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  • How do I refer to a windows form control by name (C# / VB)

    - by Alex
    Suppose I have a label control on a windows form called "UserName". How can I refer to that label programmatically using the label name? For example I can do: For each ctrl as Control in TabPage.Controls If ctrl.Name = "UserName" Then ' Do something End If Next This seems quite inefficient. I would like to do something like: TabPage.Controls("UserName").Text = "Something" I did some googling but couldn't find a satisfactory answer. Most suggested looping, some said .NET 2005 doesn't support direct refenece using string name, and FindControl method was asp.net only... EDIT Thanks for the response so far. Here is a bit more detail. I have a windows form with three tabpages, all of which a very similar in design and function i.e. same drop down menus, labels, react in simlar way to events etc. Rather than write code for each event per tabpage I have built a class that controls the events etc. per tabpage. For example, on each tabpage there is a Label called "RecordCounter" that simply shows the number of rows in the datagridview when it is populated by selection of a variable in a drop down menu. So what I want to be able to do is, upon selection of a variable in the drop down menu, the datagridview populates itself with data, and then I simply want to display the number of rows in a label ("RecordCounter"). This is exactly the same process on each tabpage so what I am doing is passing the tabpage to the class and then I want to be able to refer to the "RecordCounter" and then update it. In my class I set the ActivePage property to be the TabPage that the user has selected and then want to be able to do something like: ActivePage.RecordCounter.Text = GetNumberOfRows()

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  • Trial vs free with limited functionality

    - by Morten K
    Hi everyone, Not a programming question as such, but a bit more business oriented question about software product development. We have just released a small app, and is offering a free, fully functional trial which lasts for 15 days. I have the gut feeling however, that to reach any kind of penetration on the web, we'd need to offer a version which is free forever, but then has a few limitations in terms of functionality (still quite usable, but not full-throttle). For example, the Roboform browser plugin is somewhat similar in purpose to ours. Not functionality wise, but it's basically a little util that saves time and removes some repetitive-action pain. They offer a free version with limitations and then a pro version for around 30 USD. Roboform has gotten very much attention over the years, and I can't help to think that this is because they have a product which is obviously good, but also free, thus adoption becomes much higher than if they had only offered a 15 day trial. I am wondering if any of you have experience in a similar scenario? Or any thoughts on the two models? Again, I know it's not directly programming related, but it's still a question I feel best answered by a community of developers.

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  • [Rails] checkbox to update attribute

    - by Jeff
    [Updated a bit] I have a Task model that has a :completed boolean attribute. If I click on it I want it to execute the 'finish' method. The main problem is that I am displays a series of checkboxes in a list and subsequent checkboxes after the first one are ignored. The method is never called for the given task/checkbox combo. I have this chunk of code in my view: <% current_user.tasks.each do |t|%> <% if t.completed == false %> <%= check_box_tag :completed, true, checked = false %> <%= observe_field :completed, :url => { :controller => 'tasks', :action => :finish , :id => t.id }, :frequency => 0.25, :update => :completed, :with => true %> and my finish method looks like this: def finish @task = Task.find(params[:id]) new = {:completed => true} @task.update_attributes(new) render :update do |page| page.replace_html "taskListing", :partial => 'home/task_listing' end

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  • (Weak) ETags and Last-Modified

    - by Kai Moritz
    As far as I understand the specs, the ETag, which was introduced in RFC 2616 (HTTP/1.1) is a predecessor of the Last-Modified-Header, which is proposet to give the software-architect more controll over the cache-revalidating process. If both Cache-Validation-Headers (If-None-Match and If-Modified-Since) are present, according to RFC 2616, the client (i.e. the browser) should use the ETag when checking, if a resource has changed. According to section 14.26 of RFC 2616, the server MUST NOT respond with a 304 Not Modified, if the ETag presented in a If-None-Match-Header has changed, and the server has to ignore an additional If-Modified-Since-Header, if present. If the presented ETag matches, he MUST NOT perform the request, unless the Date in the Last-Modified-Header says so. (If the presented ETag matches, the server should respond with a 304 Not Modified in case of a GET- or HEAD-request...) This section leaves room for some speculations: A strong ETag is supposed to change ''everytime'', the resource changes. So, having to responde with something else as 304 Not Modified to a request with an unchanged ETag and an If-Modified-Since-Header, which dose not match is a bit of a contradiction, because the strong ETag says, that the resource was not modified. (Though, this is not that fatal, because the server can send the same unchanged resource again.) ... ... o.k. While I was writing this, the question was boiling down to this answer: The (small) contradiction stated above, was made because of Weak ETags. A resource marked with a Weak ETag may have changed, although the ETag has not. So, in case of a Weak ETag it would be wrong, to answer with 304 Not Modified, when the ETag has not changed, but the date presented in the If-Modified-Since does not match, right?

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  • What is this: main:for(...){...} doing?

    - by David Murdoch
    I pulled up the NWmatcher source code for some light morning reading and noticed this odd bit of code I'd never seen in javascript before: main:for(/*irrelevant loop stuff*/){/*...*/} This snippet can be found in the compileGroup method on line 441 (nwmatcher-1.1.1) return new Function('c,s,d,h', 'var k,e,r,n,C,N,T,X=0,x=0;main:for(k=0,r=[];e=N=c[k];k++){' + SKIP_COMMENTS + source + '}return r;' ); Now I figured out what main: is doing on my own. If you have a loop within a loop and want to skip to the next iteration of the outer loop (without completing the inner OR the outer loop) you can execute continue main. Example: // This is obviously not the optimal way to find primes... function getPrimes(max) { var primes = [2], //seed sqrt = Math.sqrt, i = 3, j, s; outer: for (; i <= max; s = sqrt(i += 2)) { j = 3; while (j <= s) { if (i % j === 0) { // if we get here j += 2 and primes.push(i) are // not executed for the current iteration of i continue outer; } j += 2; } primes.push(i); } return primes; } What is this called? Are there any browsers that don't support it? Are there other uses for it other than continue?

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  • Dynamically disable custom (VBA) Excel context menu buttons?

    - by Lopsided
    The Scenario Hi guys, I am about to add a few custom controls to the cell context menu in my Excel workbook using the instructions found on this MSDN page. The only problem I am having is that I need the items to only be enabled for a specific column/range of cells. I've looked around, and I've been unable to find any steps for this--there are some for VSTO development (written in C#), but that is not what I need. I plan to write this using the VBA IDE built into Office, and perhaps a bit of XML using the Custom UI Editor. The Question So basically, I'm looking for a way to run a function at the time the context menu is called (i.e., upon right-click) that validates the selection to make sure it is in the appropriate column. If it isn't, I would like my custom buttons to be greyed out. P.S. Please don't think I am asking you to write my code. Creating these buttons should be very simple, as I have created many before (albeit they were all Ribbon items), and I hope it is okay to ask for some quick assistance on this very specific issue. Thank you in advance!

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  • Code Analysis Warning CA1004 with generic method

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following generic method: // Load an object from the disk public static T DeserializeObject<T>(String filename) where T : class { XmlSerializer xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); try { TextReader textReader = new StreamReader(filename); var result = (T)xmlSerializer.Deserialize(textReader); textReader.Close(); return result; } catch (FileNotFoundException) { } return null; } When I compile I get the following warning: CA1004 : Microsoft.Design : Consider a design where 'MiscHelpers.DeserializeObject(string)' doesn't require explicit type parameter 'T' in any call to it. I have considered this and I don't know a way to do what it requests with out limiting the types that can be deserialized. I freely admit that I might be missing an easy way to fix this. But if I am not, then is my only recourse to suppress this warning? I have a clean project with no warnings or messages. I would like to keep it that way. I guess I am asking "why this is a warning?" At best this seems like it should be a message. And even that seems a bit much. Either it can or it can't be fixed. If it can't then you are just stuck with the warning with no recourse but suppressing it. Am I wrong?

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  • Best way to use Google's hosted jQuery, but fall back to my hosted library on Google fail

    - by Nosredna
    What would be a good way to attempt to load the hosted jQuery at Google (or other Google hosted libs), but load my copy of jQuery if the Google attempt fails? I'm not saying Google is flaky. There are cases where the Google copy is blocked (apparently in Iran, for instance). Would I set up a timer and check for the jQuery object? What would be the danger of both copies coming through? Not really looking for answers like "just use the Google one" or "just use your own." I understand those arguments. I also understand that the user is likely to have the Google version cached. I'm thinking about fallbacks for the cloud in general. Edit: This part added... Since Google suggests using google.load to load the ajax libraries, and it performs a callback when done, I'm wondering if that's the key to serializing this problem. I know it sounds a bit crazy. I'm just trying to figure out if it can be done in a reliable way or not. Update: jQuery now hosted on Microsoft's CDN. http://www.asp.net/ajax/cdn/

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  • Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

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  • How to marshal an object and its content (also objects)

    - by Waldo Spek
    I have a question for which I suspect the answer is a bit complex. At this moment I am programming a DLL (class library) in C#. This DLL uses a 3rd party library and therefore deals with 3rd party objects of which I do not have the source code. Now I am planning to create another DLL, which is going to be used in a later stadium in my application. This second DLL should use the 3rd party objects (with corresponding object states) created by the first DLL. Luckily the 3rd party objects extend the MarshalByRefObject class. I can marshal the objects using System.Runtime.Remoting.Marshal(...). I then serialize the objects using a BinaryFormatter and store the objects as a byte[] array. All goes well. I can deserialize and unmarshal in a the opposite way and end up with my original 3rd party objects...so it appears... Nevertheless, when calling methods on my 3rd party deserialized objects I get object internal exceptions. Normally these methods return other 3rd party objects, but (obviously - I guess) now these objects are missing because they weren't serialized. Now my global question: how would I go about marshalling/serializing all the objects which my 3rd party objects reference...and cascade down the "reference tree" to obtain a full and complete serialized object? Right now my guess is to preprocess: obtain all the objects and build my own custom object and serialize it. But I'm hoping there is some other way...

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  • Calling a non-activeX DLL in a VB6 application in Vista/Win7

    - by user1490330
    I have a VB6 app that utilizes a non-activeX DLL (non-registering). It's declared via the classic Public Declare Function "Function Name" Lib "Library.DLL" syntax. On my dev machine (XP) it works fine but when I deploy to Vista or Win7 I'm constantly greeted with a Run Time Error 48 - File Not Found for the DLL in question. I have tried copying that DLL to every directory I can think of including every environment path on the test machine and the app path too. These are all 32-bit test environments so it's not a SysWow64 issue. Possibly throwing a wrench into the mix is the fact that the application in question is an Outlook COM Addin. I managed to install VB6 on Win7 and was able to run a tiny sample app that utilizes this DLL (outside of the Outlook process) so I know it works PROVIDED the DLL is located in App path. If I call App.Path from my DLL when I run it on the test environment it shows, to no surprise, my installation directory however the DLL is there. I tried turning off UAC. I tried making the App.Path directory permissions open to everyone, still no dice.

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  • getting text that will be displayed to user from html

    - by gordatron
    Bit of a random one, i am wanting to have a play with some NLP stuff and I would like to: Get all the text that will be displayed to the user in a browser from HTML. My ideal output would not have any tags in it and would only have fullstops (and any other punctuation used) and new line characters, though i can tolerate a fairly reasonable amount of failure in this (random other stuff ending up in output). If there was a way of inserting a newline or full stop in situations where the content was likely not to continue on then that would be considered an added bonus. e.g: items in an ul or option tag could be separated by full stops (or to be honest just ignored). I am working Java, but would be interested in seeing any code that does this. I can (and will if required) come up with something to do this, just wondered if there was anything out there like this already, as it would probably be better than what I come up with in an afternoon ;-). An example of the code I might write if I do end up doing this would be to use a SAX parser to find content in p tags, strip it of any span or strong etc tags, and add a full stop if I hit a div or another p without having had a fullstop. Any pointers or suggestions very welcome.

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  • What's the best approach for getting into VS2010, C# 4, and WPF if my background is in C++/MFC

    - by Canacourse
    All my past programming experience has been in C++ on VS2003/8, Mostly service based and completely self taught. 2 Years ago I had to create my first real GUI app and (Foolishly) choose MFC. I got the app working but it took a long time & was a bit of a nightmare to learn MCF (and its many shortcomings) but I ended up with a reliable workable app which was difficult to change or extend. Again I have to create another GUI app more complex than the first and again this will be created from scratch and will only ever be used on windows. I had put off learning C# for a long time but not wishing to re-visit MFC have decided that the new application with be birthed in VS2010 and WPF 4 will be the midwife. Trying to avoid the several expensive (Time wise) mistakes I made previously. Im looking for for good books/tutorials on the current versions of C# 4 & WPF 4 and also general advice on the best approach. The application will do several things one of them would persisting info in a SQL DB. So Im thinking LINQ for that? Please chip in...

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  • svg mouseup event not fired in IE9, unless the debugger is open

    - by Roberto Lupi
    I am using d3 to build a simple chart that the user can edit interactively with the mouse. It works on in all modern common browser (Chrome, Firefox, Safari), except for Internet Explorer 9 where I can start to drag an item but I never get the mouseup event. The strangest bit is that, if I open the debugger, the page works percetly on Internet Explorer 9 as well. My code looks like this: item.append("svg:circle") .attr("class", "handle") .attr("opacity",0.5) .attr("stroke","gray") .attr("cx", bx(0.5)-bx(0)) .attr("r", 10) .style("cursor", "crosshair") .style("pointer-events", "all") .call(d3.behavior.drag() .on("dragstart", function() { dragTarget = d3.select(this); }) .on("drag", function() { this.parentNode.appendChild(this); // put us on the front, not really needed var dragTarget = d3.select(this); dragTarget .attr("cy", function() { return d3.event.dy + parseInt(dragTarget.attr("cy"))}); }) .on("dragend", function(d, i) { newY = parseInt(d3.select(this).attr("cy")); newValue = y.invert(newY); var serieNo = this.__data__.serieNo; console.log([serieNo+1,i+1]); data[serieNo+1][i+1] = newValue; updateBarChart(); onchange(); }) );

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  • Setting "submit"

    - by user361626
    Driving me a bit nuts this one, have tried alsorts of combination's... At the top of my file I have PHP Code: if (!ISSET ($_POST['submit'])) which tests if the submit has been hit, if not displays the form.... What I'd like to be able to to is generate a link that would be processed directly by the php code that the form would normally be submitted to... (does that make sense ?) so a generated link in the code looks like .. PHP Code: echo '<a href="index.php?submit&s_type=' . $s_type . '&d_height=' . $d_height . '&j_ref=' . $j_ref . '&j_name=' . j_name . '">' . $j_ref . '</a>'; The link generated looks like .. HTML Code: index.php?s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name I have tried setting "submit" with links like HTML Code: index.php?submit=submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name index.php?submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name How do I create a link that sets "submit so it gets processed rather than going through the form ???

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  • Help with AJAX, Using PHP and hiding elements.

    - by ryan
    Hey, This is my first time with AJAX, so I'm a bit confused and need your help. I have four div id's and want to toggle hide/show between them based on result from database. Sounds simple, eh! But it is hard to implement for me. HELP!. This is my code - <div id="1">HEya</div> <div id="2">What's up?</div> <input type="submit" id='approve' name="action" value="Approve" onclick="a()" class="approve" /> <input type="submit" id='reject' value="Reject" name="action" onclick="r()" class="reject"/> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> //if cookie exists, at the beginning the form should be hidden if (<?php $responseanswer['response']=='approve'; ?> ){ document.getElementById('1').style.display = 'none'; document.getElementById('2').style.display = 'inline'; } //if user clicks reject, hide one element dislay another else if (<?php $responseanswer['response']=='reject'; ?>){ //if cookie exists document.getElementById('2').style.display = 'none'; document.getElementById('1').style.display = 'block'; } else { function a() { var a = document.getElementById('2'); document.getElementById('1').style.display= 'block'; } //on reject creating a new cookie function r() { var a = document.getElementById('reject'); document.getElementById('1').style.display = 'none'; document.getElementById('2').style.display= 'block'; } } </script> Eveything is fine, but the div is not hiding.

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  • Modify columns in a data frame in R more cleanly - maybe using with() or apply()?

    - by Mittenchops
    I understand the answer in R to repetitive things is usually "apply()" rather than loop. Is there a better R-design pattern for a nasty bit of code I create frequently? So, pulling tabular data from HTML, I usually need to change the data type, and end up running something like this, to convert the first column to date format (from decimal), and columns 2-4 from character strings with comma thousand separators like "2,400,000" to numeric "2400000." X[,1] <- decYY2YY(as.numeric(X[,1])) X[,2] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,2])) X[,3] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,3])) X[,4] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,4])) I don't like that I have X[,number] repeated on both the left and ride sides here, or that I have basically the same statement repeated for 2-4. Is there a very R-style way of making X[,2] less repetitive but still loop-free? Something that sort of says "apply this to columns 2,3,4---a function that reassigns the current column to a modified version in place?" I don't want to create a whole, repeatable cleaning function, really, just a quick anonymous function that does this with less repetition.

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  • Unexpected results when looking at ASCII codes in C++.

    - by Columbo
    Hello, The bit of code below is extracting ASCII codes from characters. When I convert characters in the normal ASCII region I get the value I expect. When I convert £ and € from the extened region I get a load of 1's padding the INT that I'm storing the character in. e.g. the output of the below is: 45 (ascii E as expected) FFFFFF80 (extended ascii € as expected but padded with ones) It's not causing me an issue but I'm just wondering why this happens. Here's the code... unsigned int asciichar[3]; string cTextToEncode = "E€"; for (unsigned int i = 0; i < cTextToEncode.length(); i++) { asciichar[i] = (unsigned int)cTextToEncode[i]; cout << hex << asciichar[i] << "\n"; } Can anyone explain why this is? Thanks

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  • The "correct" way of using multilingual support

    - by Felipe Athayde
    I just began working with ASP.NET and I'm trying to bring with me some coding standards I find healthy. Among such standards there is the multilingual support and the use of resources for easily handling future changes. Back when I used to code desktop applications, every text had to be translated, so it was a common practice to have the language files for every languages I would want to offer to the customers. In those files I would map every single text, from button labels to error messages. In ASP.NET, with the help of Visual Studio, I have the resort of using the IDE to generate such Resource Files (from Tools - Generate Local Resource), but then I would have to fill my webpages with labels - at least that is what I've learned from articles and tutorials. However, such approach looks a bit odd and I'm tempted to guess it doesn't smell that good as well. Now to the question: 1) Should I keep every single text in my website as labels and manage its contents in the resource files? It looks/feels odd specially when considering a text with several paragraphs. 2) Whenever I add/remove something, e.g.: a button, to an aspx file I would have to add it to the resource file as well, because generating the resource file again would simply override all my previous changes to it. That doesn't feel like a reusable code at all for me. Any comment suggestion on this one? Perhaps I got it all wrong from tutorials as it doesn't seem like a standardized matter - specially if it required recompiling the entire application whenever some change has to be done.

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  • byte + byte = int... why?

    - by Robert C. Cartaino
    Looking at this C# code... byte x = 1; byte y = 2; byte z = x + y; // ERROR: Cannot implicitly convert type 'int' to 'byte' The result of any math performed on byte (or short) types is implicitly cast back to an integer. The solution is to explicitly cast the result back to a byte, so... byte z = (byte)(x + y); // works What I am wondering is why? Is it architectural? Philosophical? We have: int + int = int long + long = long float + float = float double + double = double So why not: byte + byte = byte short + short = short ? A bit of background: I am performing a long list of calculations on "small numbers" (i.e. < 8) and storing the intermediate results in a large array. Using a byte array (instead of an int array) is faster (because of cache hits). But the extensive byte-casts spread through the code make it that much more unreadable.

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  • Preloading CSS Background Images

    - by Peanuts
    Hello guys, I have a hidden contact form which is deployed clicking on a button. Its fields are set as CSS background images, and they always appears a bit later than the div that have been toggled. I was using this snippet in the <head> section, but with no luck (after I cleared the cache) : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { pic = new Image(); pic2 = new Image(); pic3 = new Image(); pic.src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/inputs/input1.png"; pic2.src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/inputs/input2.png"; pic3.src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/inputs/input3.png"; }); </script> I'm using jQuery as my library, and it would be cool if I could use it as well for arranging this issue. Thanks for your thoughs.

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  • iOS UIImageView dataWithContentsOfURL returning empty

    - by user761389
    I'm trying to display an image from a URL in a UIImageView and I'm seeing some very peculiar results. The bit of code that I'm testing with is below imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/user_dyn/1073/32/32"; imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/assets/profile_images/default/32_32/avatar-male-01.jpg"; NSURL *imageURLRes = [NSURL URLWithString:imageURL]; NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:imageURLRes]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithData:imageData]; NSLog(@"Image Data: %@", imageData); In it's current form I can see data in the output window which is what I'd expect. However if comment out the second imageURL so I'm referencing the first I'm getting empty data and therefore nil is being returned by imageWithData. What is possibly more confusing is that the first image is basically the same as the second but it's been through a PHP processing script. I'm nearly certain that it isn't the script that's causing the issue because if I use this instead imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/product_dynimg/389620/32/32" the image is displayed and this uses the same image processing script. I'm struggling to find any difference in the images that would cause this to occur. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Java: Typecasting to Generics

    - by bguiz
    This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupported value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

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  • NHibernate / multiple sessions and nested objects

    - by bernhardrusch
    We are using NHibernate in a rich client application. It is a pretty open application (the user searches for a dataset or creates a new one, changes the data and saves the data set. We leave the session open, because sometimes we have to lazy load some properties of the object (nested object structure). This means one big problem if we leave the session open, the db (MySQL) closes the connection and we are not able to find this out and it throws an exception (socket communication error) when accessing the database (we are thinking about testing the db connection before accessing the object - but this is not really optimal neither, the other option would be to set back the timeout of the db connection , but this just doesn't seem to well). So - is it possible to reconnect the session to a new database connection ? Another problem is it possible to get an object from one session and then re-attach it to another session ? (I often hear that session.lock should work for this - but this doesn't work so well in our application - so I ended up getting a "fresh" object from the session and copy the data over manually - which is a little bit cumbersome) Any ideas for this ?

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  • Overriding form submit based on counting elements with jquery.each

    - by MrGrigg
    I am probably going about this all wrong, but here's what I'm trying to do: I have a form that has approximately 50 select boxes that are generated dynamically based on some database info. I do not have control over the IDs of the text boxes, but I can add a class to each of them. Before the form is submitted, the user needs to select at least one item from the select box, but no more than four. I'm a little bit sleepy, and I'm unfamiliar with jQuery overall, but I'm trying to override $("form").submit, and here's what I'm doing. Any advice or suggestions are greatly appreciated. $("form").submit(function() { $('.sportsCoachedValidation').each(function() { if ($('.sportsCoachedValidation :selected').text() != 'N/A') { sportsSelected++ } }); if (sportsSelected >= 1 && sportsSelected <= 4) { return true; } else if (sportsSelected > 4) { alert('You can only coach up to four sports.'); sportsSelected = 0; return false; } else { alert('Please select at least one coached sport.'); sportsSelected = 0; return false; } });

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