.com/browse.php?u=http://'.$match[1].$match[2]); die; } But when requested a page with a .php extension I'll get a 404 not found error: http://www.php.net.proxy.org/docs.php - HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found http://www.utexas.edu.proxy.org/learn/php/ex3.php - HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found But everything else is working (also index.php is working): http://php.net.proxy.org/index.php - HTTP/1.1 200 OK http://www.php-scripts.com.proxy.org/php_diary/example2.php3 - HTTP/1.1 200 OK http://www.utexas.edu.proxy.org/learn/php/ex3.phps - HTTP/1.1 200 OK http://www.w3schools.com.proxy.org/html/default.asp - HTTP/1.1 200 OK Somebody has an answer? I don't know why it's not working, on apache it's working fine. Thanks in advance. I've removed the location and now it's working perfectly: if (!-e $request_filename) { rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php last; break; }

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  • Google analytics ignoring "required step" in goals

    - by Matt Huggins
    I am A/B testing a landing page to see which converts better. The funnels are set up exactly the same in terms of the goal completion URL and funnel steps, with one exception: the first step (which is a required step) has a different URL to represent each of the two landing pages. Unfortunately, Google is tracking a conversion for both of these goals regardless of which landing page a user is reaching! It looks like the "required step" is broken...perhaps it is a deeper issue if others haven't noticed it, such as it only not working when the goal URL is the same between multiple goals. Here is an example of what I mean. Goal 1: Goal URL: /users/dashboard (head match) Funnel: 1. /homepages/index1 (required step) 2. /users/register 3. /users/edit Goal 2: Goal URL: /users/dashboard (head match) Funnel: 1. /homepages/index2 (required step) 2. /users/register 3. /users/edit As you can see, the only difference is step #1 of the funnel. Since I am A/B testing the landing page of the site, this should be the only difference. However, when I look at the goal page of Google Analytics, I see that the goal is being recorded for both of these regardless of the landing page being reached. The only tinkering I've done is attempting to wrap each funnel step's goal in ^ and $ characters for an exact regular expression match, but this didn't make a difference. Thoughts?

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  • Using sed to Download ComboFix automatically

    - by user901398
    I'm trying to write a shell script to grab the dynamic URL which ComboFix is located at at BleepingComputer.com/download/combofix However, for some reason I can't seem to get my regex to match the download link of the "click here" if the download doesn't work. I used a regex tester and it said I matched the link, but I can't seem to get it to work when I execute it, it turns up an empty result. Here's my entire script: #!/bin/bash # Download latest ComboFix from BleepingComputer wget -O Listing.html "http://www.bleepingcomputer.com/download/combofix/" -nv downloadpage=$(sed -ne 's@^.*<a href="\(http://www[.]bleepingcomputer[.]com/download/combofix/dl/[0-9]\+/\)" class="goodurl">.*$@\1@p' Listing.html) echo "DL Page: $downloadpage" secondpage="$downloadpage" wget -O Download.html $secondpage -nv file=$(sed -ne 's@^.*<a href="\(http://download[.]bleepingcomputer[.]com/dl/[0-9A-Fa-f]\+/[0-9A-Fa-f]\+/windows/security/anti[-]virus/c/combofix/ComboFix[.]exe\)">.*$@\1@p' Download.html) echo "File: $file" wget -O "ComboFix.exe" "$file" -nv rm Listing.html rm Download.html mkdir Tools mv "ComboFix.exe" "Tools/ComboFix.exe" -f The first two downloads work successfully, and I end up with: http://www.bleepingcomputer.com/download/combofix/dl/12/ But it fails to match the final sed that will give me the download link. The code it's supposed to match is: <a href="http://download.bleepingcomputer.com/dl/6c497ccbaff8226ec84c97dcdfc3ce9a/5058d931/windows/security/anti-virus/c/combofix/ComboFix.exe">click here</a>

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  • Adventures in Drupal multisite config with mod_rewrite and clean urls

    - by moexu
    The university where I work is planning to offer Drupal hosting to staff/faculty who want a Drupal site. We've set up Drupal multisite with clean urls and it's mostly working except for some weird redirects. If you have two sites where one is a substring of the other then you'll randomly be redirected to the other site. I tracked the problem to how mod_rewrite does path matching, so with a config file like this: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/drupal RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /drupal/index.php?q=$1 [last,qsappend] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/drupaltest RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /drupaltest/index.php?q=$1 [last,qsappend] /drupaltest will match the /drupal line and all of the links on the /drupaltest page will be rewritten to point to /drupal. If you put the end of string character ($) at the end of each rewrite condition then it will always match on the correct site and the links will always be rewritten correctly. That breaks down as soon as a user logs in though because the query string is appended to the url so just the base url will no longer match. You can also fix the problem by ordering the sites in the config file so that the smallest substring will always be last. I suggested storing all of the sites in a table and then querying, sorting, and rewriting the config file every time a Drupal site is requested so that we could guarantee the order. The system administrator thought that was kludgy and didn't address the root problem. Disabling clean urls should also fix the problem but the users really want them so I'd prefer to keep them if possible. I think we could also fix it by using an .htaccess file in each site to handle the clean url rewriting but that also seems suboptimal since it will generate a higher load on the server and the server is intended to host the majority of the university's external facing web content. Is there some magic I can do with mod_rewrite to get it to work? Would another solution be better? Am I doing something the wrong way to begin with?

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  • File corruption (bad checksums) in large files copied to VMware guest

    - by AllanA
    In setting up a development lab, I've got a desktop system running ESXi 4.1.0 (free license) on SATA RAID 0 (already purchased and configured when I started this job; I'm open to hardware input as it pertains to my problem.) Its guests so far include two Win2008 Server R2 64-bit VMs and on Ubuntu 10.04 64-bit VM. I'm installing onto the Windows servers. We've been copying off some fairly large files (over a gigabyte) for an installation, hoping to install more quickly from a (virtual) hard drive than from the network for from BD-ROM. The problem is that they keep coming up with different checksums from the originals. The file sizes are the same, but md5sum reports different numbers (and so does the installer, as it refuses to continue when the checksums don't match.) I've tried copying directly from the BD-ROM (attaching the OS drive to the host system's physical drive). I've tried copying the large files onto a co-worker's Windows machine from his Blu-Ray drive; when I do that, the checksums match. But when I copy from his machine to the VM guest over a network share, the checksums no longer match. Thinking this meant a corrupt destination drive, I deleted it in vSphere and added another freshly created drive. The problem persists. I'm not sure what to try next.

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  • How to handle payment types with varying properties in the most elegant way.

    - by Byron Sommardahl
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2. Keeping it simple, I have three payment types: credit card, e-check, or "bill me later". I want to: choose one payment type display some fields for one payment type in my view run some logic using those fields (specific to the type) display a confirmation view run some more logic using those fields (specific to the type) display a receipt view Each payment type has fields specific to the type... maybe 2 fields, maybe more. For now, I know how many and what fields, but more could be added. I believe the best thing for my views is to have a partial view per payment type to handle the different fields and let the controller decide which partial to render (if you have a better option, I'm open). My real problem comes from the logic that happens in the controller between views. Each payment type has a variable number of fields. I'd like to keep everything strongly typed, but it feels like some sort of dictionary is the only option. Add to that specific logic that runs depending on the payment type. In an effort to keep things strongly typed, I've created a class for each payment type. No interface or inherited type since the fields are different per payment type. Then, I've got a Submit() method for each payment type. Then, while the controller is deciding which partial view to display, it also assigns the target of the submit action. This is not elegant solution and feels very wrong. I'm reaching out for a hand. How would you do this?

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  • RJS error: TypeError: element is null

    - by salilgaikwad
    Hi All, I got RJS error: TypeError: element is null while using ajax. I used in view <%= periodically_call_remote(:url={:action='get_user_list', :id='1'}, :frequency = '5') % in controller render :update do |page| page.replace_html 'chat_area', :partial => 'chat_area', :object = [@chats, @user] if @js_update end in partial chat_area <% if [email protected]? && !show_div(@chats).blank?% <% show_div_id=show_div(@chats) % <% for chat in @chats % " style="display:<%= (chat.id == show_div_id)? 'block' : 'none' %;" <% form_remote_for(:chat, :url => {:controller=>'chats', :action='create', :id=1}, :html={:name = "form_#{chat.id}"}, :complete="resetContent('#{chat.id}');") do |f| % <%= f.hidden_field :sessionNo, :value=chat.sessionNo % <%= f.text_area :chatContent, :id= "chatContent_field_#{chat.id}", :cols="100", :rows="6", :onKeyPress="return submitenter(this,event);" % ')"/ <% end % </div> <% end % <% else % <% end % My div present in index.html.erb <table border="0" width="100%" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tbody><tr> <td align="left" width="80%" valign="top" style=""> <%= text_area :chat, :chatContent, :id=> "chatContent_field", :cols=>"100", :rows=>"6" %> </td> <td align="left" width="20%" valign="bottom" style="padding-left:10px;padding-left:10px;x" > <div id="chat_area"> <%= render :partial => 'chat_area' %> </div> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> Any help is appreciated. Regards, Salil Gaikwad

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  • ASP.NET/C# - Deserialize XML, XSD.exe created multiple classes

    - by Barryman9000
    I'm trying to deserialize some XML (returned from a web service) into an object that I created using XSD.exe. The XSD executable created a .CS file with a different partial class for each parent node in the XML. For Example, the beginning of the XML looks like this (why can't I post xml here? sorry, this is ugly): <disclaimer><notificationDescription>Additional charges will apply.</notificationDescription></disclaimer><quote><masterQuote></masterQuote></quote> And the Class generated by the XSD.exe has a partial class named disclaimer with a get; set; string for notificationDescription. And another partial class for quoteMasterQuote with the corresponding child nodes as public strings. How can I deserialize this XML file into multiple classes? I found this code, but it seems like it'll only work for one object. public static PricingResponse2 DeSerialize(string _xml) { PricingResponse2 _resp = new PricingResponse2(); StringReader _strReader = new StringReader(_xml); XmlSerializer _serializer = new XmlSerializer(_resp.GetType()); XmlReader _xmlReader = new XmlTextReader(_strReader); try { _resp = (PricingResponse2)_serializer.Deserialize(_xmlReader); return _resp; } catch (Exception ex) { string _error = ex.Message; throw; } finally { _xmlReader.Close(); _strReader.Close(); _strReader.Dispose(); } } This is the first time I've tried this, so I'm a little lost.

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  • When using Data Annotations with MVC, Pro and Cons of using an interface vs. a MetadataType

    - by SkippyFire
    If you read this article on Validation with the Data Annotation Validators, it shows that you can use the MetadataType attribute to add validation attributes to properties on partial classes. You use this when working with ORMs like LINQ to SQL, Entity Framework, or Subsonic. Then you can use the "automagic" client and server side validation. It plays very nicely with MVC. However, a colleague of mine used an interface to accomplish exactly the same result. it looks almost exactly the same, and functionally accomplishes the same thing. So instead of doing this: [MetadataType(typeof(MovieMetaData))] public partial class Movie { } public class MovieMetaData { [Required] public object Title { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(5)] public object Director { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Released")] [Required] public object DateReleased { get; set; } } He did this: public partial class Movie :IMovie { } public interface IMovie { [Required] object Title { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(5)] object Director { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Released")] [Required] object DateReleased { get; set; } } So my question is, when does this difference actually matter? My thoughts are that interfaces tend to be more "reusable", and that making one for just a single class doesn't make that much sense. You could also argue that you could design your classes and interfaces in a way that allows you to use interfaces on multiple objects, but I feel like that is trying to fit your models into something else, when they should really stand on their own. What do you think?

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  • refactor LINQ TO SQL custom properties that instantiate datacontext

    - by Thiago Silva
    I am working on an existing ASP.NET MVC app that started small and has grown with time to require a good re-architecture and refactoring. One thing that I am struggling with is that we've got partial classes of the L2S entities so we could add some extra properties, but these props create a new data context and query the DB for a subset of data. This would be the equivalent to doing the following in SQL, which is not a very good way to write this query as oppsed to joins: SELECT tbl1.stuff, (SELECT nestedValue FROM tbl2 WHERE tbl2.Foo = tbl1.Bar), tbl1.moreStuff FROM tbl1 so in short here's what we've got in some of our partial entity classes: public partial class Ticket { public StatusUpdate LastStatusUpdate { get { //this static method call returns a new DataContext but needs to be refactored var ctx = OurDataContext.GetContext(); var su = Compiled_Query_GetLastUpdate(ctx, this.TicketId); return su; } } } We've got some functions that create a compiled query, but the issue is that we also have some DataLoadOptions defined in the DataContext, and because we instantiate a new datacontext for getting these nested property, we get an exception "Compiled Queries across DataContexts with different LoadOptions not supported" . The first DataContext is coming from a DataContextFactory that we implemented with the refactorings, but this second one is just hanging off the entity property getter. We're implementing the Repository pattern in the refactoring process, so we must stop doing stuff like the above. Does anyone know of a good way to address this issue?

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  • Database design for credit based purchases

    - by FreshCode
    I need an elegant way to implement credit-based purchases for an online store with a small variety of products which can be purchased using virtual credit or real currency. Alternatively, products could only be priced in credits. Previous work I have implemented credit-based purchasing before using different product types (eg. Credit, Voucher or Music) with post-order processing to assign purchased credit to users in the form of real currency, which could subsequently be used to discount future orders' charge totals. This worked fairly well as a makeshift solution, but did not succeed in disconnecting the virtual currency from the real currency, which is what I'd like to do, since spending credits is psychologically easier for customers than spending real currency. Design I need guidance on designing the database correctly with support for the simultaneous bulk purchase of credits at a discount along with real currency products. Alternatively, should all products be priced in credits and only credit have a real currency value? Existing Database Design Partial Products table: ProductId Title Type UnitPrice SalePrice Partial Orders table: OrderId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Status Value Total Partial OrderItems table (similar to CartItems table): OrderItemId OrderId (related to Orders table) ProductId (related to Products table) Quantity UnitPrice SalePrice Prospective UserCredits table: CreditId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Value (+/- value. Summed over time to determine saldo.) Date I'm using ASP.NET MVC and LINQ-to-SQL on a SQL Server database.

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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  • belongs_to with multiple models

    - by julie p
    Hi there! I am a Rails noob and have a question. I have a feed aggregator that is organized by this general concept: Feed Category (books, electronics, etc) Feed Site Section (home page, books page, etc) Feed (the feed itself) Feed Entry So: class Category < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :feeds has_many :feed_entries, :through => :feeds, :limit => 5 validates_presence_of :name attr_accessible :name, :id end class Section < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :feeds has_many :feed_entries, :through => :feeds, :limit => 5 attr_accessible :name, :id end class Feed < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :categories belongs_to :sections has_many :feed_entries validates_presence_of :name, :feed_url attr_accessible :name, :feed_url, :category_id, :section_id end class FeedEntry < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feed belongs_to :category belongs_to :section validates_presence_of :title, :url end Make sense? Now, in my index page, I want to basically say... If you are in the Category Books, on the Home Page Section, give me the feed entries grouped by Feed... In my controller: def index @section = Section.find_by_name("Home Page") @books = Category.find_by_name("Books") end In my view: <%= render :partial => 'feed_list', :locals => {:feed_group => @books.feeds} -%> This partial will spit out the markup for each feed entry in the @books collection of Feeds. Now what I need to do is somehow combine the @books with the @section... I tried this: <%= render :partial => 'feed_list', :locals => {:feed_group => @books.feeds(:section_id => @section.id)} -%> But it isn't limiting by the section ID. I've confirmed the section ID by using the same code in the console... Make sense? Any advice? Thanks!

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  • Authorization and Jquery dialog problem.

    - by bbrepols
    Hi, I have a little problem with a Jquery dialog for an action that requires a role. In my example, the user can click on a delete button and must confirm the action. In my controller, the Delete action requires a role, if the user is in the required role, the object is deleted. The problem: How to alert the user if * the element was deleted (redirect to the Index view) * there was an error (alert with the message) * he doesn't have the rights to delete (alert with the message) Before using the authorize filter, the delete action returned a JSON with a Boolean that indicates if there was an error, an URL to redirect on success and a message to alert on error. As I can't return a JSON from my filter, I created an other method with the authorize filter that returns a partial view with the confirm content. If the user doesn't have the rights, the filter returns a partial view with an unauthorized exception content. The problem: How to distinct which partial view was returned. When I create the dialog, I need to know for the buttons function. Thanks!

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