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  • Client/Server communication via internet

    - by user957829
    Hi, Which is the best solution to communicate bidirectionally between a remote server and a client behind an internet box? UPnP with Sockets. HTTPS/Database Server and the client make 1 request every Xsec to know if there is new data. Client opens 1 connection on the server and it maintains open to make a tunnel. Thanks in advance for your help

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  • MYSQL/PHP: Inserting data via HTML form, same "input name"

    - by Camen
    I'm new to MySQL and as a learning project I'd like to make a recipe database. I'd like to the user to be able to enter ingredients through a simple HTML form but I'm stuck in how to label the form so that I can enter several ingredients into the database at once. I'd like to do something like this: <form method="post" action="insert.php"> Ingredient 1: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> Ingredient 2: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> Ingredient 3: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> When I do this, I add rows to the table but they're all empty. I know it's got something to do with me using "ingredient" (the table value where I want to add the ingredient name) several times in the form, but I just don't know how to solve it. I would absolutely love some input on how to make it work.

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  • displaying jpg image via jquery ajax call

    - by Sobek
    Hi, I want to show images that are requested from a binary field (blob) out of a mysql database. They are retrieved by a PHP script and outputs a 'real' jpeg image i.e. header('Content-Type') = 'image/jpeg'. This is working. But how can i intercept this image that is being made by an ajax call ?

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  • Loading HTML5 video on iPad via onclick event tied to a div

    - by joncys
    I'm developing an HTML5 application (a game), that automatically preloads 5 video files. I'm able to do so correctly on Safari for PC, so there are no overlooked problems with file formats, codecs or such. The load fails on an iPad. As an official guide for video on iOS puts it: This means the JavaScript play() and load() methods are also inactive until the user initiates playback, unless the play() or load() method is triggered by user action. In other words, a user-initiated Play button works, but an onLoad="play()" event does not. Does this mean, that I have no means to initiate the loading of video after a user initiated action, if that action hasn't been tied to a video element (user clicked on a regular div — I request loading and displaying of a video, compared to the user actually clicking on a video element to load and play that particular element)? Thanks for your help!

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  • Load ascx via jQuery

    - by Raika
    Is there a way to load ascx file by jQuery? UPDATE: thanks to @Emmett and @Yads.i am use the handler and the ajax: jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", //GET url: "Foo.ashx", data: '{}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { jQuery('#controlload').append(response.d); // or response }, error: function () { jQuery('#controlload').append('error'); } }); but i,m just getting an error. my ajax is wrong? Another Update : i am using error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { jQuery('#controlload').append(thrownError); } and this what i get : Invalid JSON: Test =(this test is label inside my ascx) and my ascx file after Error!!! Another Update : my ascx file is somthing like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddl" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true"> <asp:ListItem>1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server">Test</asp:Label> but when I call ajax i get this error in asp: :( Control 'ctl00_ddl' of type 'DropDownList' must be placed inside a form tag with runat=server.

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  • Evaluating creation of GUI via file vs coding

    - by nevets1219
    I'm working on a utility that will be used to test the project I'm currently working on. What the utility will do is allow user to provide various inputs and it will sends out requests and provide the response as output. However, at this point the exact format (which input is required and what is optional) has yet to be fleshed out. In addition, coding in Swing is somewhat repetitive since the overall work is simple though this should be the safest route to go as I have more or less full control and every component can be tweaked as I want. I'm considering using a configuration file that's in XML to describe the GUI (at least one part of it) and then coding the event handling part (in addition to validation, etc). The GUI itself shouldn't be too complicated. For each type of request to make there's a tab for the request and within each tab are various inputs. There seems to be quite a few questions about this already but I'm not asking for a 3rd party library to do this. I'm looking to do this myself, since I don't think it'll be too overly complicated (hopefully). My main consideration for using this is re-usability (later on, for other projects) and for simplifying the GUI work. My question is: are there other pros/cons that I'm overlooking? Is it worth the (unknown) time to do this? I've built GUI in VB.NET and with Flex3 before.

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  • Install the proper bitness Visual C++ Runtime Library via a Setup project

    - by chiru_valentin
    Hi all! The context: I have a solution that contains amongh other C# projects, a VC++ project that suports compiling only as x64 or Win32 (but not Any CPU). In order for the application (which in fact is a macro for a third party application) to run, it requires Visual C++ Runtime libraries (x86) or (x64) (The macro will run on both x64 and x86 operating systems.) The problem: I want to create a Visual Studio setup project that would install the macro on both x86 and x64 operating systems, and the problem I have is to specify what Visual C++ Runtime library to use a prerequisite. If both are selected (x64 and x86) than I have a runtime error message when running the setup.exe, as on x86 operating systems you cannot run x64 executables like the Visual C++ Runtime libraries (x64) kit is...(which the setup calls in the back). So I would need a bitness condition, or something like that to tell the setup what bitness version of the Visual C++ Runtime library to try to install...I'm not sure if this is possible, or even where such a code should be placed in the setup. Thank you for the support, Vali

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  • Write a serverside c++/openGL App, that is accessible via JavaScript

    - by moka
    Hi, I am currently having an idea where I want to save an image from a c++/openGL application on demand from a browser. So basically I would like to run the application itself on the server and have a simple communication layer like this: JS - tell application to do calculations (and maybe pass a string or some simple data) application - tell JS when finished and maybe send a link, text or something as simple as that. I don't really have alot of experience with webservers and as such don't know if that is possible at all (it's just my naive thinking). And note: I am not talking about a webGL application, I just want to have simple communication between a c++ serverside application, and the user. Any ideas how to do that? Thanks alot!

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  • jQuery - Save to SQL via PHP

    - by Kenny Bones
    This is probably easy for you guys, but I can't understand it. I want to save the filename of an image to it's own row in the SQL base. Basically, I log on to the site where I have my own userID. And each user has its own column for background images. And the user can choose his own image if he wants to. So basically, when the user clicks on the image he wants, a jquery click event occurs and an ajax call is made to a php file which is supposed to take care of the actual update. The row for each user always exist so there's only an update of the data that's necessary. First, I collect the filename of the css property 'background-image' and split it so I get only the filename. I then store that filename in a variable I call 'filename' which is then passed on to this jQuery snippet: $.ajax({ url: 'save_to_db.php', data: filename, dataType:'Text', type: 'POST', success: function(data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); And this is the php: <?php require("dbconnect.php") ?> <?php $uploadstring = ($_POST['filename']); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; mysql_close(); ?> Basically, each user has their own ID and this is called 'brukerID' The table everything is in is called 'brukere' and the column I'm supposed to update is the one called 'brukerBakgrunn' When I just run the javascript snippet, I get this message box in return where it says: Background changed to: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';' in /var/www/clients/client2/web8/web/save_to_db.php on line 8 I actualle get this messagebox twice, not sure why. Line 8 in 'save_to_db.php' is this one: mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; Not sure if you need to see db_connect.php as well. I can add that later if you need to see it. So what am I missing here?

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  • C# - Ensuring an assembly is called via a specified assembly

    - by Adam Driscoll
    Is there any built in functionality to determine if an assembly is being called from a particular assembly? I have assembly A which references assembly B. Assembly A exposes PowerShell cmdlets and outputs types that are found within B. Certain methods and properties with in types of exposed by B are of interest to types in assembly A but not of interest to consumers of PowerShell or anyone attempting to load types in B directly and call methods within it. I have looked into InternalsVisibleToAttribute but it would require extensive rework because of the use of interfaces. I was devising a shared key system that would later be obfuscated but that seemed clunky. Is there any way to ensure B is called only by A?

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  • Oracle Insert via Select from multiple tables where one table may not have a row

    - by Mikezx6r
    I have a number of code value tables that contain a code and a description with a Long id. I now want to create an entry for an Account Type that references a number of codes, so I have something like this: insert into account_type_standard (account_type_Standard_id, tax_status_id, recipient_id) ( select account_type_standard_seq.nextval, ts.tax_status_id, r.recipient_id from tax_status ts, recipient r where ts.tax_status_code = ? and r.recipient_code = ?) This retrieves the appropriate values from the tax_status and recipient tables if a match is found for their respective codes. Unfortunately, recipient_code is nullable, and therefore the ? substitution value could be null. Of course, the implicit join doesn't return a row, so a row doesn't get inserted into my table. I've tried using NVL on the ? and on the r.recipient_id. I've tried to force an outer join on the r.recipient_code = ? by adding (+), but it's not an explicit join, so Oracle still didn't add another row. Anyone know of a way of doing this? I can obviously modify the statement so that I do the lookup of the recipient_id externally, and have a ? instead of r.recipient_id, and don't select from the recipient table at all, but I'd prefer to do all this in 1 SQL statement.

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  • Adding a UIView to a UITableViewCell via cell.contentView

    - by Robert Eisinger
    I have a class called GraphView that extends UIView that basically draws a small little line chart. I need one of these graphs at the top of each section in my UITableView. So I tried by creating a separate cell at the top of one of my sections and then on that cell I did: [cell.contentView addSubview:graphView]; [graphView release]; But when I scroll down, it's like the graph is glitchy and it shows up in random spots along the UITableView. Anyone have ideas or insight? Is there a better way to incorporate another UIView into the top of each section in my UITableView?

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  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

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  • S3 browser upload via POST: unable to handle errors gracefully

    - by samf
    I am writing an app where I want the customer to be able to upload to Amazon S3 straight from the browser. I can make this work just fine. But when errors occur, I want to handle them more gracefully than splattering an XML document on the customer's screen. I have a scheme that I think would work, but it's failing. Here's what I'm trying: Create a form to do the upload, and store the form on S3 itself, in the same domain as the "action" attribute of the form. Redirect the customer to this form. Now their browser is sitting on https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/something. The page contains a hidden iframe. The form sets its target to the iframe. The load event handler looks at the contents of the iframe, and acts upon it. So, something like this: <iframe id="foo" name="foo" style="display: none" /> <form target="foo" action="https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/"> <input type="hidden" name="..." value="..." /> <input type="file" name="file" /> </form> with this javascript (using jquery): function handler() { var message = $("#foo").contents().find('message').text(); alert(message); } $("#foo").load(handler); Using firebug, I can see that the iframe contains an XML document, that contains a "message" node. However, the .find('message') always fails to find anything within the XML document. Notice that the action of the form has the same domain, port, and scheme as the document itself. So, I don't think that I should be running afoul of the same-origin policy. Right? But it fails every time. This is using Firefox and Google Chrome browsers. Thanks for any advice!

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  • 2D Engine scrolling on OpenGL via hardware?

    - by drudru
    hi, I'm using OpenGL as the bottom end for a 2D tiling engine. When everything is 2D, it is simple to optimize certain issues. For example, scrolling. If I know a certain section of the screen needs to scroll off the bottom, then I can just blit over that portion. I'm evening moving more than 1 pixel at a time. Without explicit hardware support (think old nintendo hw), this requires a lot of pixel writes. An on chip bitblt would be the next best thing. Essentially, I'm looking at how I can optimize my GL calls to use VRAM texture renders as efficient hardware blits. Is it possible to have GL scroll the framebuffer, or should I just resign myself to double-buffering and re-rendering an entire scene for each frame? Thx

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  • Accessing a drive on remote server via app.config

    - by user349134
    I am working on a website with a scheduled dataloader exe. The website lives on the web server and the dataloader lives on the DB server. One of the steps in the process is for the dataloader to access the WEB server (to copy/paste a maintenance page file..e.g.\192.168.1.101\c$\maintenance.htm). I am, not surprisingly, running into permissions issues because the dataloader needs to be able to login to the WEB server as an admin to copy the file. Is there a way I can set up logging in (something akin to impersonating a user through an App.config?) Thanks! -KC

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  • How do I retrieve twitter xml for Flash site via php properly

    - by daidai
    Am I using TwitterScript to retrieve Twitter data for inside a Flash site. Due to Twitter's crossdomain policy, I need to setup a php proxy... Firstly I made a simple one <?php $url = $_GET['url']; readfile($url); ?> but I then get this error URL file-access is disabled in the server configuration which is only resolved by getting my host to turn fopen() on, which I don't want to do. Then I found this <?php function get_content($url) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); ob_start(); curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); $string = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $string; } #usage: $url = $_GET['url']; $content = get_content ($url); var_dump ($content); ?> which solves that problem but the data now is the correct XML but looks like: string(39950) "<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <statuses type="array"> <status> ... </statuses>" How do I get the XML data out of that string?

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  • Retrieving my own data via FaceBook API

    - by goggin13
    I am building a website for a comedy group which uses Facebook as one of their marketing platforms; one of the requirements for the new site is to display all of their Facebook events on a calendar. Currently, I am just trying to put together a Python script which can pull some data from my own Facebook account, like a list of all my friends. I presume once I can accomplish this I can move to pulling more complicated data out of my clients account (since they have given me access to their account). I have looked at many of the posts here, and also went through the Facebook API documentation, including Facebook Connect, but am really beating my head against the wall. Everything I have read seems like overkill, as it involves setting up a good deal of infrastructure to allow my app to set up connections to any arbitrary user's account (who authorizes me). Shouldn't it be much simpler, given I only ever need to access 1 account? I cannot find a way to retrieve data without having to display the Facebook login window. I have a script which will retrieve all my friends, but it includes a redirect where I have to physically log myself in to Facebook. Would appreciate any advice or links, I just feel like I must be missing something simple. Thank you!

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  • Best practices: displaying text that was input via multi-line text box

    - by chris
    I have a multi-line text box. When users simply type away, the text box wraps the text, and it's saved as a single line. It's also possible that users may enter line breaks, for example when entering a "bulleted" lists like: Here are some suggestions: - fix this - remove that - and another thing Now, the problem occurs when I try to display the value of this field. In order to preserve the formatting, I currently wrap the presentation in <pre> - this works to preserve user-supplied breaks, but when there's a lot of text saved as a single line, it displays the whole text block as single line, resulting in horizontal scrolling being needed to see everything. Is there a graceful way to handle both of these cases?

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  • Adapting non-iterable containers to be iterated via custom templatized iterator

    - by DAldridge
    I have some classes, which for various reasons out of scope of this discussion, I cannot modify (irrelevant implementation details omitted): class Foo { /* ... irrelevant public interface ... */ }; class Bar { public: Foo& get_foo(size_t index) { /* whatever */ } size_t size_foo() { /* whatever */ } }; (There are many similar 'Foo' and 'Bar' classes I'm dealing with, and it's all generated code from elsewhere and stuff I don't want to subclass, etc.) [Edit: clarification - although there are many similar 'Foo' and 'Bar' classes, it is guaranteed that each "outer" class will have the getter and size methods. Only the getter method name and return type will differ for each "outer", based on whatever it's "inner" contained type is. So, if I have Baz which contains Quux instances, there will be Quux& Baz::get_quux(size_t index), and size_t Baz::size_quux().] Given the design of the Bar class, you cannot easily use it in STL algorithms (e.g. for_each, find_if, etc.), and must do imperative loops rather than taking a functional approach (reasons why I prefer the latter is also out of scope for this discussion): Bar b; size_t numFoo = b.size_foo(); for (int fooIdx = 0; fooIdx < numFoo; ++fooIdx) { Foo& f = b.get_foo(fooIdx); /* ... do stuff with 'f' ... */ } So... I've never created a custom iterator, and after reading various questions/answers on S.O. about iterator_traits and the like, I came up with this (currently half-baked) "solution": First, the custom iterator mechanism (NOTE: all uses of 'function' and 'bind' are from std::tr1 in MSVC9): // Iterator mechanism... template <typename TOuter, typename TInner> class ContainerIterator : public std::iterator<std::input_iterator_tag, TInner> { public: typedef function<TInner& (size_t)> func_type; ContainerIterator(const ContainerIterator& other) : mFunc(other.mFunc), mIndex(other.mIndex) {} ContainerIterator& operator++() { ++mIndex; return *this; } bool operator==(const ContainerIterator& other) { return ((mFunc.target<TOuter>() == other.mFunc.target<TOuter>()) && (mIndex == other.mIndex)); } bool operator!=(const ContainerIterator& other) { return !(*this == other); } TInner& operator*() { return mFunc(mIndex); } private: template<typename TOuter, typename TInner> friend class ContainerProxy; ContainerIterator(func_type func, size_t index = 0) : mFunc(func), mIndex(index) {} function<TInner& (size_t)> mFunc; size_t mIndex; }; Next, the mechanism by which I get valid iterators representing begin and end of the inner container: // Proxy(?) to the outer class instance, providing a way to get begin() and end() // iterators to the inner contained instances... template <typename TOuter, typename TInner> class ContainerProxy { public: typedef function<TInner& (size_t)> access_func_type; typedef function<size_t ()> size_func_type; typedef ContainerIterator<TOuter, TInner> iter_type; ContainerProxy(access_func_type accessFunc, size_func_type sizeFunc) : mAccessFunc(accessFunc), mSizeFunc(sizeFunc) {} iter_type begin() const { size_t numItems = mSizeFunc(); if (0 == numItems) return end(); else return ContainerIterator<TOuter, TInner>(mAccessFunc, 0); } iter_type end() const { size_t numItems = mSizeFunc(); return ContainerIterator<TOuter, TInner>(mAccessFunc, numItems); } private: access_func_type mAccessFunc; size_func_type mSizeFunc; }; I can use these classes in the following manner: // Sample function object for taking action on an LMX inner class instance yielded // by iteration... template <typename TInner> class SomeTInnerFunctor { public: void operator()(const TInner& inner) { /* ... whatever ... */ } }; // Example of iterating over an outer class instance's inner container... Bar b; /* assume populated which contained items ... */ ContainerProxy<Bar, Foo> bProxy( bind(&Bar::get_foo, b, _1), bind(&Bar::size_foo, b)); for_each(bProxy.begin(), bProxy.end(), SomeTInnerFunctor<Foo>()); Empirically, this solution functions correctly (minus any copy/paste or typos I may have introduced when editing the above for brevity). So, finally, the actual question: I don't like requiring the use of bind() and _1 placeholders, etcetera by the caller. All they really care about is: outer type, inner type, outer type's method to fetch inner instances, outer type's method to fetch count inner instances. Is there any way to "hide" the bind in the body of the template classes somehow? I've been unable to find a way to separately supply template parameters for the types and inner methods separately... Thanks! David

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