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• Walkthrough/guide building aplication server for multi tenant web app [on hold]

  - by Khalid Adisendjaja

  The web app will detect a subdomain such as tenant1.app.com, tenant2.app.com, etc to identify tenant environment, each tenant environment will have a different database credential (port,db name,etc) but still connecting to the same database server. Each tenant should use app.com for their main domain, using their own domain is prohibitted. Each tenant will have their own rest api endpoint such as tenant1.app.com/api/v1/xxxx, tenant2.app.com/api/v1/xxxx, tenant3.app.com/api/v1/xxxx I've come to a simple solution by setting a wildcard subdomain (*.app.com) on webserver Apache/Nginx vhost configuration file. I have googled so many concept for building a multi-tenant app server but still don't understand how to really done it, what is the right way to do it and what is actually required to do this task. So I've come to this questions, Do I need a proxy server, dns masking, etc.. How to monitor each tenants activity What about server performance, load balancing, and scalability How to setup ssl certificate for each tenant what about application cache for each tenant Is it reliable to use the setup for production etc ... I have a very litte experience on server infrastructure, so I'm looking for a DIY walkthrough, step by step guide, or sophisticate solution ready to implemented for production

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• Connecting to my home router web interface from work

  - by Joe

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to my home router web interface from work. I use dyndns, because I don't have a static IP at home, and it works perfectly from any other place except my workplace (update: I made a mistake, see edit below). When trying to access the web interface from work I get a "500 Server Error" with the code: SERVER_RESPONSE_RESET. I'm not trying to use any protocols such as remote desktop, I'm only trying to access the web interface. I can access any other web page from my workplace with no problems, and I think my router web interface is like any other web page, isn't it? I thought maybe my work place proxy blocks addresses of services like dyndns, so I also applied another trick. Since I have a web page on my own domain (say www.mydomain.com) which I can access from work, I tried adding a CNAME to my domain which is linked to the dyndns address (router.mydomain.com). This way if anyone enters the address router.mydomain.com from anywhere, they reach my home router web interface, and there's no way of knowing it's a dyndns address (or is there?). However, it still doesn't work from my workplace (I get the same error message). Any ides? Edit: I'm sorry to say I made a mistake earlier. I used to be able to access my home router web interface from my old workplace, and I thought it was still possible since I don't recall making any configuration changes. However, after reading the replies, I went over to my old workplace and checked, and it doesn't work from there either. I'm very sorry for giving out wrong and misleading information about my problem. So to summarize: my problem is that I can't access my home router web interface from anywhere.

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• IIS6 Multiple SSL websites to a single HTTP website?

  - by docflabby

  Running a IIS6 server on Windows 2003. All the websites use ASP.NET I have a number of websites all running separate HTTP websites: www.domain1.com www.domain2.com www.domain3.com I have a separate HTTPS website www.secure.com These websites are all running on the same server. I now wish to intergrate the content of www.secure.com into each of the domains in a transparent way. Such that each website despite having its own SSL connection displays the same website. The complicatrion is www.secure.com needs to know which website the connection has come from to apply the appropriate branding. The idea behind this is to have only one website, and location, but it keeps the core website brand. https://domain1.com looks alot better from a marketing point of view (and avoids users getting confused about what our secure website is) SSL www.domain1.com/secure - displays www.secure.com (branded domain1) SSL www.domain2.com/secure - displays www.secure.com (branded domain2) SSL www.domain3.com/secure - displays www.secure.com (branded domain3) How would the best way of achieving this, i'm open to using additional software if necessery. Would a reverse proxy be sutible for this situation?

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• Two servers, two domains, one ip. mod_proxy beginner

  - by Gutsav

  I run two virtual web servers (both running apache2 on debian). I have just one external IP, but two domains, and I want a domain going to each of the servers. I've understood that I need a Reverse Proxy, and I enabled both the mod_proxy and the mod_proxy_http modules on the "primary server". Do I need to enable anything on the "secondary server"? I also understood that I need to write some things in a virtual host file, but what? On the primary server, I have a virtual host file for one of the domains, and some for subdomains. I want domain1.tld to go to the primary server (port 80 is forwarded to it, so that works) and domain2.tld to go to the other server (internal ip 192.168.0.x). No ports needs to be forwarded to it, right? So, what to add and in which virtual host file? Or a new one? Other questions suggest adding ProxyPass and ProxyPassReverse, but I'm lost anyway, and I just don't understand the apache documentation. Thanks in advance

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• Changing a set-cookie header using mod_rewrite/mod_proxy

  - by olrehm

  I have a bunch of cgi scripts, which are served using HTTPS. They can only be reached on the intranet, not from the outside. They set a cookie with the attribute 'Secure', so that it can only be send via HTTPS. There is also a reverse proxy to one of these scripts, unfortunately using plain HTTP. When a response comes in from my cgi-script with a secure cookie, it is not being passed on via HTTP (after all, that is what that attribute is for). I need however, an exception to this rule. Is it possible to use mod_rewrite/mod_proxy or something similar, to change the set-cookie header in the response coming from my cgi script and remove the Secure, such that the cookie can be passed back to the user using the unsafe HTTP connection? I understand that this defeats the purpose of the Secure in the first place, but I need this as a temporary work around. I have searched the web and found how to add a set-cookie header using mod_rewrite, and I have also found how to retrieve the value of a cookie coming from the client in a cookie header. What I have not yet found is how to extract the set-cookie header received in the response of a script I am proxying for. Is that possible? How would I do that? Ole

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• Web browsing through SSH tunnel gets stuck/clogged

  - by endolith

  I use tools like Tunnelier to log into my home Tomato router through SSH, and then use it as a proxy for web browsing, tunnel for Remote Desktop/VNC, etc. Most days it works great, but some days every page I try to view gets stuck, like the tunnel is clogged. I load a web page and it seems to be loading, then stops, with the little loading icon spinning and nothing happening. I refresh the page, I reboot the router, I reboot the other computers on my home network and turn off any bandwidth-hogging services on them, I've turned on QoS on the router to prioritize SSH. I don't understand what's getting stuck. Rebooting or disconnecting/reconnecting the SSH tunnel improves responsiveness for a minute, but then it gets clogged again. It also seems to help if I don't do anything on the tunnel for a few minutes, then it will be responsive for a bit and then get clogged again. Trying to open a terminal console from Tunnelier is also unresponsive, so it's not just a web browsing problem. Likewise, connecting to http://192.168.1.1 in the browser (to the router's web config through its own tunnel) is also slow/laggy/halting. The realtime bandwidth reported by the router is nowhere near my DSL connection's limits, though it does show big spikes during the laggy times, and the connection is responsive when it shows low bandwidths. How do I troubleshoot something like this?

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• HTTP cache for my virtual machines

  - by MathematicalOrchid

  I have several Linux virtual machines running on my home PC. One of the quirks of Linux is that every time you run a package manager, it wants to "refresh" the configured software repositories - which basically means it wants to download a file from the Internet. If I revert to an earlier snapshot of the VM, then next time I run the package manager it will re-download the exact same data again [since it no longer exists in the VM]. It seems a shame to waste bandwidth endlessly downloading the same data over and over again, so I was wondering if there's some way I can set up some kind of HTTP proxy server that caches downloaded files. I have no idea how you would do such a thing though. In particular, it needs to be set up so that the VMs don't need to "know" that the cache is there; it needs to be transparent. But I don't know how to do that. Any suggestions on what software I'd need to use? It would be nice if I could run it under the Windows host OS, but running a small VM with a Linux guest is also possible...

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• Can I use iptables on my Varnish server to forward HTTPS traffic to a specific server?

  - by Dylan Beattie

  We use Varnish as our front-end web cache and load balancer, so we have a Linux server in our development environment, running Varnish with some basic caching and load-balancing rules across a pair of Windows 2008 IIS web servers. We have a wildcard DNS rule that points *.development at this Varnish box, so we can browse http://www.mysite.com.development, http://www.othersite.com.development, etc. The problem is that since Varnish can't handle HTTPS traffic, we can't access https://www.mysite.com.development/ For dev/testing, we don't need any acceleration or load-balancing - all I need is to tell this box to act as a dumb proxy and forward any incoming requests on port 443 to a specific IIS server. I suspect iptables may offer a solution but it's been a long while since I wrote an iptables rule. Some initial hacking has got me as far as iptables -F iptables -A INPUT -p tcp -m tcp --sport 443 -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m tcp --dport 443 -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 443 -j DNAT --to 10.0.0.241:443 iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -p tcp -d 10.0.0.241 --dport 443 -j MASQUERADE iptables -A INPUT -j LOG --log-level 4 --log-prefix 'PreRouting ' iptables -A OUTPUT -j LOG --log-level 4 --log-prefix 'PostRouting ' iptables-save > /etc/iptables.rules (where 10.0.0.241 is the IIS box hosting the HTTPS website), but this doesn't appear to be working. To clarify - I realize there's security implications about HTTPS proxying/caching - all I'm looking for is completely transparent IP traffic forwarding. I don't need to decrypt, cache or inspect any of the packets; I just want anything on port 443 to flow through the Linux box to the IIS box behind it as though the Linux box wasn't even there. Any help gratefully received... EDIT: Included full iptables config script.

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• How do you get AWS VPC EC2 instances to be able to see the AWS APIs?

  - by Peter Mounce

  We're spinning up infrastructure inside of an AWS VPC via CloudFormation. We're using auto-scaling groups to bring up VPC-EC2 instances (so, we don't bring up instances directly; ASGs manage that). Inside of a PVC, EC2 instances only have a private IP; they cannot see the outside world without further work. When these instances spin up, we have some bootstrap tasks that require talking to the various AWS APIs. We also have some ongoing tasks that require AWS API traffic. How are you tackling this apparent chicken-egg problem? We've read about: NAT instances - but don't like this so much because it's another layer to our stack. assigning elastic-IPs to each VPC instance that needs to talk - but a) they all do, and b) since we're using ASGs, we don't know which instances to assign EIPs to at provision-time, and c) we'd need to set up something to monitor those ASGs and assign EIPs when instances are terminated and replaced spinning up an instance (actually, a load-balanced pair, probably spanning AZs) to act as an AWS-API proxy for all API traffic I guess I'm wondering whether there's some kind of back-door we can open that allows our VPC EC2 instances access to the AWS API endpoints, but nothing else, for cheap-complexity setup, that doesn't add another network-hop layer to our infrastructure for serving requests.

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• reverse proxying with NGINX to two back-end servers

  - by aag

  I am trying to learn how to configure the Nginx proxy. All requests from external (www.external.com) should go to internal server 10.10.10.16:2080, except for www.external.com/nagios requests, which should go to internal 10.10.10.18. My location block looks as follows: location ~* / { proxy_buffers 16 4k; proxy_buffer_size 2k; proxy_buffering off; proxy_set_header Host $host; proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; proxy_set_header Accept-Encoding ""; proxy_pass http://10.10.10.16:2080; } # # nagios server location ~* /nagios/ { proxy_buffers 16 4k; proxy_buffer_size 2k; proxy_buffering off; # proxy_set_header Host $host; # proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; # proxy_set_header Accept-Encoding ""; proxy_pass http://10.10.10.18; } The first location seems to work fine. However, any request to www.external.com/nagios sends the browser into the eternal pastures. Of course, 10.10.10.18/nagios was tested and works fine. What am I missing?

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• RewriteRule causes POST data to get dumped before I can access it

  - by MatthewMcGovern

  I'm currently setting up my own 'webserver' (a Ubuntu Server on some old hardware) so I can have a mess around with PHP and get some experience managing a server. I'm using my own little MVC framework and I've hit a snag... In order for all requests to make it through the dispatcher, I am using: <Directory /var/www/> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(png|jpg|jpeg|bmp|gif|css|js)$ [NC] RewriteRule . HomeProjects/index.php [L] </Directory> Which works great. I read on Stackoverflow to change the [L] to [P] to preserve post data. However, this causes every page to return: Not Found The requested URL <url> was not found on this server. So after some more searching, I found, "Note that you need to enable the proxy module, and the proxy_http_module in the config files for this to work." The problem is, I have no idea how to do this and everything I google has people using examples with virtual hosts and I don't know how to 'translate' that into something useful for my setup. I'm accessing my webserver via my public IP and forwarding traffic on port 80 to the web server (like I'm pretending I have a domain/server). How can I get this enabled/get post data working again? Edit: When I use the following, the server never responds and the page loads indefinately? LoadModule proxy_module /usr/lib/apache2/modules/mod_proxy.so LoadModule proxy_http_module /usr/lib/apache2/modules/mod_proxy_http.so <Directory /var/www/> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_REFERER} !^http://(.+\.)?82\.6\.150\.51/ [NC] RewriteRule .*\.(jpe?g|gif|bmp|png|jpg)$ /no-hotlink.png [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(png|jpg|jpeg|bmp|gif|css|js)$ [NC] RewriteRule . HomeProjects/index.php [P] </Directory>

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• Building Dynamic Classes in Objective C

  - by kjell_

  I'm a somewhat competent ruby programmer. Yesterday I decided to finally try my hand with Apple's Cocoa frameworks. Help me see things the ObjC way? I'm trying to get my head around objc_allocateClassPair and objc_registerClassPair. My goal is to dynamically generate a few classes and then be able to use them as I would any other class. Does this work in Obj C? Having allocated and registered class A, I get a compile error when calling [[A alloc] init]; (it says 'A' Undeclared). I can only instantiate A using runtime's objc_getClass method. Is there any way to tell the compiler about A and pass it messages like I would NSString? A compiler flag or something? I have 10 or so other classes (B, C, …), all with the same superclass. I want to message them directly in code ([A classMethod], [B classMethod], …) without needing objc_getClass. Am I trying to be too dynamic here or just botching my implementation? It looks something like this… NSString *name = @"test"; Class newClass = objc_allocateClassPair([NSString class], [name UTF8String], 0); objc_registerClassPair(newClass); id a = [[objc_getClass("A") alloc] init]; NSLog(@"new class: %@ superclass: %@", a, [a superclass]); //[[A alloc] init]; blows up.

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• wxOSX/Carbon: wxGLCanvas mouse offset in non-floating window classes

  - by srose

  Hi All, I mainly program plugins using wxWidgets within a Carbon bundle which is loaded at runtime. The host-applications where my plugins are running in provide a native window handle (WindowRef), which I can use to add my custom, wxWidgets-based GUI-classes. To use the native window handle with wxWidgets classes I had to write a wxTopLevelWindow wrapper class, which does all the WindowRef encapsulation. So far, this works pretty well, but under some circumstances I got vertical mouse offsets within a wxGLCanvas if the window class of the native window handle is not of the type "kFloatingWindowClass". I am able to bypass the problem if I display an info panel (wxPanel) over the whole wxGlCanvas and if the user hides the info panel then the mouse offset is gone. Now my questions: Is there a "simple" explanation for this behaviour? Is it possible to use certain method calls to imitate info panel effect without using the panel itself? I tried several combinations of Update() and Refresh() calls of all involved components, but none of them worked so far. Even the use of wxSizer couldn't help here. Window hierarchy used by plugin-applications: wxCustomTopLevelWindow (WindowRef provided by host-application) wxPanel (parent window for all application panel) wxPanel (application info panel) wxPanel (application main panel) wxPanel (opengl main panel) wxGlCanvas (main opengl canvas) Any ideas? Any help is very appreciated.

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• Two classes and inline functions

  - by klew

  I have two classes and both of them uses some of the other class, on example: // class1.h class Class1; #include "class2.h" class Class1 { public: static Class2 *C2; ... }; // class2.h class Class2; #include "class1.h" class Class2 { public: static Class1 *C1; ... }; And when I define it like in example above, it works (I also have some #ifndef to avoid infinite header recurency). But I also want to add some inline functions to my classes. And I read here that I should put definition of inline function in header file, because it won't work if I'll put them in cpp file and want to call them from other cpp file (when I do it I get undefined reference during linking). But the problem here is with something like this: // class1.h ... inline void Class1::Foo() { C2->Bar(); } I get error: invalid use of incomplete type ‘struct Class2’. So how can I do it?

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• Restricting dynamically loaded classes and jars based on a security policy

  - by Max

  Hi, I would like to dynamically load a set of jars or classes (i.e. plugins loaded at runtime). At the same time, I would like to restrict what these plugins are able to do in the JVM. For a test case, I would like to restrict them to pretty much everything (right now I'm just allowing one System.getProperty value to be read). I am currently using a security policy file, but I'm having difficulty specifying a policy for one folder or package in my codeBase, but not another. Here is how my policy looks now: grant codeBase "file:/home/max/programming/java/plugin/plugins/" { permission java.util.PropertyPermission "java.version", "read"; }; grant codeBase "file:/home/max/programming/java/plugin/api/" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; Where (for testing purposes), all files in the plugins package and folder are restricted, but the classes in the api folder are not. Is this possible? Do I have to create a custom class loader? Is there a better way to go about doing this? Thanks.

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• Problem with interface implementation in partial classes.

  - by Bas

  I have a question regarding a problem with L2S, Autogenerated DataContext and the use of Partial Classes. I have abstracted my datacontext and for every table I use, I'm implementing a class with an interface. In the code below you can see I have the Interface and two partial classes. The first class is just there to make sure the class in the auto-generated datacontext inherets Interface. The other autogenerated class makes sure the method from Interface is implemented. namespace PartialProject.objects { public interface Interface { Interface Instance { get; } } //To make sure the autogenerated code inherits Interface public partial class Class : Interface { } //This is autogenerated public partial class Class { public Class Instance { get { return this.Instance; } } } } Now my problem is that the method implemented in the autogenerated class gives the following error: - Property 'Instance' cannot implement property from interface 'PartialProject.objects.Interface'. Type should be 'PartialProjects.objects.Interface'. <- Any idea how this error can be resolved? Keep in mind that I can't edit anything in the autogenerated code. Thanks in advance!

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• How do attribute classes work?

  - by AaronLS

  My searches keep turning up only guides explaining how to use and apply attributes to a class. I want to learn how to create my own attribute classes and the mechanics of how they work. How are attribute classes instantiated? Are they instantiated when the class they are applied to is instantiated? Is one instantiated for each class instantiated that it is applied to? E.g. if I apply the SerializableAttribute class to a MyData class, and I instantiate 5 MyData instances, will there be 5 instances of the SerializbleAttribute class created behind the scenes? Or is there just one instance shared between all of them? How do attribute class instances access the class they are associated with? How does a SerializableAttribute class access the class it is applied to so that it can serialize it's data? Does it have some sort of SerializableAttribute.ThisIsTheInstanceIAmAppliedTo property? :) Or does it work in the reverse direction that whenever I serialize something, the Serialize function I pass the MyClass instance to will reflectively go through the Attributes and find the SerialiableAttribute instance?

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• Javascript hide/show classes with checkbox

  - by Christina

  I am just learning javascript, so please bear with me! I want to be able to use checkboxes to choose to hide/show div classes (to basically filter the amount of info being shown). It is done in this... but I'm try to figure out something much simpler (since I don't need to dynamically generate the checkbox options.) I came across this example: The Javascript: function showMe (it, box) { var vis = (box.checked) ? "block" : "none"; document.getElementById(it).style.display = vis; } The HTML <form> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" value="value1" onclick="showMe('div1', this)" />value1 <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" value="value2" onclick="showMe('div2', this)" />value2 <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" value="value3" onclick="showMe('div3', this)" />value3 </form> <div id="div1" style="display:block">Show Div 1</div> <div id="div2" style="display:block">Show Div 2</div> <div id="div3" style="display:block">Show Div 3</div> </body> </html> But it only works for div ids, not classes. Any idea on how I can work this? Thanks in advance if you can help me out!

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• Storing an object to use in multiple classes

  - by Aaron Sanders

  I am wondering the best way to store an object in memory that is used in a lot of classes throughout an application. Let me set up my problem for you: We have multiple databases, 1 per customer. We also have a master table and each row is detailed information about the databases such as database name, server IP it's located and a few config settings. I have an application that loops through those multiple databases and runs some updates on them. The settings I mentioned above are updated each loop iteration into memory. The application then runs through series of processes that include multiple classes using this data. The data never changes during the processes, only during the loop iteration. The variables are related to a customer, so I have them stored in a customer class. I suppose I could make all of the members shared or should I use a singleton for the customer class? I've never actually used a singleton, only read they are good in this type of situation. Are there better solutions to this type of scenario? Also, I could have plans for this application to be multithreaded later. Sorry if this is confusing. If you have questions, let me know and I will answer them. Thanks for your help.

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• jQuery element with multiple classes: storing one class as a var

  - by Aaron

  I'm trying to create a standardized show/hide element system, like so: <div class="opener popup_1">Click Me</div> <div class="popup popup_1">I'm usually hidden</div> Clicking on the div with the opener class should show() the div with the popup class. I don't know how many opener/popup combinations I'm going to have on any given page, I don't know where on any given page the opener and the popup are going to be displayed, and I don't know how many popups a given opener should call show() for. Both the opener and the popup have to be able to have more classes than just what's used by jQuery. What I'd like to do is something like this: $(".opener").click(function() { var openerTarget = $(this).attr("class").filter(function() { return this.class.match(/^popup_([a-zA-Z0-9-_\+]*) ?$/); }); $(".popup." + openerTarget).show(); The idea is that when you click on an opener, it filters out "popup_whatever" from opener's classes and stores that as openerTarget. Then anything with class=popup and openerTarget will be shown.

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• Object Oriented Programming in AS3

  - by Jordan

  I'm building a game in as3 that has balls moving and bouncing off the walls. When the user clicks an explosion appears and any ball that hits that explosion explodes too. Any ball that then hits that explosion explodes and so on. My question is what would be the best class structure for the balls. I have a level system to control levels and such and I've already come up with working ways to code the balls. Here's what I've done. My first attempt was to create a class for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and finally Orb. These all extended each other in the order I just named them. I got it working but having Bounce extend Movement and Explosion extend Bounce, it just doesn't seem very object oriented because what if I wanted to add a box class that didn't move, but did explode? I would need a separate class for that explosion. My second attempt was to create Movement, Bounce and Explosion without extending anything. Instead I passed in a reference to the Orb class to each. Then the class stores that reference and does what it needs to do based on events that are dispatched by the Orb such as update, which was broadcast from Orb every enter frame. This would drive the movement and bounce and also the explosion when the time came. This attempt worked as well but it just doesn't seem right. I've also thought about using Interfaces but because they are more of an outline for classes, I feel like code reuse goes out the window as each class would need its own code for a specific task even if that task is exactly the same. I feel as if I'm searching for some form of multiple inheritance for classes that as3 does not support. Can someone explain to me a better way of doing what I'm attempting to do? Am I being to "Object Oriented" by having classed for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and Orb? Are Interfaces the way to go? Any feedback is appreciated!

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• why is OOP hard for me?

  - by netrox

  I have trouble writing OOP in PHP... I understand the concept but I never create classes for my projects... mainly because it's often a small project and nothing complex. But when I read OOP, it seems more difficult to code than writing simple procedural statements. It also seems to take a lot of room as well with so many empty abstract classes and that can be easily lost in the land of objects... it's becoming like a junkyard to me. Also, I noticed that virtually all instructions on how to use OOP use "car" or "cat" or "dog" analogies. Hello... we're not dealing with animals or cars... we're dealing with windows or consoles. You can talk about analogies to death and I will never learn. What I want is see a code that's written to show how objects are created - not, "aCow-moo!" For example, I want to see a browser window object displaying say... three inputs. I want to see an "object" created to output a window with three inputs then I want to see how overriding works, like change the window object to display only two inputs instead of three inputs. I think that would make learning more easy, wouldn't it? Any recommended tutorials of that nature instead of quacks, moos, and woofs.

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• Unit test project doesn't recognize the classes it was generated from

  - by DougLeary

  I have a fairly simple file-system website consisting of one aspx page and several classes in separate .cs files. Everything is on my own HD. The web app itself builds and runs fine. Out of curiosity I decided to try out Visual Studio's nifty, easy-to-use unit test feature. So I opened each class file and clicked Create Unit Tests. VS generated a test project containing a set of test classes and some other files. Easy! But when I try to build or run the test project it throws a series of build errors, one for every class: The type or namespace name 'class-name' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?). Somebody asked if my test project has a reference to the original project. Well no, because the original project is a file-system website. It has no bin folder and no DLL, so there's nothing to reference as far as I can tell. I would think that since VS generated these unit tests it would generate whatever references it needs, but apparently not. Is generating unit tests for file-system web apps an undocumented no-no, or is there a magic trick to getting it to work?

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• c# multi inheritance

  - by user326839

  So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

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• Toggle two divs and classes

  - by kuswantin

  I have two links with classes (login-form and register-form) relevant to their target forms ID, they want to toggle. I have also a predefined 'slideToggle' function to toggle better. This is what I have tried so far: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); $('#userbar a').removeClass('active'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form,#login-form').hide(); //bad, causing flashy $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); return false; }); With this I have trouble with the flashy window, and to correctly toggle the active classes when another link is clicked, the other link should not have active class anymore. Additional problem is the link is dead on serial clicks. I have another try, longer one: $('#userbar a').click(function() { var c = $(this).attr('class'); switch (c) { case 'login-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#register-form').hide(); break; case 'register-form': $('#' + c).slideToggle('slow'); $(this).toggleClass('active'); $('#login-form').hide(); break; } return false; }); This one is worse than the first :( Any suggestion to correct the behavior? What I want is when a link with class login-form is click, so toggle the form with ID login-form, and hide the register-form if open. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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