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  • XmlSerializer construction with same named extra types

    - by NoizWaves
    Hey, I am hitting trouble constructing an XmlSerializer where the extra types contains types with the same Name (but unique Fullname). Below is an example that illustrated my scenario. Type definitions in external assembly I cannot manipulate: public static class Wheel { public enum Status { Stopped, Spinning } } public static class Engine { public enum Status { Idle, Full } } Class I have written and have control over: public class Car { public Wheel.Status WheelStatus; public Engine.Status EngineStatus; public static string Serialize(Car car) { var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Car), new[] {typeof(Wheel.Status),typeof(Engine.Status)}); var output = new StringBuilder(); using (var sw = new StringWriter(output)) xs.Serialize(sw, car); return output.ToString(); } } The XmlSerializer constructor throws a System.InvalidOperationException with Message "There was an error reflecting type 'Engine.Status'" This exception has an InnerException of type System.InvalidOperationException and with Message "Types 'Wheel.Status' and 'Engine.Status' both use the XML type name, 'Status', from namespace ''. Use XML attributes to specify a unique XML name and/or namespace for the type." Given that I am unable to alter the enum types, how can I construct an XmlSerializer that will serialize Car successfully?

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  • 2-column table with two foreign keys. Performance/design question.

    - by Emanuel
    Hello everyone! I recently ran into a quite complex problem and after looking around a lot I couldn't find a solution to it. I've found answers to my questions many times before on stackoverflow.com, so I decided to post here. So I'm making a user/group managment system for a web-based project, and I'm storing all related data into a postgreSQL database. This system relies on three tables: USERS GROUPS GROUP_USERS The two first tables simply define all the users and all the groups on the site, and the last table, GROUP_USERS, stores the groups every user is part of. It only has two columns: USER_ID GROUP_ID Since every user can be a member of several groups, I decided to make a separate table for this purpose, rather than storing a comma separated column in the USERS-table. Now, both columns are foreign keys, and I want to make them both primary keys as well, this since each combination of USER_ID and GROUP_ID has to be unique, and if I give them the constraint UNIQUE pgAdmin tells me that each table should have at least one Primary key. But now I am stuck with what seems to be a lot of indexes and relations to a very small table only containing numbers. In the end, I want this table to be as fast as possible, even if containing tens of thousands of rows. Size on disk shouldn't be a problem since its just all numbers anyway, but it feels quite stupid to have a full-sized index refering to a smaller table. Should I stick with my current solution, store comma-separated values in a column in the USERS-table or is there any other solution I should be aware of. PS. I don't want to use an array-column, even if they are supported by postgreSQL. I want to be as generic as possible so I can switch database later on, if necessary. EDIT: I other words, will using a compound primary key and two foreign keys in one table with only two columns have a negative impact on performance rather than the opposite due to the size of the generated index? Thank you!

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  • Android 2.1 gallery not backward compatible with Cupcake version, now what?

    - by Schermvlieger
    I don't know why, but in Eclair, the default (non-fancy) gallery app changed its begaviour from the Cupcake version, and it broke one of my commercial applications :-( Firstly, when long-pressing a gallery and choosing "Diashow", it does not publish an Intent to be picked up by any application that implements the Intent filter anymore. Instead, it will directly call "com.android.gallery/com.android.camera.ViewImage" with extras. Question: is it still possible to intercept this intent and allow the user to choose my application to do the Diashow? Secondly, the intent extras for the VIEW intent are messed up (in my build of 2.1 anyway): Instead of providing the BucketId of the picture in the Intent's queryparameter. But in 2.1, the BucketId is moved to the Intent's extras. Except; it is not passing the BUCKET_ID, but the unlocalized BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME instead :-/ Question: how can I still get the unique BUCKET_ID from the intent, so that I do not have to work with a potentially non-unique BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME? Is there anybody out there who has come up with a working solution for these problems? I thought the whole idea of Android Intents was to be able to integrate your applications with the base Android environment, but my build of 2.1 proves that this idea still lives in the land of Theory :-(

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  • how to make it easy for users to register at my site?

    - by rob
    I want to make it dirt simple for users coming to my site to register so they can post comments, vote on things, etc. I would like for them to be able to use their facebook id, twitter id, yahoo mail id, gmail id, AIM id, msn id, or whatever else people are likely to have (not necessarily all of those, but the more the better). I want my mom to be able to do it in 30 seconds or less. (that is, no "enter your open id url here" type thing that would confuse her). I prefer they not have to pick a unique name, as that gets annoying as the site gets more users and it gets hard to find one that is unique. What is the best option here? I'm not quite sure about OpenId vs. OAuth, and whether there are other options. And I'd like it to be as simple for me, the developer, as possible (of course!). I don't want to spend forever learning some protocol, nor have to structure my whole app around this. It would be great if there was a site with sample code that is pretty easy to drop in. BTW, StackOverflow is a good example of a site that was easy for me to register for.

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  • Hibernate CreateSQL Query Problem

    - by Shaded
    Hello All I'm trying to use hibernates built in createsql function but it seems that it doesn't like the following query. List =hibernateSession.createSQLQuery("SELECT number, location FROM table WHERE other_number IN (SELECT f.number FROM table2 AS f JOIN table3 AS g on f.number = g.number WHERE g.other_number = " + var + ") ORDER BY number").addEntity(Table.class).list(); I have a feeling it's from the nested select statement, but I'm not sure. The inner select is used elsewhere in the code and it returns results fine. This is my mapping for the first table: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="org.efs.openreports.objects.Table" table="table"> <id name="id" column="other_number" type="java.lang.Integer"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="number" column="number" not-null="true" unique="true"/> <property name="location" column="location" not-null="true" unique="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> And the .java public class Table implements Serializable { private Integer id;//panel_facility private Integer number; private String location; public Table() { } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setNumber(Integer number) { this.number = number; } public Integer number() { return number; } public String location() { return location; } public void setLocation(String location) { this.location = location; } } Any suggestions? Edit (Added mapping)

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  • Using an unencoded key vs a real Key, benefits?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am reading the docs for Key generation in app engine. I'm not sure what effect using a simple String key has over a real Key. For example, when my users sign up, they must supply a unique username: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private String name; } now if I understand the docs correctly, I should still be able to generate named keys and entity groups using this, right?: // Find an instance of this entity: User user = pm.findObjectById(User.class, "myusername"); // Create a new obj and put it in same entity group: Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername") .addChild(Goat.class.getSimpleName(), "baa").getKey(); Goat goat = new Goat(); goat.setKey(key); pm.makePersistent(goat); the Goat instance should now be in the same entity group as that User, right? I mean there's no problem with leaving the User's primary key as just the raw String? Is there a performance benefit to using a Key though? Should I update to: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private Key key; } // Generate like: Key key = KeyFactory.createKey( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername"); user.setKey(key); it's almost the same thing, I'd still just be generating the Key using the unique username anyway, Thanks

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  • Optimizing a "set in a string list" to a "set as a matrix" operation

    - by Eric Fournier
    I have a set of strings which contain space-separated elements. I want to build a matrix which will tell me which elements were part of which strings. For example: "" "A B C" "D" "B D" Should give something like: A B C D 1 2 1 1 1 3 1 4 1 1 Now I've got a solution, but it runs slow as molasse, and I've run out of ideas on how to make it faster: reverseIn <- function(vector, value) { return(value %in% vector) } buildCategoryMatrix <- function(valueVector) { allClasses <- c() for(classVec in unique(valueVector)) { allClasses <- unique(c(allClasses, strsplit(classVec, " ", fixed=TRUE)[[1]])) } resMatrix <- matrix(ncol=0, nrow=length(valueVector)) splitValues <- strsplit(valueVector, " ", fixed=TRUE) for(cat in allClasses) { if(cat=="") { catIsPart <- (valueVector == "") } else { catIsPart <- sapply(splitValues, reverseIn, cat) } resMatrix <- cbind(resMatrix, catIsPart) } colnames(resMatrix) <- allClasses return(resMatrix) } Profiling the function gives me this: $by.self self.time self.pct total.time total.pct "match" 31.20 34.74 31.24 34.79 "FUN" 30.26 33.70 74.30 82.74 "lapply" 13.56 15.10 87.86 97.84 "%in%" 12.92 14.39 44.10 49.11 So my actual questions would be: - Where are the 33% spent in "FUN" coming from? - Would there be any way to speed up the %in% call? I tried turning the strings into factors prior to going into the loop so that I'd be matching numbers instead of strings, but that actually makes R crash. I've also tried going for partial matrix assignment (IE, resMatrix[i,x] <- 1) where i is the number of the string and x is the vector of factors. No dice there either, as it seems to keep on running infinitely.

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  • Hashing Function for Map C++

    - by Josh
    I am trying to determine a hash function which takes an input (i, k) and determines a unique solution. The possible inputs for (i, k) range from 0 to 100. Consider each (i, k) as a position of a node in a trinomial tree. Ex: (0, 0) can diverge to (1, 1) (1, 0) (1, -1). (1, 1) can diverge to (2, 2) (2, 1) (2, 0). Sample given here: http://www.google.com/imgres?imgurl=http://sfb649.wiwi.hu-berlin.de/fedc_homepage/xplore/tutorials/stfhtmlimg1156.gif&imgrefurl=http://sfb649.wiwi.hu-berlin.de/fedc_homepage/xplore/tutorials/stfhtmlnode41.html&h=413&w=416&sz=4&tbnid=OegDZu-yeVitZM:&tbnh=90&tbnw=91&zoom=1&usg=__9uQWDNYNLV14YioWWbrqPgfa3DQ=&docid=2hhitNyRWjI_DM&hl=en&sa=X&ei=xAfFUIbyG8nzyAHv2YDICg&ved=0CDsQ9QEwAQ I am using a map map <double, double> hash_table I need a key value to be determined from pairs (i, k) to hash to to value for that (i, k) So far I was only able to come up with linear functions such as: double Hash_function(int i, int k) { //double val = pow(i, k) + i; //return (val % 4294967296); return (i*3.1415 + k*i*9.12341); } However, I cannot determine a unique key with a certain (i, k). What kind of functions can I use to help me do so?

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  • Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

    - by Alan Storm
    Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

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  • Input html tag not parsing properly in php

    - by Akaash
    I have a database with names that I would like displayed in the form of a table with checkboxes. Everything works until I try to place the html tag into my php code. When I put the input tag in it gives me the error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_STRING, expecting ',' or ';' I can't see where I would put a comma or semi colon. <form> <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $host = "mysql16.000webhost.com"; $user_name = "a1611480_akaash"; $pwd = "****"; $database_name = "a1611480_akaash"; $db = mysql_connect($host, $user_name, $pwd); mysql_select_db($database_name); $result = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM Sort"); $var = array(); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $var[] = $row['name']; } $unique = array_unique($var); foreach ($unique as $value) { echo "<p class = Body_text><label>$value</label> <input type="checkbox" name="name" value="$value" /> </p>\n"; } ?> </form>

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  • Forms blank when rendering a partial when using a collection of objects. Help!

    - by dustmoo
    Alright, I know my title is a little obscure but it best describes the problem I am having. Essentially, I have a list of users, and want to be able to edit their information in-line using AJAX. Since the users are showing up in rows, I am using a partial to render the data and the forms (which will be hidden initially by the ajax), however, when the rows are rendered currently only the last item has it's form's fields populated. I suspect this has something to do with the fact that all the form fields have the same id's and it is confusing the DOM. But I don't know how to make sure the id's are unique. Here is a small example: In my view: <%= render :partial => 'shared/user', :collection => @users %> My partial (broke down to just the form) note that I am using the local variable "user" <% form_for user, :html => {:multipart => true} do |f| -%> <%= f.label :name, "Name*" %> <%= f.text_field :title, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :Address, "Address" %> <%= f.text_field :address, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :description, "Description*" %> <%= f.text_area :description, :class => "input" %> <% end -%> When the html is rendered each form has a unique id (for the id of the user) but the elements themselves all have the same id, and only the last user form is actually getting populated with values. Does anyone have any ideas?? :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Querying using table-valued parameter

    - by antmx
    I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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  • Random Alpha numeric generator

    - by AAA
    Hi, I want to give our users in the database a unique alpha-numeric id. I am using the code below, will this always generate a unique id? Below is the old and updated version of the code: New php: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Old PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Will this first code guarantee uniqueness?

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  • HABTM selection seemingly ignores joinTable

    - by TheCapn
    I'm attempting to do a HABTM relationship between a Users table and Groups table. The problem is, that I when I issue this call: $this->User->Group->find('list'); The query that is issued is: SELECT [Group].[id] AS [Group__id], [Group].[name] AS [Group__name] FROM [groups] AS [Group] WHERE 1 = 1 I can only assume at this point that I have defined my relationship wrong as I would expect behavior to use the groups_users table that is defined on the database as per convention. My relationships: class User extends AppModel { var $name = 'User'; //...snip... var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Group' => array( 'className' => 'Group', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'group_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, ) ); //...snip... } class Group extends AppModel { var $name = 'Group'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ( 'User' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'group_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'user_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, )); } Is my understanding of HABTM wrong? How would I implement this Many to Many relationship where I can use CakePHP to query the groups_users table such that a list of groups the currently authenticated user is associated with is returned?

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  • jQuery .val() Selector Confusion

    - by Matt Dawdy
    I've kind of written myself into a corner, and was hoping there was an "easy" way out. I'm trying to loop through a series of things on my page, and build a key:value pair. Here is my structure: <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab34"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab87"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> It's way more complicated than that, and there are many select elements inside of each divFieldMap div. Here is my JS function that is building my string: function Save() { var sSaveString = ''; $('.divMapTab').each(function() { var thisId = this.id; $('.selSrc', "#" + thisId).each(function() { var thisSubId = this.id; //alert(thisSubId); <-- HERE IS THE PROBLEM var sTargetCol = thisSubId.replace('selTarget', ''); var sValue = this.val(); sSaveString += sTargetCol + '¸' + sValue + '·'; }); }); } On the line that has the alert box and the text "HERE IS THE PROBLEM" is that I'm trying to get the selected value of the "current" select input element, but the id of that element isn't unique (I thought it would be, but I screwed up). Is there a good way, inside of an "each" type of jQuery statement, to use "this" to get the exact select element that I really am looking for, even if it doesn't have a unique id?

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  • UIDs for data objects in MySQL

    - by Callash
    Hi there, I am using C++ and MySQL. I have data objects I want to persist to the database. They need to have a unique ID for identification purposes. The question is, how to get this unique ID? Here is what I came up with: 1) Use the auto_increment feature of MySQL. But how to get the ID then? I am aware that MySQL offers this "SELECT LAST_INSERT_ID()" feature, but that would be a race condition, as two objects could be inserted quite fast after each other. Also, there is nothing else that makes the objects discernable. Two objects could be created pretty much at the same time with exactly the same data. 2) Generate the UID on the C++ side. No dice, either. There are multiple programs that will write to and read from the database, who do not know of each other. 3) Insert with MAX(uid)+1 as the uid value. But then, I basically have the same problem as in 1), because we still have the race condition. Now I am stumped. I am assuming that this problem must be something other people ran into as well, but so far, I did not find any answers. Any ideas?

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  • What is a more "ruby way" to write this code?

    - by steadfastbuck
    This was a homework assignment for my students (I am a teaching assistant) in c and I am trying to learn Ruby, so I thought I would code it up. The goal is to read integers from a redirected file and print some simple information. The first line in the file is the number of elements, and then each integer resides on its own line. This code works (although perhaps inefficiently), but how can I make the code more Ruby-like? #!/usr/bin/ruby -w # first line is number of inputs (Don't need it) num_inputs = STDIN.gets.to_i # read inputs as ints h = Hash.new STDIN.each do |n| n = n.to_i h[n] = 1 unless h[n] and h[n] += 1 end # find smallest mode h.sort.each do |k,v| break puts "Mode is: #{k}", "\n" if v == h.values.max end # mode unique? v = h.values.sort print "Mode is unique: " puts v.pop == v.pop, "\n" # print number of singleton odds, # odd elems repeated odd number times in desc order # even singletons in desc order odd_once = 0 odd = Array.new even = Array.new h.each_pair do |k, v| odd_once += 1 if v == 1 and k.odd? odd << k if v.odd? even << k if v == 1 and k.even? end puts "Number of elements with an odd value that appear only once: #{odd_once}", "\n" puts "Elements repeated an odd number of times:" puts odd.sort.reverse, "\n" puts "Elements with an even value that appear exactly once:" puts even.sort.reverse, "\n" # print fib numbers in the hash class Fixnum def is_fib? l, h = 0, 1 while h <= self return true if h == self l, h = h, l+h end end end puts "Fibonacci numbers:" h.keys.sort.each do |n| puts n if n.is_fib? end

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  • jQuery: Problems cookies internet explorer

    - by user1140479
    I have made a login page. When the user logs in a request to an API is send. This API is PHP and checks the username and password. When both are correct an unique key is send back (this is placed in the database for further use: userid and other stuff needed in the website). After that key is sent back it is placed in a cookie: $.cookie("session", JSON.stringify(result)); After the cookie is set I send the user to a new page: location.href = 'dashboard.htm'; In this page jQuery checks if the cookie "session" is present. If not, the user is send back to the login page. sessionId = ($.cookie("session") ? JSON.parse($.cookie("session")).SessionId : 0); return sessionId; This works fine in Chrome, but IE (8/9) has some problems with this. I figured out that when you get to dashboard.htm the session is present. As soon as I hit F5 the session is gone. And sometimes the cookie isn't set at all! I can't seem to figure out why this is happening in IE. Has someone any idea? Other options/ideas to save that unique key are also welcome. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to efficiently use LOCK_ESCALATION mssql 2008

    - by Avias
    I'm currently having troubles with frequent deadlocks with a specific user table in MS SQL 2008. Here are some facts about this particular table: Has a large amount of rows (1 to 2 million) All the indexes used on this table only has "use row lock" ticked on its option rows are frequently updated by multiple transactions but are unique (e.g. probably a thousand or more update statements are executed to different unique rows every hour) the table does not use partitions. Upon checking the table on sys.tables, I found that the lock_escalation is set to TABLE I'm very tempted to turn the lock_escalation for this table to DISABLE but I'm not really sure what side effect this would incur. From What I understand, using DISABLE will minimize escalating locks to TABLE level which if combined with the row lock settings of the indexes should theoretically minimize the deadlocks I am encountering.. From what I have read in Determining threshold for lock escalation it seems that locking automatically escalates when a single transaction fetches 5000 rows.. What does a single transaction mean in this sense? A single session/connection getting 5000 rows thru individual update/select statements? Or is it a single sql update/select statement that fetches 5000 or more rows? Any insight is appreciated, btw, n00b DBA here Thanks

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  • When using a repository is it possible for a type to return a Func that the repository uses to test for existing entities?

    - by Scott Rickman
    For example given a Factory with a method public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t => t.Name == item.Name)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } how do I create a property of Base (say MustNotAlreadyExist) so that I can change the method above to public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t.MustNotAlreadyExist)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } public class Base { ... public virtual Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name); /* <- this clearly doesn't work */ } } and then how can I override MustNotAlreadyExist in Account : Base public class Account : Base { ... public override Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name && b.AccountCode == accountCode); /* <- this doesn't work */ } ... }

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  • Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

    - by user635524
    My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

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  • IIS redirect url for virtual directory

    - by Jouni
    Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

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  • java class that simulates a simple database table

    - by ericso
    I have a collection of heterogenous data that I pull from a database table mtable. Then, for every unique value uv in column A, I compute a function of (SELECT * FROM mtable WHERE A=uv). Then I do the same for column B, and column C. There are rather a lot of unique values, so I don't want to hit the db repeatedly - I would rather have a class that replicates some of the functionality (most importantly some version of SELECT WHERE). Additionally, I would like to abstract the column names away from the class definition, if that makes any sense - the constructor should take a list of names as a parameter, and also, I suppose, a list of types (right now this is just a String[], which seems hacky). I'm getting the initial data from a RowSet. I've more or less done this by using a hashmap that maps Strings to lists/arrays of Objects, but I keep getting bogged down in comparisons and types, and am thinking that my current implementation really isn't as clean and clear as it could be. I'm pretty new to java, also, and am not sure if I'm not going down a completely incorrect path. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • create variable from array actionscript 3

    - by steve
    I'm currently trying to make a dynamic menu via an array and a loop. So when someone clicks on the first item of the array, "menu_bag_mc" it will link to the content "menu_bag_mc_frame" (or some name that will be unique to this array) that is another movieclip that will load. Below is the code I have so far: //right here, i need to make a variable that I can put in the "addchild" so that //for every one of the list items clicked, it adds a movieclip child with //the same name (such as menu_bag_mc from above) with "_frame" appended. //I tried the next line out, but it doesn't really work. var framevar:MovieClip = menuList[i] += "_frame"; function createContent(event:MouseEvent):void { if(MovieClip(root).currentFrame == 850) { while(MovieClip(root).numChildren > 1) { MovieClip(root).removeChild(MovieClip(root).getChildAt(MovieClip(root).numChildren - 1)); } //Here is where the variable would go, to add a child directly related //to whichever array item was clicked (here, "framevar") MovieClip(root).addChild (framevar); MovieClip(root).addChild (closeBtn); } else { MovieClip(root).addChild (framevar); MovieClip(root).addChild (closeBtn); MovieClip(root).gotoAndPlay(806); } } Is there a way to make a unique variable (whatever it is) from the array so that I can name a movieclip after it so it will load the new movieclip? Thanks

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  • How to find next (by a single parameter) element in c++? (stl) [closed]

    - by user2136963
    I have n humans of THuman class Each human has scored some points in one of two rounds. (score1 and score2) Each human has its unique id. Score1 and 2 are also unique. Besides, a human has a score_t=score1+score2, which can be the same for two of them. I need to implement 6 variables to THuman which return id of a human with: bigger score1 smaller score1 bigger score2 smaller score2 bigger score_t smaller score_t (if there are many humans those satisfy theese conditions, the one with smallest difference of corresponding parameter should be chosen (like score1 for 1 and 2)) In other words, it's some kind of storing 3 human sortings. Two more functions I need should get argument x, set score1 or score 2 to x, and then refresh some of the 6 variables above. If I needed sorting by only one variable, I would simply create set and defined and < operators for my class. But what is the solution for three of parameters? Is it possible to use STL here, or I should create my own lists/treaps? __ Answer: How to update set of pointers c++?

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