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  • categorize a set of phrases into a set of similar phrases

    - by Dingo
    I have a few apps that generate textual tracing information (logs) to log files. The tracing information is the typical printf() style - i.e. there are a lot of log entries that are similar (same format argument to printf), but differ where the format string had parameters. What would be an algorithm (url, books, articles, ...) that will allow me to analyze the log entries and categorize them into several bins/containers, where each bin has one associated format? Essentially, what I would like is to transform the raw log entries into (formatA, arg0 ... argN) instances, where formatA is shared among many log entries. The formatA does not have to be the exact format used to generate the entry (even more so if this makes the algo simpler). Most of the literature and web-info I found deals with exact matching, a max substring matching, or a k-difference (with k known/fixed ahead of time). Also, it focuses on matching a pair of (long) strings, or a single bin output (one match among all input). My case is somewhat different, since I have to discover what represents a (good-enough) match (generally a sequence of discontinuous strings), and then categorize each input entries to one of the discovered matches. Lastly, I'm not looking for a perfect algorithm, but something simple/easy to maintain. Thanks!

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  • Detecting Singularities in a Graph

    - by nasufara
    I am creating a graphing calculator in Java as a project for my programming class. There are two main components to this calculator: the graph itself, which draws the line(s), and the equation evaluator, which takes in an equation as a String and... well, evaluates it. To create the line, I create a Path2D.Double instance, and loop through the points on the line. To do this, I calculate as many points as the graph is wide (e.g. if the graph itself is 500px wide, I calculate 500 points), and then scale it to the window of the graph. Now, this works perfectly for most any line. However, it does not when dealing with singularities. If, when calculating points, the graph encounters a domain error (such as 1/0), the graph closes the shape in the Path2D.Double instance and starts a new line, so that the line looks mathematically correct. Example: However, because of the way it scales, sometimes it is rendered correctly, sometimes it isn't. When it isn't, the actual asymptotic line is shown, because within those 500 points, it skipped over x = 2.0 in the equation 1 / (x-2), and only did x = 1.98 and x = 2.04, which are perfectly valid in that equation. Example: In that case, I increased the window on the left and right one unit each. My question is: Is there a way to deal with singularities using this method of scaling so that the resulting line looks mathematically correct? I myself have thought of implementing a binary search-esque method, where, if it finds that it calculates one point, and then the next point is wildly far away from the last point, it searches in between those points for a domain error. I had trouble figuring out how to make it work in practice, however. Thank you for any help you may give!

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  • Putting BigDecimal data into HSQLDB test database using DbUnit

    - by Denise
    Hi everyone, I'm using Hibernate JPA in my backend. I am writing a unit test using JUnit and DBUnit to insert a set of data into an in-memory HSQL database. My dataset contains: <order_line order_line_id="1" quantity="2" discount_price="0.3"/> Which maps to an OrderLine Java object where the discount_price column is defined as: @Column(name = "discount_price", precision = 12, scale = 2) private BigDecimal discountPrice; However, when I run my test case and assert that the discount price returned equals 0.3, the assertion fails and says that the stored value is 0. If I change the discount_price in the dataset to be 0.9, it rounds up to 1. I've checked to make sure HSQLDB isn't doing the rounding and it definitely isn't because I can insert an order line object using Java code with a value like 5.3 and it works fine. To me, it seems like DBUtils is for some reason rounding the number I've defined. Is there a way I can force this to not happen? Can anyone explain why it might be doing this? Thanks!

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  • What's wrong with debugging in Eclipse on Android?

    - by Sebastian Dwornik
    I've obviously been spoiled by Visual Studio, because although I'm just learning Android and the Eclipse environment, debugging apps in Eclipse is becoming a serious detriment to further development. For example, Eclipse will compile this divide by zero just fine: public class Lesson2Main extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate (savedInstanceState); int i = 1 / 0; TextView tv = new TextView (this); tv.setText ("Hello, Android!"); setContentView (tv); } } And then, when it executes it under the debugger, I will get a full screen of useless debug info, non of which actually points me to the specific line containing the error. The stackTrace is null within the exception ('e') info tree, and it simply states a message stating 'ArithmeticException'. (that's nice, how about you point me in the direction of where you found it!?) I've looked all over the screen and am baffled that this IDE can't get this right. Does developing with Eclipse resort everyone back to 1991 with printf() like logging at every interval then to track down bugs? Seriously. Is there a configuration or plug-in that I'm missing to help with this? I haven't tested this case with XCode, but if the iPhone dev. IDE handles this more like Visual Studio, then no wonder the Android marketplace has so few apps. I'm excited about Android, but it seems that Eclipse is getting in the way.

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  • Design problem with callback functions in android

    - by Franz Xaver
    Hi folks! I'm currently developing an app in android that is accessing wifi values, that is, the application needs to scan for all access point and their specific signal strengths. I know that I have to extend the class BroadcastReceiver overwriting the method BroadcastReceiver.onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) which is called when the values are ready. Perhaps there exist solutions provided by the android system itself but I'm relatively new to android so I could need some help. The problem I encountered is that I got one class (an activity, thus controlled by the user) that needs this scan results for two different things (first to save the values in a database or second, to use them for further calculations but not both at one moment!) So how to design the callback system in order to "transport" the scan results from onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) to the operation intended by the user? My first solution was to define enums for each use case (save or use for calculations) which wlan-interested classes have to submit when querying for the values. But that would force the BroadcastReceiverextending class to save the current enum and use it as a parameter in the callback function of the querying class (this querying class needs to know what it asked for when getting backcalled) But that seems to me kind of dirty ;) So anyone a good idea for this?

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  • Null reference exception While Navigating to PlayListItem.

    - by Subhen
    Hi, I am trying to play the selected media from PlayList,if the selected index is not zero as below: if (playList.Items.Count == 0) { setPlayList(); if (selectedIndex!= 0) { if(custMediaElement.Playlist!=null) custMediaElement.GoToPlaylistItem(selectedIndex); } } The setPlayLIst method is as below: private void setPlayList() { IEnumerable eLevelData = pMainPage.GetDataFromDictonary(pMainPage.strChildFolderID); foreach (RMSMedia folderItems in eLevelData) { string strmediaURL = folderItems.strMediaFileName; string strmediaExtension = GetExtension(strmediaURL); if (strmediaExtension == "wmv" || strmediaExtension == "mp4" || strmediaExtension == "mp3" || strmediaExtension == "mpg") { PlaylistItem playListItem = new PlaylistItem(); string thumbSource = folderItems.strAlbumcoverImage; playListItem.MediaSource = new Uri(strmediaURL, UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); playListItem.Title = folderItems.strAlbumName; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(thumbSource)) playListItem.ThumbSource = new Uri(thumbSource, UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); playList.Items.Add(playListItem); } } custMediaElement.Playlist = playList; } But I am getting a Null reference Exception while trying to go to PlayList Item with the help of selected index , as explained in top. This works fine if I don't use custMediaElement.GoToPlaylistItem(selectedIndex); but in that case the Media Player Always plays the 1st Item , No matter , Which ever Song I select from the List Box. Below is few details from Stack Trace: ExpressionMediaPlayer.MediaPlayer.DoOpenPlaylistItem(PlaylistItem playlistItem) at ExpressionMediaPlayer.MediaPlayer.GoToPlaylistItem(Int32 playlistItemIndex) Thanks, Subhen

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  • What is the Difference between GC.GetTotalMemory(false) and GC.GetTotalMemory(true)

    - by somaraj
    Hi, Could some one tell me the difference between GC.GetTotalMemory(false) and GC.GetTotalMemory(true); I have a small program and when i compared the results the first loop gives an put put < loop count 0 Diff = 32 for GC.GetTotalMemory(true); and < loop count 0 Diff = 0 for GC.GetTotalMemory(false); but shouldnt it be the otherway ? Smilarly rest of the loops prints some numbers ,which are different for both case. what does this number indicate .why is it changing as the loop increase. struct Address { public string Streat; } class Details { public string Name ; public Address address = new Address(); } class emp :IDisposable { public Details objb = new Details(); bool disposed = false; #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Disposing(true); } void Disposing(bool disposing) { if (!disposed) disposed = disposing; objb = null; GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { long size1 = GC.GetTotalMemory(false); emp empobj = null; for (int i = 0; i < 200;i++ ) { // using (empobj = new emp()) //------- (1) { empobj = new emp(); //------- (2) empobj.objb.Name = "ssssssssssssssssss"; empobj.objb.address.Streat = "asdfasdfasdfasdf"; } long size2 = GC.GetTotalMemory(false); Console.WriteLine( "loop count " +i + " Diff = " +(size2-size1)); } } } }

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  • Is there a way to make changes to toggles in my .emacs file apply without re-starting Emacs?

    - by Vivi
    I want to be able to make the changes to my .emacs file without having to reload Emacs. I found three questions which sort of answer what I am asking (you can find them here, here and here), but the problem is that the change I have just made is to a toggle, and as the comments to two of the answers (a1, a2) to those questions explain, the solutions given there (such as M-x reload-file or M-x eval-buffer) don't apply to toggles. I imagine there is a way of toggling the variable again with a command, but if there is a way to reload the whole .emacs and have the all the toggles re-evaluated without having to specify them, I would prefer. In any case, I would also appreciate if someone told me how to toggle the value of a variable so that if I just changed one toggle I can do it with a command rather than re-start Emacs just for that (I am new to Emacs). I don't know how useful this information is, but the change I applied was the following (which I got from this answer to another question): (setq skeleton-pair t) (setq skeleton-pair-on-word t) (global-set-key (kbd "[") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "(") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "{") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "<") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) Edit: I included the above in .emacs and reloaded Emacs, so that the changes took effect. Then I commented all of it out and tried M-x load-file. This doesn't work. The suggestion below (C-x C-e by PP works if I am using it to evaluate the toggle first time, but not when I want to undo it). I would like something that would evaluate the commenting out, if such thing exists... Thanks :)

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  • Performance question: Inverting an array of pointers in-place vs array of values

    - by Anders
    The background for asking this question is that I am solving a linearized equation system (Ax=b), where A is a matrix (typically of dimension less than 100x100) and x and b are vectors. I am using a direct method, meaning that I first invert A, then find the solution by x=A^(-1)b. This step is repated in an iterative process until convergence. The way I'm doing it now, using a matrix library (MTL4): For every iteration I copy all coeffiecients of A (values) in to the matrix object, then invert. This the easiest and safest option. Using an array of pointers instead: For my particular case, the coefficients of A happen to be updated between each iteration. These coefficients are stored in different variables (some are arrays, some are not). Would there be a potential for performance gain if I set up A as an array containing pointers to these coefficient variables, then inverting A in-place? The nice thing about the last option is that once I have set up the pointers in A before the first iteration, I would not need to copy any values between successive iterations. The values which are pointed to in A would automatically be updated between iterations. So the performance question boils down to this, as I see it: - The matrix inversion process takes roughly the same amount of time, assuming de-referencing of pointers is non-expensive. - The array of pointers does not need the extra memory for matrix A containing values. - The array of pointers option does not have to copy all NxN values of A between each iteration. - The values that are pointed to the array of pointers option are generally NOT ordered in memory. Hopefully, all values lie relatively close in memory, but *A[0][1] is generally not next to *A[0][0] etc. Any comments to this? Will the last remark affect performance negatively, thus weighing up for the positive performance effects?

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  • Where should you put 3rd party .NET dlls when using git submodules to avoid duplication

    - by Tim Abell
    I have two .NET library projects in Visual Studio 2008 that both make use of the MySql Connector for .NET (MySql.Data.dll). These libraries are then in turn both used by a .NET command line application which also uses the Connector. The library projects are pulled in to the application's solution as git submodules and referenced by project in Visual Studio. I'm looking for the most effective strategy for storing and referencing the MySql Connector library. I have tried having the MySql.Data.dll checked in to all three projects (in their root folder), this was problematic when one project changed to a newer version of the connector dll. Although each project had its own version of the dll, only one was packaged into the resultant application leading to an API mismatch which was hard to pin down. This has put me off this approach. I have tried having the command line application reference the connector dll that is held in a submodule, however this only removes the possibility of version mismatches when there is only one submodule rather than two as in this case. I am contemplating putting the dll in the global assembly cache (GAC) of all machines that need to build or use the application, but I'm wary of not having all dependencies for an application available in source control.

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  • Making a query result equal to zero when a condition is null

    - by John
    Hello, I believe the query below should work. However, when I run it, the results are blank. I think this is happening since for now, the table "comment" is empty. So there is no instance where s.submissionid = c.submissionid. I would like to have the query below to work even if there if no s.submissionid that equals a c.submissionid. In this case, I would like countComments to equal zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.submissionid s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username, count(c.comment) AS countComments FROM submission AS s, login AS l, comment AS c, WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid AND s.submissionid = c.submissionid GROUP BY s.loginid, s.submissionid s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • Link click does nothing after ajax switching?

    - by Neil
    An odd case I'm trying to figure out here. I'm trying to design a mailbox system, and making some of the options ajax-y. Here's the scenario: We have a page with 2 tabs, inbox and compose. Inbox is a essentially a list of links of the form mailbox.php?msg=xxx. Clicking on the inbox or compose tabs does an ajax switch. So, let's say we're on an message page: mailbox.php?msg=123 I click on "compose" - it ajax switches to a compose form. I change my mind, click on "inbox" - it goes back to a list of messages. Note, the url has not changed at this point (all has been done through ajax). I click on the same message as before. It should go back into that message. However, nothing happens! The url it should go to (mailbox.php?msg=123) IS the url showing in the address bar, but, due to the earlier ajax activity, it's showing the inbox. Thoughts on how to resolve this? And, out of curiosity, an explanation? Normally, clicking on a link that takes you to a page you're already on will reload the page. Thanks!

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  • Assign a unique client ID to each <rich:dataTable /> row?

    - by Dolph Mathews
    I'm relatively new to working with the UI in Seam, so I'm hoping there is something simple I can replace the three instances of UNIQUE_ID with in the following example (such as #{object.uniqueId}). The goal is to have a <rich:dataTable /> wherein each row has the ability to show/hide a <rich:modalPanel /> with more details about the particular object instance. <rich:dataTable var="object" value="#{bean.myObject}"> <rich:column> <h:outputText value="#{object.summary}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <a onclick="Richfaces.showModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Show Details in ModalPanel</a> <a4j:form> <rich:modalPanel id="UNIQUE_ID" > <a onclick="Richfaces.hideModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Hide This ModalPanel</a> <h:outputText value="#{object.details}" /> </rich:modalPanel> </a4j:form> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> If I only had one link/modalPanel pair, this would obviously be trivial, but I don't know what to do within the scope of the <rich:dataTable />'s iteration. Also, in case it complicates things further, the page will also contain many <rich:dataTable />'s, each implementing this behavior.

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  • ASP.NET MVC View ReRenders Part of Itself

    - by Jason
    In all my years of .NET programming I have not run across a bug as weird as this one. I discovered the problem because some elements on the page were getting double-bound by jQuery. After some (ridiculous) debugging, I finally discovered that once the view is completely done rendering itself and all its children partial views, it goes back to an arbitrary yet consistent location and re-renders itself. I have been pulling my hair out about this for two days now and I simply cannot get it to render itself only once! For lack of any better debugging idea, I've painstakingly added logging tracers throughout the HTML just so I can pin down what may be causing this. For instance, this code ($log just logs to the console): ... <script type="text/javascript">var x = 0; $log('1');</script> <div id="new-ad-form"> <script type="text/javascript">x++;$log('1.5', x);</script> ... will yield ... <--- this happens before this snippet 1 1.5 1 ... 10 <--- bottom of my form, after snippet 1.5 2 <--- beginning of part that runs again! ... 9 <--- this happens after this snippet I've searched my codebase high and low, but there is NOTHING that says that it should re-render part of a page. I'm wondering if the jQueryUI has anything to do with it, as #new-ad-form is the container for a jQueryUI dialog box. If this is potentially the case, here's my init code for that: $('#new-ad-form').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, width: 470, title: 'Create A New Ad', position: ['center', 35], close: AdEditor.reset });

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  • UI Automation Button Style Enabled

    - by Victor Gaspar
    Hi, I'm evaluating UI Automation for UI testing for that I have a WPF application with the following button defined: <Button Style="{DynamicResource ButtonStyle}" x:Name="MyBtn"/> when I need to visually disable the button I just change the style so the user is aware that the button is disabled (the colour changed) but still the button is internally enabled so I can still launch the OnClick event in order to show a message when the user clicks on a "disabled" button. Now the problem is that I don't know how to check from UI Automation the Style that its currently applied i.e. if the button is disabled or enabled. Do you know how can I do that? In a normal situation I should do something like that: Automation.Condition cEBtn = new PropertyCondition(AutomationElement.AutomationIdProperty, "MyBtn"); AutomationElement mybtnElement = appRegraceElement.FindFirst(TreeScope.Children, cEBtn); bool disMyBtn = (bool)mybtnElement .GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.IsEnabledProperty); but in my case the button is always enabled therefore I need to check the Style applied to the button. Thank you very much. Best regards

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  • error C3662: override specifier 'new' only allowed on member functions of managed classes

    - by William
    Okay, so I'm trying to override a function in a parent class, and getting some errors. here's a test case #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A{ public: int aba; void printAba(); }; class B: public A{ public: void printAba() new; }; void A::printAba(){ cout << "aba1" << endl; } void B::printAba() new{ cout << "aba2" << endl; } int main(){ A a = B(); a.printAba(); return 0; } And here's the errors I'm getting: Error 1 error C3662: 'B::printAba' : override specifier 'new' only allowed on member functions of managed classes c:\users\test\test\test.cpp 12 test Error 2 error C2723: 'B::printAba' : 'new' storage-class specifier illegal on function definition c:\users\test\test\test.cpp 19 test How the heck do I do this?

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  • Printing out this week's dates in perl

    - by ABach
    Hi folks, I have the following loop to calculate the dates of the current week and print them out. It works, but I am swimming in the amount of date/time possibilities in perl and want to get your opinion on whether there is a better way. Here's the code I've written: #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use DateTime; # Calculate numeric value of today and the # target day (Monday = 1, Sunday = 7); the # target, in this case, is Monday, since that's # when I want the week to start my $today_dt = DateTime->now; my $today = $today_dt->day_of_week; my $target = 1; # Create DateTime copies to act as the "bookends" # for the date range my ($start, $end) = ($today_dt->clone(), $today_dt->clone()); if ($today == $target) { # If today is the target, "start" is already set; # we simply need to set the end date $end->add( days => 6 ); } else { # Otherwise, we calculate the Monday preceeding today # and the Sunday following today my $delta = ($target - $today + 7) % 7; $start->add( days => $delta - 7 ); $end->add( days => $delta - 1 ); } # I clone the DateTime object again because, for some reason, # I'm wary of using $start directly... my $cur_date = $start->clone(); while ($cur_date <= $end) { my $date_ymd = $cur_date->ymd; print "$date_ymd\n"; $cur_date->add( days => 1 ); } As mentioned, this works - but is it the quickest/most efficient/etc.? I'm guessing that quickness and efficiency may not necessarily go together, but your feedback is very appreciated.

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  • casting Collection<SomeClass> to Collection<SomeSuperClass>

    - by skrebbel
    Hi all, I'm sure this has been answered before, but I really cannot find it. I have a java class SomeClass and an abstract class SomeSuperClass. SomeClass extends SomeSuperClass. Another abstract method has a method that returns a Collection<SomeSuperClass>. In an implementation class, I have a Collection<SomeClass> myCollection I understand that I cannot just return myCollection, because Collection<SomeClass> does not inherit from Collection<SomeSuperClass>. Nevertheless, I know that everything in myCollection is a SomeSuperClass because after all, they're SomeClass objects which extend SomeSuperClass. How can I make this work? I.e. I want public class A { private Collection<SomeClass> myCollection; public Collection<SomeSuperClass> getCollection() { return myCollection; //compile error! } } The only way I've found is casting via a non-generic type and getting unchecked warnings and whatnot. There must be a more elegant way, though? I feel that also using Collections.checkedSet() and friends are not needed, since it is statically certain that the returned collection only contains SomeClass objects (this would not be the case when downcasting instead of upcasting, but that's not what I'm doing). What am I missing? Thanks!

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  • How to automatically read in calculated values with PHPExcel?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have the following Excel file: I read it in by looping over every cell and getting the value with getCell(...)->getValue(): $highestColumnAsLetters = $this->objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0)->getHighestColumn(); //e.g. 'AK' $highestRowNumber = $this->objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0)->getHighestRow(); $highestColumnAsLetters++; for ($row = 1; $row < $highestRowNumber + 1; $row++) { $dataset = array(); for ($columnAsLetters = 'A'; $columnAsLetters != $highestColumnAsLetters; $columnAsLetters++) { $dataset[] = $this->objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0)->getCell($columnAsLetters.$row)->getValue(); if ($row == 1) { $this->column_names[] = $columnAsLetters; } } $this->datasets[] = $dataset; } However, although it reads in the data fine, it reads in the calculations literally: I understand from discussions like this one that I can use getCalculatedValue() for calculated cells. The problem is that in the Excel sheets I am importing, I do not know beforehand which cells are calculated and which are not. Is there a way for me to read in the value of a cell in a way that automatically gets the value if it has a simple value and gets the result of the calculation if it is a calculation? Answer: It turns out that getCalculatedValue() works for all cells, makes me wonder why this isn't the default for getValue() since I would think one would usually want the value of the calculations instead of the equations themselves, in any case this works: ...->getCell($columnAsLetters.$row)->getCalculatedValue();

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  • Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • Domain Transfer Protection - need advice

    - by Jack
    Hey, I am about to purchase a domain name for a bit of money. I do not personally know the person who I am purchasing the domain name from, we have only chatted via email. The proposed process for the transfer is: The owner of the domain lowest the domain name security and emails me the domain password, I request the transfer After the request, I transfer the money via PayPal When the money has been cleared the current domain name owner confirms the transfer via the link that he receives in that email I wait for it to be transferred. The domain is currently registered with DirectNIC - http://www.directnic.com/ Is this the best practice? Seeing I am paying a bit of money for this domain name, I am worried that after the money has been cleared that I won't see the domain name or hear from the current domain name owner again. Is there a 'domain governing body' which I can report to if this is the case? Is the proposed transfer process the best solution? Any advice would be awesome. Thanks! Jack

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  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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  • Complete failure to compile when include CSS Friendly Adapters

    - by david
    Background - I am trying to use the friendly adapters to override the default styling for the standard asp.net menu control that is used by an existing project. The existing project functions normally and compiles when requested without incident. Adding in the code for the for the CSS Friendly adapter and not only does it not compile, but it never even really starts. The Problem in Detail - I am using the sample code from Scott on this page: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2006/09/08/CSS-Control-Adapter-Toolkit-Update.aspx. The sample project compiles fine, just within the existing project does it fail. Fails without a line number or any other traceable info. It definately appears to be related to the CSSMenuAdapter.browser file, which has been referenced by others online as the cause of similar error. I have tried addind and readding, using as a dll, using as a code file in app code, etc. I am working with aspdotnetstorefront in this case, although it is not unique to them as I have found other references in software packages online. Only thing is, no one ever says what solved the issue. I am using Windows 7, VS2008 Express and SQL Express 2008 R2. The full error msg is: Error 10 Exception of type 'System.OutOfMemoryException' was thrown. Notice that there is no file, line, or column info. Really need some help here. I have been working on this a long time. This really should have tag: cssfriendlyadapter but I could not create that.

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  • Saving HttpResponse/Request to file system

    - by chrisjlong
    Here is my scenario. User fills out this large page which is dynamically created based off DB values. Those values can change. When the user fills out the page and hits submit we want to save a copy of the page as html on the server, this way if the text or wording changes, when they go back to view their posted information, it is historically accurate. So I basically need to do this protected void buttonSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //collect information into an object to save it in the db bool result = BusinessLogic.Save(myBusinessObject); if (result) //!!! Here is where I need to save this page as an html file on my servers IFS!!!! else //whatever Response.Redirect("~/SomeOtherPage.aspx"); } Any help is greatly apprciated. Also I CANNOT just request the data from the url because query string parameters are a big no no in this case. The key to pull the database info up (at its highest level) is all in session so I cant just request a url and save it. Thanks!

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  • How to Store State in Silverlight WCF RIA Services

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am developing a silverlight 3 application using WCF RIA services. I am using the AuthenticationBase class to handle my authentication. As I understand it under the hood this uses the ASP .NET authentication libraries. When I log into the site the authentication service handles login state so that if I close the site and open it straight away I am still logged in according to the server. When the webpage is refreshed or closed and reloaded I can call the method, WebContextBase.Current.Authentication.LoadUser() And it goes back to the authentication service (running on the server) and figures out whether I am still logged into the site. If a timeout has occured the answer will be no. If that is the case I can show a login dialog. The problem I want to solve is that the authentication service consumes the password, and there is no way I can ever retrieve that password again. If the user logs into the site I want to store the password on the server, and return a token to the client side to match up with that password. I have some other services on the server side that need that password. So where should I store that password on the server? How can that be done? How does the WCF authentication store state?

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