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• Realtime MySQL search results on an advanced search page

  - by Andrew Heath

  I'm a hobbyist, and started learning PHP last September solely to build a hobby website that I had always wished and dreamed another more competent person might make. I enjoy programming, but I have little free time and enjoy a wide range of other interests and activities. I feel learning PHP alone can probably allow me to create 98% of the desired features for my site, but that last 2% is awfully appealing: The most powerful tool of the site is an advanced search page that picks through a 1000+ record game scenario database. Users can data-mine to tremendous depths - this advanced page has upwards of 50 different potential variables. It's designed to allow the hardcore user to search on almost any possible combination of data in our database and it works well. Those who aren't interested in wading through the sea of options may use the Basic Search, which is comprised of the most popular parts of the Advanced search. Because the advanced search is so comprehensive, and because the database is rather small (less than 1,200 potential hits maximum), with each variable you choose to include the likelihood of getting any qualifying results at all drops dramatically. In my fantasy land where I can wield AJAX as if it were Excalibur, my users would have a realtime Total Results counter in the corner of their screen as they used this page, which would automatically update its query structure and report how many results will be displayed with the addition of each variable. In this way it would be effortless to know just how many variables are enough, and when you've gone and added one that zeroes out the results set. A somewhat similar implementation, at least visually, would be the Subtotal sidebar when building a new custom computer on IBuyPower.com For those of you actually still reading this, my question is really rather simple: Given the time & ability constraints outlined above, would I be able to learn just enough AJAX (or whatever) needed to pull this one feature off without too much trouble? would I be able to more or less drop-in a pre-written code snippet and tweak to fit? or should I consider opening my code up to a trusted & capable individual in the future for this implementation? (assuming I can find one...) Thank you.

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• C++ include statement required if defining a map in a headerfile.

  - by Justin

  I was doing a project for computer course on programming concepts. This project was to be completed in C++ using Object Oriented designs we learned throughout the course. Anyhow, I have two files symboltable.h and symboltable.cpp. I want to use a map as the data structure so I define it in the private section of the header file. I #include <map> in the cpp file before I #include "symboltable.h". I get several errors from the compiler (MS VS 2008 Pro) when I go to debug/run the program the first of which is: Error 1 error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'table' c:\users\jsmith\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\project2\project2\symboltable.h 22 Project2 To fix this I had to #include <map> in the header file, which to me seems strange. Here are the relevant code files: // symboltable.h #include <map> class SymbolTable { public: SymbolTable() {} void insert(string variable, double value); double lookUp(string variable); void init(); // Added as part of the spec given in the conference area. private: map<string, double> table; // Our container for variables and their values. }; and // symboltable.cpp #include <map> #include <string> #include <iostream> using namespace std; #include "symboltable.h" void SymbolTable::insert(string variable, double value) { table[variable] = value; // Creates a new map entry, if variable name already exist it overwrites last value. } double SymbolTable::lookUp(string variable) { if(table.find(variable) == table.end()) // Search for the variable, find() returns a position, if thats the end then we didnt find it. throw exception("Error: Uninitialized variable"); else return table[variable]; } void SymbolTable::init() { table.clear(); // Clears the map, removes all elements. }

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• nodejs async.waterfall method

  - by user1513388

  Update 2 Complete code listing var request = require('request'); var cache = require('memory-cache'); var async = require('async'); var server = '172.16.221.190' var user = 'admin' var password ='Passw0rd' var dn ='\\VE\\Policy\\Objects' var jsonpayload = {"Username": user, "Password": password} async.waterfall([ //Get the API Key function(callback){ request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/authorize/', json: jsonpayload, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { callback(null, body.APIKey); }) }, //List the credential objects function(apikey, callback){ var jsonpayload2 = {"ObjectDN": dn, "Recursive": true} request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/Config/enumerate?apikey=' + apikey, json: jsonpayload2, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { var dns = []; for (var i = 0; i < body.Objects.length; i++) { dns.push({'name': body.Objects[i].Name, 'dn': body.Objects[i].DN}) } callback(null, dns, apikey); }) }, function(dns, apikey, callback){ // console.log(dns) var cb = []; for (var i = 0; i < dns.length; i++) { //Retrieve the credential var jsonpayload3 = {"CredentialPath": dns[i].dn, "Pattern": null, "Recursive": false} console.log(dns[i].dn) request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/credentials/retrieve?apikey=' + apikey, json: jsonpayload3, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { // console.log(body) cb.push({'cl': body.Classname}) callback(null, cb, apikey); console.log(cb) }); } } ], function (err, result) { // console.log(result) // result now equals 'done' }); Update: I'm building a small application that needs to make multiple HTTP calls to a an external API and amalgamates the results into a single object or array. e.g. Connect to endpoint and get auth key - pass auth key to step 2 Connect to endpoint using auth key and get JSON results - create an object containing summary results and pass to step 3. Iterate over passed object summary results and call API for each item in the object to get detailed information for each summary line Create a single JSON data structure that contains the summary and detail information. The original question below outlines what I've tried so far! Original Question: Will the async.waterfall method support multiple callbacks? i.e. Iterate over an array thats passed from a previous item in the chain, then invoke multiple http requests each of which would have their own callbacks. e.g, sync.waterfall([ function(dns, key, callback){ var cb = []; for (var i = 0; i < dns.length; i++) { //Retrieve the credential var jsonpayload3 = {"Cred": dns[i].DN, "Pattern": null, "Recursive": false} console.log(dns[i].DN) request.post({uri: 'http://' + vedserver +'/api/cred/retrieve?apikey=' + key, json: jsonpayload3, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { console.log(body) cb.push({'cl': body.Classname}) callback(null, cb, key); }); } }

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• Where are the function literals c++?

  - by academicRobot

  First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 Preview 2 Route Request Not Working

  - by Kezzer

  Here's the error: The incoming request does not match any route. Basically I upgraded from Preview 1 to Preview 2 and got rid of a load of redundant stuff in relation to areas (as described by Phil Haack). It didn't work so I created a brand new project to check out how its dealt with in Preview 2. The file Default.aspx no longer exists which contains the following: public void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { // Change the current path so that the Routing handler can correctly interpret // the request, then restore the original path so that the OutputCache module // can correctly process the response (if caching is enabled). string originalPath = Request.Path; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(Request.ApplicationPath, false); IHttpHandler httpHandler = new MvcHttpHandler(); httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } The error I received points to the line httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); yet in newer projects none of this even exists. To test it, I quickly deleted Default.aspx but then absolutely nothing worked, I didn't even receive any errors. Here's some code extracts: Global.asax.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Routing; namespace Intranet { public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void App_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } } Notice the area registration as that's what I'm using. Routes.cs using System.Web.Mvc; namespace Intranet.Areas.Accounts { public class Routes : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Accounts"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute("Accounts_Default", "Accounts/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); } } } Check the latest docs for more info on this part. It's to register the area. The Routes.cs files are located in the root folder of each area. Cheers

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• Linux termios VTIME not working?

  - by San Jacinto

  We've been bashing our heads off of this one all morning. We've got some serial lines setup between an embedded linux device and an Ubuntu box. Our reads are getting screwed up because our code usually returns two (sometimes more, sometimes exactly one) message reads instead of one message read per actual message sent. Here is the code that opens the serial port. InterCharTime is set to 4. void COMBaseClass::OpenPort() { cerr<< "openning port"<< port <<"\n"; struct termios newtio; this->fd = -1; int fdTemp; fdTemp = open( port, O_RDWR | O_NOCTTY); if (fdTemp < 0) { portOpen = 0; cerr<<"problem openning "<< port <<". Retrying"<<endl; usleep(1000000); return; } newtio.c_cflag = BaudRate | CS8 | CLOCAL | CREAD ;//| StopBits; newtio.c_iflag = IGNPAR; newtio.c_oflag = 0; /* set input mode (non-canonical, no echo,...) */ newtio.c_lflag = 0; newtio.c_cc[VTIME] = InterCharTime; /* inter-character timer in .1 secs */ newtio.c_cc[VMIN] = readBufferSize; /* blocking read until 1 char received */ tcflush(fdTemp, TCIFLUSH); tcsetattr(fdTemp,TCSANOW,&newtio); this->fd = fdTemp; portOpen = 1; } The other end is configured similarly for communication, and has one small section of particular iterest: while (1) { sprintf(out, "\r\nHello world %lu", ++ulCount); puts(out); WritePort((BYTE *)out, strlen(out)+1); sleep(2); } //while Now, when I run a read thread on the receiving machine, "hello world" is usually broken up over a couple messages. Here is some sample output: 1: Hello 2: world 1 3: Hello 4: world 2 5: Hello 6: world 3 where number followed by a colon is one message recieved. Can you see any error we are making? Thank you. Edit: For clarity, please view section 3.2 of this resource href="http://www.faqs.org/docs/Linux-HOWTO/Serial-Programming-HOWTO.html. To my understanding, with a VTIME of a couple seconds (meaning vtime is set anywhere between 10 and 50, trial-and-error), and a VMIN of 1, there should be no reason that the message is broken up over two separate messages.

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• Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

  - by Darien

  Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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• This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

  - by Chuck

  Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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• Twisted + SQLAlchemy and the best way to do it.

  - by Khorkrak

  So I'm writing yet another Twisted based daemon. It'll have an xmlrpc interface as usual so I can easily communicate with it and have other processes interchange data with it as needed. This daemon needs to access a database. We've been using SQL Alchemy in place of hard coding SQL strings for our latest projects - those mostly done for web apps in Pylons. We'd like to do the same for this app and re-use library code that makes use of SQL Alchemy. So what to do? Well of course since that library was written for use in a Pylons app it's all the straight-forward blocking style code that everyone is accustomed to and all of the non-blocking is magically handled by Pylons via threading, thread locals, scoped sessions and so on. So now for Twisted I guess I'm a bit stuck. I could: Just write the sql I need directly if it's minimal and use the dbapi pool in twisted to do runInteractions etc when I need to hit the db. Use the objects and inherently blocking methods in our library and block now and then in my Twisted daemon. Bah. Use sAsync which was last updated in 2008 and kind of reuse the models we have defined already but not really and it does address code that needs to work in Pylons either. Does that even work with the latest version SQL Alchemy? Who knows. That project looked great though - why was it apparently abandoned? Spawn a separate subprocess and have it deal with the library code and all it's blocking, the results being returned back to my daemon when ready as objects marshalled via YAML over xmlrpc. Use deferToThread and then expunge the objects returned having made sure to do eager loads so that I have all my stuff that I might need. Seems kind of ugha to me. I'm also stuck using Python 2.5.4 atm so no 2.6 yet and I don't think I can just do an import from future to get access to the cool new multiprocessing module stuff in there. That's OK though I guess as we've got dealing with interprocess communication down pretty well. So I'm leaning towards option 4 mostly as that would avoid the mortal sin of logic duplication with option 1 while also staying the heck away from threads. Any better ideas?

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• Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

  - by Philip Daubmeier

  Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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• Converting this code from ASP to PHP

  - by jethomas

  I'll admit I'm a novice programmer and really the only experience I have is in classic ASP. I'm looking for a way to convert this asp code to PHP. For a customer who only has access to a linux box but also as a learning tool for me. Thanks in advance for the help: Recordset and Function: Function pd(n, totalDigits) if totalDigits > len(n) then pd = String(totalDigits-len(n),"0") & n else pd = n end if End Function 'declare the variables Dim Connection Dim Recordset Dim SQL Dim SQLDate SQLDate = Year(Date)& "-" & pd(Month(Date()),2)& "-" & pd(Day(Date()),2) 'declare the SQL statement that will query the database SQL = "SELECT * FROM tblXYZ WHERE element_8 = 2 AND element_9 > '" & SQLDate &"'" 'create an instance of the ADO connection and recordset objects Set Connection = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set Recordset = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") 'open the connection to the database Connection.Open "PROVIDER=MSDASQL;DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};SERVER=localhost;UID=xxxxx;PWD=xxxxx;database=xxxxx;Option=3;" 'Open the recordset object executing the SQL statement and return records Recordset.Open SQL,Connection Display page/loop: Dim counter counter = 0 While Not Recordset.EOF counter = counter + 1 response.write("<div><td width='200' valign='top' align='center'><a href='" & Recordset("element_6") & "' style='text-decoration: none;'><div id='ad_header'>" & Recordset("element_3") & "</div><div id='store_name' valign='bottom'>" & Recordset("element_5") & "</div><img id='photo-small-img' src='http://xyz.com/files/" & Recordset("element_7") & "' /><br /><div id='ad_details'>"& Recordset("element_4") & "</div></a></td></div>") Recordset.MoveNext If counter = 3 Then Response.Write("</tr><tr>") counter = 0 End If Wend

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• current page highlights on child pages

  - by user557318

  Im trying to achieve current page highlights on wordpress similar to this site Alex Soth. I'm very nearly there with my css. At present i have current page highlights on pages, ie. home,calendar, projects. However when it come to current page highlights on child pages i have a problem. the indented child page list appears on hover when selecting a child page, but after page selection the menu reverts back to the standard pages menu with no visible child menus? unlike the link to the Alex Soth site where the extended menu stays and current page is highlighted I know that the answer will be a simple piece of css involving current_page_item and possible position:relative to obtain the menu staying visible after selection. But i can for the life of me work it out. Any ideas Ive attached my relivant pieces of css below?? thanks /* =Link Styles ------------------------------------------------------------------*/ input#submit { cursor: pointer; } input#searchsubmit { background: url(images/search.png) no-repeat center; } input#searchsubmit:hover { background: url(images/search.png) no-repeat center #3399FF !important; cursor: pointer; } .navigation a:hover, input#submit { background: #3399FF; color: #3399FF !important; } a { color: #666; } a:hover, a:hover span { color: #c11501 !important;background-color: #fae100; } .entry sup a, #main_nav .current_page_item a, #main_nav .current_page_ancestor a { color: #666 !important; } #main_nav h1.masthead a { color: #666; } #main_nav h1.masthead a:hover { border-right: none; } h2 a, #main_nav a { color: #3399FF; } img a, img a:hover { text-decoration: none; } .post a, .navigation a { font-weight: bold; color: #000; } .navigation a { background: #EEE; color: #666; font-weight: normal; padding: 3px 0px; border-radius: 0px; -webkit-border-radius: 0px; -moz-border-radius: 0px; } .post sup { font-size: 11px; color: #aaa; } .post sup a { border: 0; margin: 0; font-weight: normal; font-size: 10px; } #supplementary .post_nav ul.about_nav li a, #supplementary .post_nav ul.single_post_meta a, #supplementary ul.contact_key li a { color: #888888; border-bottom: 0; } /* =Main Menu ------------------------------------------------------------------*/ #main_nav ul.menu li { position: relative; } #main_nav ul.menu li:hover ul.sub-menu, #main_nav ul.menu li:hover ul.children { display: block; }

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• Unable to find assembly, C#

  - by PlasmaCube

  So, here's the deal. I've got two ASP.NET applications, both of which use SQLServer Session State management. They also both use the same server. I've got a custom session class in an external DLL, which fully implements serialization, and which both applications have referenced. Each application, in turn, has a class which inherits from the DLL class, and both applications use their own respective classes for their session state. Now, what I was trying to accomplish was that if you wanted to go to the other application, it could look in the session (they all use the same session key) and treat the existing object there as the base (the one from the DLL), extract whatever login info you need, then overwrite the session object with your own. Unfortunately, when the second application attempts to read the session, it seems that it looks for the DLL of the first application, and when it can't find it, it throws an exception. Is there a flaw in my logic? Here's an example: // Global.asax of the 1st app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session.Add( "UserSessionKey", new FirstUserSession()); // FirstUserSession inherits from BaseUserSession } Now the second application: // Global.asax of 2nd app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Session["UserSessionKey"] != null) { BaseUserSession existing = (BaseUserSession)Session["UserSessionKey"]; SecondUserSession session = new SecondUserSession(); // This also inherits from BaseUserSession session.Authenticated = existing.Authenticated; session.Id = existing.Id; session.Role = existing.Role; Session.Add("UserSessionKey", session); } else { Session.Add("UserSessionKey", new SecondUserSession()); } } Here's the exception stack trace. In this case, "MyCBC" is the real name of the first app, and "ASPTesting" is the second app. [SerializationException: Unable to find assembly 'MyCBC, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.] System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryAssemblyInfo.GetAssembly() +1871092 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.GetType(BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, String name) +7545734 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap..ctor(String objectName, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +120 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap.Create(String name, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +52 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryObjectWithMapTyped record) +190 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryHeaderEnum binaryHeaderEnum) +61 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.Run() +253 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.Deserialize(HeaderHandler handler, __BinaryParser serParser, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +168 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.Deserialize(Stream serializationStream, HeaderHandler handler, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +203 System.Web.Util.AltSerialization.ReadValueFromStream(BinaryReader reader) +788 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.ReadValueFromStreamWithAssert() +55 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.DeserializeItem(String name, Boolean check) +281 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.get_Item(String name) +19 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionStateContainer.get_Item(String name) +13 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionState.get_Item(String name) +13 ASPTesting._Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Documents and Settings\sarsstu\My Documents\Projects\Testing\ASPTesting\ASPTesting\Default.aspx.cs:20 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +627 Thanks to everyone in advance.

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• A new MEF error I've not seen before -- "The export is not assignable to type..."

  - by Dave

  I was very surprised to get this error today, as it's one that I've never encountered before. Everything in the code looked okay, so I did some searches. The previous questions and their respective answers didn't help. This one was solved when the poster made sure his assembly references were consistent. I don't have this issue right now because I'm currently referencing another project in my solution. This one was solved when the poster was instructed to use ImportMany, but I am already using it (I think properly, too) to try to load multiple plugins This one was solved when the poster realized that there was a platform target mismatch. I've already gone through my projects to ensure that everything targets x86. So here's what I am trying to do. I have a plugin that owns a connection to a device. I might also need to be able to share that connection with another plugin. I decided that the cleanest way to do this was to create an interface that would allow the slave plugin to request its own connection to the device. Let's just call it IConnectionSharer. If the slave plugin does not need to borrow this connection and has its own, then it should use its own implementation of IConnectionSharer to connect to the device. My "master" plugin (the one that owns the connection to the device) implements IConnectionSharer. It also exports this via ExportAttribute. My "slave" plugin assembly defines a class that also implements and exports IConnectionSharer. When the application loads, the intent is for my slave plugin, via MEF, to enumerate all IConnectionSharers and store them in an IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer>. It does so like this: [ImportMany] public IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer> AllSharedConnections { get; set; } But during part composition, I get the error the export 'Company.MasterPlugin (ContractName="IConnectionSharer")' is not assignable to type 'IConnectionSharer'. The error message itself seems clear enough -- it's as if MEF thinks my master plugin doesn't inherit from IConnectionSharer... but it does! Can anyone suggest further debugging strategies? I'm going to start the painful process of single stepping through the MEF source.

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• C++ vector of strings, pointers to functions, and the resulting frustration.

  - by Kyle

  So I am a first year computer science student, for on of my final projects, I need to write a program that takes a vector of strings, and applies various functions to these. Unfortunately, I am really confused on how to use pointer to pass the vector from function to function. Below is some sample code to give an idea of what I am talking about. I also get an error message when I try to deference any pointer. thanks. #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <vector> #include <string> using namespace std; vector<string>::pointer function_1(vector<string>::pointer ptr); void function_2(vector<string>::pointer ptr); int main() { vector<string>::pointer ptr; vector<string> svector; ptr = &svector[0]; function_1(ptr); function_2(ptr); } vector<string>::pointer function_1(vector<string>::pointer ptr) { string line; for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { cout << "enter some input ! \n"; // i need to be able to pass a reference of the vector getline(cin, line); // through various functions, and have the results *ptr.pushback(line); // reflectedin main(). But I cannot use member functions } // of vector with a deferenced pointer. return(ptr); } void function_2(vector<string>::pointer ptr) { for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { cout << *ptr[i] << endl; } }

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• Directly Jump to another C++ function

  - by maligree

  I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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• Between-request Garbage Collection using Passenger

  - by raphaelcm

  We're using Rails 3.0.7 and REE 1.8.7. Long-term, we will be upgrading, but at the moment it's not feasible. Following the advice of several blog posts, we've been tuning our GC, and have settings that work pretty well. But we would really like to run GC outside of the request-response cycle. I've tried patching Passenger per this post, and using the code supplied in this SO question. In both cases, GC does indeed happen between requests. However, every time the between-request GC happens, I see a bunch of this: MONGODB [INFO] Connecting... MONGODB admin['$cmd'].find({:ismaster=>1}).limit(-1) MONGODB admin['$cmd'].find({:ismaster=>1}).limit(-1) MONGODB admin['$cmd'].find({:ismaster=>1}).limit(-1) Starting the New Relic Agent. Installed New Relic Browser Monitoring middleware SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES RefinerySetting Load (0.0ms) SELECT `refinery_settings`.* FROM `refinery_settings` WHERE `refinery_settings`.`scoping` = 'pages' AND `refinery_settings`.`name` = 'use_marketable_urls' LIMIT 1 SQL (0.0ms) BEGIN RefinerySetting Load (0.0ms) SELECT `refinery_settings`.* FROM `refinery_settings` WHERE `refinery_settings`.`id` = 1 LIMIT 1 AREL (0.0ms) UPDATE `refinery_settings` SET `value` = '--- \"false\"\n', `callback_proc_as_string` = NULL WHERE `refinery_settings`.`id` = 1 SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES RefinerySetting Load (0.0ms) SELECT `refinery_settings`.* FROM `refinery_settings` SQL (0.0ms) COMMIT SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES RefinerySetting Load (4.0ms) SELECT `refinery_settings`.* FROM `refinery_settings` WHERE `refinery_settings`.`scoping` IS NULL AND `refinery_settings`.`name` = 'user_image_sizes' LIMIT 1 SQL (0.0ms) BEGIN RefinerySetting Load (0.0ms) SELECT `refinery_settings`.* FROM `refinery_settings` WHERE `refinery_settings`.`id` = 17 LIMIT 1 AREL (0.0ms) UPDATE `refinery_settings` SET `value` = '--- \n:small: 120x120>\n:medium: 280x280>\n:large: 580x580>\n', `callback_proc_as_string` = NULL WHERE `refinery_settings`.`id` = 17 SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES RefinerySetting Load (0.0ms) SELECT `refinery_settings`.* FROM `refinery_settings` SQL (0.0ms) COMMIT ******** Engine Extend: app/helpers/blog_posts_helper SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (4.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES ******** Engine Extend: app/models/user SQL (0.0ms) describe `roles_users` SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (4.0ms) describe `roles_users` SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (4.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES SQL (0.0ms) SHOW TABLES (etc, etc, etc) Which is what happens when rails "loads the world" when the app starts up. Basically, GC.start is re-loading the app for some reason. Because of this, between-request GC is much slower than inline GC. Is there a way around this? I would love to have snappy, between-request GC if possible. Thanks.

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• JList with JScrollPane and prototype cell value wraps element names (replaces with dots instead of s

  - by Tom

  I've got a Jlist inside a JScrollPane and I've set a prototype value so that it doesn't have to calculate the width for big lists, but just uses this default width. Now, the problem is that the Jlist is for some reason replacing the end of an element with dots (...) so that a horizontal scrollbar will never be shown. How do I disable with "wrapping"? So that long elements are not being replaced with dots if they are wider than the Jlist's width? I've reproduced the issue in a small example application. Please run it if you don't understand what I mean: import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; public class Test { //window private static final int windowWidth = 450; private static final int windowHeight = 500; //components private JFrame frame; private JList classesList; private DefaultListModel classesListModel; public Test() { load(); } private void load() { //create window frame = new JFrame("Test"); frame.setSize(windowWidth, windowHeight); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setUndecorated(true); frame.getRootPane().setWindowDecorationStyle(JRootPane.PLAIN_DIALOG); //classes list classesListModel = new DefaultListModel(); classesList = new JList(classesListModel); classesList.setPrototypeCellValue("prototype value"); classesList.setSelectionMode(ListSelectionModel.SINGLE_SELECTION); classesList.setVisibleRowCount(20); JScrollPane scrollClasses = new JScrollPane(classesList, JScrollPane.VERTICAL_SCROLLBAR_AS_NEEDED, JScrollPane.HORIZONTAL_SCROLLBAR_AS_NEEDED); for (int i = 0; i < 200; i++) { classesListModel.addElement("this is a long string, does not fit in width"); } //panel JPanel drawingArea = new JPanel(); drawingArea.setBackground(Color.white); drawingArea.add(scrollClasses); frame.add(drawingArea); //set visible frame.setVisible(true); } } Even if you force horizontal scrollbar, you still won't be able to scroll because the element is actually not wider than the width because of the dot (...) wrapping. Thanks in advance.

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• How can I run an android frame animation without it skewing?

  - by GameDev123

  I have a small state machine that runs a series of frame by frame animations in an ImageView, in a nested hierarchy of layouts. There is more than adequate space to display each frame of the animation. Each frame of the animation is cropped to fit the minimum amount of area, in order to save memory. If a frame only contains 50x50 worth of pixels then the png is 50x50. There is no transparent padding to keep them the same size. The ImageView is directly within a RelativeLayout, and is anchored to the bottom left with some padding. The general idea being that the character in the animation performs some action, which results in individual frames of the animation growing or shrinking. The issue is that individual frames of animation are skewed, and there does not appear to be any way of preventing this. If I set the source of the imageview directly to one of the frames of animation, it displays fine in the layout manager. I have tried this with Adjust View Bounds set to true, false, and undefined. I have tried using the background and the src attribute of imageview to set the animation drawable, I have tried every configuration of layout manager and setting minimum/maximum size that I can think of, and it still stretches the character on various frames depending on the size of the source png. In essence, all I want to do is say "I want this ImageView to anchor in the bottom left and then display any frame that happens to be in it without stretching or skewing it in any way aside from that which occurred when the frame png's were loaded." Seems simple, but I have yet to come across any way of doing it. Here is the layout of the imageview as of my last test, I had to remove bits of the XML to get it to display but nothing pertinent: RelativeLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_above="@+id/MenuOptions" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:id="@+id/AnimationLayout" android:clipChildren="false" android:minHeight="180dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/GameBarLayout" ImageView android:id="@+id/animatedImg" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:visibility="visible" android:baselineAlignBottom="true" android:minHeight="180dp" android:minWidth="200dp" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:paddingLeft="30dp" android:paddingBottom="10dp" android:src="@drawable/idle01"/ImageView /RelativeLayout Here is how an animation is set up: animationDrawable = new AnimationDrawable(); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle01), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle02), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle03), 16);

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• jQuery replacing an image inside a .net datalist

  - by user359409

  (submit said I was trying to post an image so I've changed image everywhere to ix I am trying to get jQuery to replace an ix inside a datalist. The original ix is the thumbnail ix of a product on a category page. The small ix I am clicking on are swatch ix for the different colors of a product. I can get it to work using a div tag around the ix tag inside the ItemTemplate. I don't need to use a div tag if I can get the imagesx to swap- I was just using it because that is sample code I found and it works for the first product in the category. <asp:HyperLink ID="ProductNav" runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%#Eval("NavigateUrl") %>'> <div id="ladiv" runat="server"> <asp:Ixx runat="server" ID="ProdThumb" /> </div> </asp:HyperLink> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="phSwatches" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> The ProdThumb ix is added from the code behind and the swatches are added from the code behind swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<table><tr>")); foreach(OptionChoice optionChoice in option.Choices) { string swatchThumbnail = string.Format("<ix ID=\"{0}\" src=\"{1}\" border=\"0\" class=\"{2}\" />","swatch" + optionChoice.OptionChoiceId.ToString(), ResolveUrl(optionChoice.ThumbnailUrl),"imgthumb"); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<td>")); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(swatchThumbnail)); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</td>")); } swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</tr></table>")); prodThumb.IxUrl = product.ThumbnailUrl; prodThumb.AlternateText = product.ThumbnailAltText; prodThumb.CssClass = "Thumbnail"; The jQuery is: $(function() { $("ix.imgthumb").click(function(e) { var t = $(this); var newImg = ''; $('#ladiv') .html($(newImg) ); }); }); </script> Both images are named similar, except the swatch contains "sws" and the larger one is the some only with "swl". I have spent several days searching but am not able to get it to work. If I try something like $("#<%=ladiv.ClientID %") the code can't find it. I appreciate any help.

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• How do I add "Press any key to boot from usb" when installing Windows from a flash drive? (Grub4dos question / how to remove a bootloader)

  - by Vincent

  Hi there! I've been struggling with this problem for a while now and finially decided to ask for help. Let me first explain what the main purpose of the app is: to provide the a very easy to use way of backing up files, after which I format the drive and start Windows 7 setup. I do this by booting WinPE, which runs a script to detect Windows installations and then opens a file browser. After the file browser is closed, the script continues and formats the drive that contains the Windows installation, and starts an unattended Windows 7 install. Now here is the problem: When you start Windows setup or WinPE from a dvd, you get a nice option to "Press any key to boot from DVD". This is to prevent the computer from booting the DVD when the first phase of the installation is complete and the computer reboots. However, when booting from a flash drive, Windows does not provide this option: it simply boots the flash drive every reboot. To replicate the "press any key" function, I installed Grub4Dos, which works great. It provides a small menu, the first standard item being "Continue installation", the second being "start installation". After quite a lot of tweaking, I got everything working: Start installation starts WinPE, which in turn starts the Windows installation. At first reboot, the Grub4Dos menu comes up, counts 5 seconds and boots the second stage of the installation. Here, I am greeted with the error: "Windows setup could not configure windows to run on this computer's hardware." When I boot into WinPE the normal way (put the bootmgr on the stick root) and change my bios to boot from the primary hdd after first reboot, I don't get this error. I've been looking around, and the only thing I could find was that the BIOS automatically names the boot device hd0, and that Windows can only be run / installed to hd 0. I'm not sure if this is the problem. I read about remapping to solve this problem, but to do that you have to know the phisical location of the hard drive and partition, like hd(0,1). I want this flash drive to work on any PC, regardless of where the OS is installed, so that's not really a possibility. A possible fix I thought of is removing the bootloader from the flash drive when I'm in WinPE. That way, when the pc reboots the BIOS will not see the flash drive as a boot drive and instead boot the primary hdd. I have yet to find a way to do this. Thank you for reading my question, and if you have any suggestion, please do.

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• Add console.profile statements to JavaScript/jQuery code on the fly.

  - by novogeek

  Hi folks, We have a thick client app using jQuery heavily and want to profile the performance of the code using firebug's console.profile API. The problem is, I don't want to change the code to write the profile statements. Take this example: var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); instance.ajax(); I want to profile my instance.ajax method, but I dont want to add profile statements in the code, as that makes it difficult to maintain the code. I'm trying to override the methods using closures, like this: http://www.novogeek.com/post/2010/02/27/Overriding-jQueryJavaScript-functions-using-closures.aspx but am not very sure how I can achieve. Any pointers on this? I think this would help many big projects to profile the code easily without a big change in code. Here is the idea. Just run the below code in firebug console, to know what I'm trying to achieve. var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); $.each(instance, function(functionName, functionBody){ (function(){ var dup=functionBody functionBody=function(){ console.log('modifying the old function: ',functionName); console.profile(functionName); dup.apply(this,arguments); console.profileEnd(functionName); } })(); console.log(functionName, '::', functionBody()); }); Now what I need is, if i say instance.ajax(), I want the new ajax() method to be called, along with the console.profile statements. Hope I'm clear with the requirement. Please improvise the above code. Regards, Krishna, http://www.novogeek.com

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• add limited product to cart in android

  - by user1859172

  I have to develop one shopping cart app. Here i have to add the product only 5.otherwise have to display the message on alert dialog like 5 products only allowed. How can i develop this.please help me This is my code: ImageButton mImgAddCart = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.img_add); mImgAddCart.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub mTitle = txttitle.getText().toString(); mCost = text_cost_code.getText().toString(); mCost = mCost.replace("From ", ""); mTotal = txt_total.getText().toString(); mTotal = mTotal.replace("From ", ""); mQty = edit_qty_code.getText().toString(); if (Constants.mItem_Detail.size() <= 0) { HashMap<String, String> mTempObj = new HashMap<String, String>(); mTempObj.put(KEY_TITLE, mTitle); mTempObj.put(KEY_QTY, mQty); mTempObj.put(KEY_COST, mCost); mTempObj.put(KEY_TOTAL, mTotal); Constants.mItem_Detail.add(mTempObj); } else { for (int i = 0; i < Constants.mItem_Detail.size(); i++) { if (Constants.mItem_Detail.get(i).get(KEY_TITLE) .equals(mTitle)) { Constants.mItem_Detail.remove(i); break; } else { } } HashMap<String, String> mTempObj = new HashMap<String, String>(); mTempObj.put(KEY_TITLE, mTitle); mTempObj.put(KEY_QTY, mQty); mTempObj.put(KEY_COST, mCost); mTempObj.put(KEY_TOTAL, mTotal); Constants.mItem_Detail.add(mTempObj); } AlertDialog.Builder alertdialog = new AlertDialog.Builder( Small.this); alertdialog.setTitle(getResources() .getString(R.string.app_name)); alertdialog.setMessage("Add in ViewCart"); alertdialog.setPositiveButton("OK", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub finish(); } }); alertdialog.show(); } }); How can i set the condition for this.please give me one idea.

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• Domain-Driven-Design question

  - by Michael

  Hello everyone, I have a question about DDD. I'm building a application to learn DDD and I have a question about layering. I have an application that works like this: UI layer calls = Application Layer - Domain Layer - Database Here is a small example of how the code looks: //****************UI LAYER************************ //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory. //This factory would be in the MyApp.Infrastructure.dll IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); //Interface and implementation for Shopping Cart service would be in MyApp.ApplicationLayer.dll IShoppingCartService service = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartService>(); //This is the UI layer, //Calling into Application Layer //to get the shopping cart for a user. //Interface for IShoppingCart would be in MyApp.ApplicationLayer.dll //and implementation for IShoppingCart would be in MyApp.Model. IShoppingCart shoppingCart = service.GetShoppingCartByUserName(userName); //Show shopping cart information. //For example, items bought, price, taxes..etc ... //Pressed Purchase button, so even for when //button is pressed. //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory again. IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); IShoppingCartService service = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartService>(); service.Purchase(shoppingCart); //**********************Application Layer********************** public class ShoppingCartService : IShoppingCartService { public IShoppingCart GetShoppingCartByUserName(string userName) { //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory. //This factory would be in the MyApp.Infrastructure.dll IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); //Interface for repository would be in MyApp.Infrastructure.dll //but implementation would by in MyApp.Model.dll IShoppingCartRepository repository = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartRepository>(); IShoppingCart shoppingCart = repository.GetShoppingCartByUserName(username); //Do shopping cart logic like calculating taxes and stuff //I would put these in services but not sure? ... return shoppingCart; } public void Purchase(IShoppingCart shoppingCart) { //Do Purchase logic and calling out to repository ... } } I've seem to put most of my business rules in services rather than the models and I'm not sure if this is correct? Also, i'm not completely sure if I have the laying correct? Do I have the right pieces in the correct place? Also should my models leave my domain model? In general I'm I doing this correct according DDD? Thanks!

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• Suggest an alternative way to organize/build a database solution.

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  We are using Visual Studio 2010, but this was first conceived with VS2003. I will forward the best suggestions to my team. The current setup almost makes me vomit. It is a C# solution with most projects containing .sql files. Because we support Microsoft, Oracle, and Sybase, and so home-brewed a pre-processor, much like C preprocessor, except that substitutions are performed by a home-brewed C# program without using yacc and tools like that. #ifdefs are used for conditional macro definitions, and yeah - macros are the way this is done. A macro can expand to another macro or two, but this should eventually terminate. Only macros have #ifdef in them - the rest of the SQL-like code just uses these macros. Now, the various configurations: Debug, MNDebug, MNRelease, Release, SQL_APPLY_ALL, SQL_APPLY_MSFT, SQL_APPLY_ORACLE, SQL_APPLY_SYBASE, SQL_BUILD_OUTPUT_ALL, SQL_COMPILE, as well as 2 more. Also: Any CPU, Mixed Platforms, Win32. What drives me nuts is having to configure it correctly as well as choosing the right one out of 12 x 3 = 36 configurations as well as having to substitute database name depending on the type of database: config, main, or gateway. I am thinking that configuration should be reduced to just Debug, Release, and SQL_APPLY. Also, using 0, 1, and 2 seems so 80s ... Finally, I think my intention to build or not to build 3 types of databases for 3 types of vendors should be configured with just a tic tac toe board like: XOX OOX XXX In this case it would mean build MSFT+CONFIG, all SYBASE, and all GATEWAY. Still, the overall thing which uses a text file and a pre-processor and many configurations seems incredibly clunky. It is year 2010 now and someone out there is bound to have a very clean and/or creative tool/solution. The only pro would be that the existing collection of macros has been well tested. Have you ever had to write SQL that would work for several vendors? How did you do it? SqlVars.txt (Every one of 30 users makes a copy of a template and modifies this to suit their needs): // This is the default parameters file and should not be changed. // You can overwrite any of these parameters by copying the appropriate // section to override into SqlVars.txt and providing your own information. //Build types are 0-Config, 1-Main, 2-Gateway BUILD_TYPE=1 REMOVE_COMMENTS=1 // Login information used when applying to a Microsoft SQL server database SQL_APPLY_MSFT_version=SQL2005 SQL_APPLY_MSFT_database=msftdb SQL_APPLY_MSFT_server=ABC SQL_APPLY_MSFT_user=msftusr SQL_APPLY_MSFT_password=msftpwd // Login information used when applying to an Oracle database SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_version=ORACLE10g SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_server=oradb SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_user=orausr SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_password=orapwd // Login information used when applying to a Sybase database SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_version=SYBASE125 SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_database=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_server=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_user=sybusr SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_password=sybpwd ... (THIS GOES ON)

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