Search Results

Search found 23614 results on 945 pages for 'for update'.

Page 776/945 | < Previous Page | 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783  | Next Page >

  • What would be the safest way to store objects of classes derived from a common interface in a common

    - by Svenstaro
    I'd like to manage a bunch of objects of classes derived from a shared interface class in a common container. To illustrate the problem, let's say I'm building a game which will contain different actors. Let's call the interface IActor and derive Enemy and Civilian from it. Now, the idea is to have my game main loop be able to do this: // somewhere during init std::vector<IActor> ActorList; Enemy EvilGuy; Civilian CoolGuy; ActorList.push_back(EvilGuy); ActorList.push_back(CoolGuy); and // main loop while(!done) { BOOST_FOREACH(IActor CurrentActor, ActorList) { CurrentActor.Update(); CurrentActor.Draw(); } } ... or something along those lines. This example obviously won't work but that is pretty much the reason I'm asking here. I'd like to know: What would be the best, safest, highest-level way to manage those objects in a common heterogeneous container? I know about a variety of approaches (Boost::Any, void*, handler class with boost::shared_ptr, Boost.Pointer Container, dynamic_cast) but I can't decide which would be the way to go here. Also I'd like to emphasize that I want to stay away as far as possible from manual memory management or nested pointers. Help much appreciated :).

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

    Read the article

  • How to make Doxygen ignore specific PHP functions, when generating documentation from a purely proce

    - by Senthil
    I am writing a PHP Library and I am trying out Doxygen to generate the API documentation. My library does not use OOP. All code is procedural. I use lot of helper functions which have an _ (underscore) prefix in their names. They are not part of the publicly exposed API. They are just used internally. Even though they are commented just like the API functions, I don't want them included when giving out the documentation for the API. I want Doxygen to ignore these functions. I can think of two solutions for this, but I am not able to implement either one of them. First is, I can set some configuration in Doxygen to make it ignore specific function name patterns. I went through Doxygen help documentation and searched the web. There seems to be options to ignore file and folder name patterns. But I am not able to find an option to specify a function name pattern and make it ignore those functions. Second is, along with all the other content in the comments above functions, I could add some other keyword or something and make Doxygen ignore those functions. I haven't been able to find out how to do that either. How can I make Doxygen ignore specific PHP functions when generating documentation? Update I searched within Stack Overflow and came across this question. It looked similar to my question. I found out about EXCLUDE_SYMBOLS config option in one of the answers. You can use that to exclude function names too. More importantly, wildcards were supported. So I am able to ignore all my functions with _ as the prefix :) This ridiculous! I should've done more research :| Someone please delete this question or add this answer as an answer.

    Read the article

  • How to modify the style of jQuery DatePicker's disabled dates?

    - by Clay
    Given this page: http://jqueryui.com/demos/datepicker/#min-max And viewing its source: http://jqueryui.com/themeroller/css/parseTheme.css.php I can change the following line (using Chrome's inspect element feature) and see those changes reflected: .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .35; filter:Alpha(Opacity=35); background-image: none; } However, if I try to override my own test page with something like... .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .99 !important; filter:Alpha(Opacity=99) !important; background-image: none !important; color:Red !important; } ...I do not see my changes reflected in the calendar. I can make other changes in my own test page and those are reflected for other classes in the datepicker. So, I'm not having any kind of path issue to the .js or .css files. What am I missing here? UPDATE/SOLUTION Firebug to the rescue...this took care of my styling needs: .ui-datepicker-week-end{color: #c0c0c0 !important;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker{color: #c0c0c0;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker:hover{cursor: default important;} .ui-datepicker-calendar th{color: #222222 !important;}

    Read the article

  • High-concurrency counters without sharding

    - by dound
    This question concerns two implementations of counters which are intended to scale without sharding (with a tradeoff that they might under-count in some situations): http://appengine-cookbook.appspot.com/recipe/high-concurrency-counters-without-sharding/ (the code in the comments) http://blog.notdot.net/2010/04/High-concurrency-counters-without-sharding My questions: With respect to #1: Running memcache.decr() in a deferred, transactional task seems like overkill. If memcache.decr() is done outside the transaction, I think the worst-case is the transaction fails and we miss counting whatever we decremented. Am I overlooking some other problem that could occur by doing this? What are the significiant tradeoffs between the two implementations? Here are the tradeoffs I see: #2 does not require datastore transactions. To get the counter's value, #2 requires a datastore fetch while with #1 typically only needs to do a memcache.get() and memcache.add(). When incrementing a counter, both call memcache.incr(). Periodically, #2 adds a task to the task queue while #1 transactionally performs a datastore get and put. #1 also always performs memcache.add() (to test whether it is time to persist the counter to the datastore). Conclusions (without actually running any performance tests): #1 should typically be faster at retrieving a counter (#1 memcache vs #2 datastore). Though #1 has to perform an extra memcache.add() too. However, #2 should be faster when updating counters (#1 datastore get+put vs #2 enqueue a task). On the other hand, with #1 you have to be a bit more careful with the update interval since the task queue quota is almost 100x smaller than either the datastore or memcahce APIs.

    Read the article

  • Java Applet not caching

    - by John Fogerty
    Hello world, I'm having a problem with a Java applet I've deployed that is refusing to be cached in the jvm's "sticky" cache (or by the browser). For some reason every time a user loads the page this applet is on, the jvm re-downloads the jar file from the server which causes a long delay. The webpage containing the applet is being accessed via the internet, so according to Sun's Java applet documentation I'm using an <applet> tag rather than an <object> or <embed> tag. Any help debugging or identifying the problem would be much appreciated. Below is the full applet tag I'm using: <applet alt="Scanning Applet failed to load" archive="scanning.jar" code="scanning.scanlet.class" codebase="/java/" codetype="application/java" height="30" mayscript="True" name="scanlet" width="200"> <param name="domain" value="192.168.12.23" /> <param name="publishName" value="scan_attachment" /> <param name="publishURL" value="http://192.168.12.23/draft/update/52" /> <param name="curURL" value="http://192.168.12.23/draft/edit/52" /> Your browser is unable to process the Java &lt;APPLET&gt; tag needed to display this applet <br /> One solution would be to download a better web browser like <a href="http://www.mozilla.com/firefox">Mozilla's Firefox</a> </applet>

    Read the article

  • dynamic check_box using field_for in rails

    - by Craig Whitley
    I have a many-to-many relationship with a link box, and I want to pull those models together into one form so I can update from the same page. I'm really struggling with getting the check_box to even show all the elements of my array - I've scoured the net and been working on this literally all day, and I'm finding it difficult to apply the information I'm reading to my problem. I'm also extremely new to RoR and I've been following a bit of an outdated video tutorial (pre 2.0) so apologies for my code. So far, I've got it to output only one key pair in the array (the last one) - although outside the form, the code used in the tutorial works exactly how it should. Thats of little use though! Host is the model for which the main form is for, and Billing is the outside model that I'm trying to add to the form. This is the code that works outside of the form from the tutorial: <% for billing in @billings -%> <%= check_box_tag('billing_title[]', billing.id, @host.billings.collect {|obj| obj.id}.include?(billing.id))%> <%= billing.title %><br /> <% end -%> I just need to know how to make it work inside the form. This is the aforementioned code that only retrieves the last array keypair after looping through them: <% f.fields_for :billings do |obj| %><br /> <%= check_box_tag('billing_title[]', billing.id, @billings.collect {|obj| obj.id}.include?(billing.id))%> <%= billing.title %><br /> <% end %> The debug(@billings) : --- - !ruby/object:Billing attributes: title: Every Month id: "1" attributes_cache: {} - !ruby/object:Billing attributes: title: 12 Months id: "2" attributes_cache: {} - !ruby/object:Billing attributes: title: 6 Months id: "5" attributes_cache: {} Any help really appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Adding editFTPnetPRO to SSIS package causes error message

    - by gfrizzle
    I'm trying to add some secure FTP code to an SSIS package. I've used the EnterpriseDT product successfully on other .NET projects, so I wanted to incorporate it into an SSIS 2008 package I'm working on. If I create a Script Task (VB), edit the script, choose Project | Add Reference, and select the editFTPnetPRO.dll file, it comes back with this error: No template information found. See the application log in Event Viewer for more details. To open Event Viewer, click Start, click Control Panel, double-click Administrative Tools, and then double-click Event Viewer. The application log doesn't contain any pertinent details. I have no idea what this is trying to tell me. I've gone down a couple dead ends searching for this error message and following the prescribed fixes, but nothing has fixed it yet. Any idea what might be going wrong? P.S. - I tried the devenv.exe /installvstemplates fix, which didn't change anything. Update: Here is the error captured in the SSIS package when you try to run it: Error: System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. --- System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'edtFTPnetPRO, Version=6.3.1.20, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=0dce1ad63760d80b' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. Where is it looking for this file? I tried copying it to the project direcory, the bin folder, and the C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.nnnn folder, but it still can't find it, and it won't tell me where it's looking.

    Read the article

  • Detecting death of spawned process using Window CRT

    - by Michael Tiller
    Executive summary: I need a way to determine whether a Windows process I've spawned via _spawnl and am communicating with using FDs from _pipe has died. Details: I'm using the low-level CRT function in Windows (_eof, _read) to communicate with a process that was spawned via a call to _spawnl (with the P_NOWAIT) flag. I'm using _pipe to create file descriptors to communicate with this spawned process and passing those descriptors (the FD #) to it on the command line. It is worth mentioning that I don't control the spawned process. It's a black box to me. It turns out that the process we are spawning occasionally crashes. I'm trying to make my code robust to this by detecting the crash. Unfortunately, I can't see a way to do this. It seems reasonable to me to expect that a call to _eof or _read on one of those descriptors would return an error status (-1) if the process had died. Unfortunately, that isn't the case. It appears that the descriptors have a life of their own independent of the spawned process. So even though the process on the other end is dead, I get no error status on the file descriptor I'm using to communicate with it. I've got the PID for the nested process (returned from the _spanwnl call) but I don't see anything I can do with that. My code works really well except for one thing. I can't detect whether the spawned process is simply busy computing me an answer or has died. If I can use the information from _pipe and _spawnl to determine if the spawned process is dead, I'll be golden. Suggestions very welcome. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: I found a fairly simple solution and added it as the selected answer.

    Read the article

  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with my Basic Authentication in my Browser?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, i'm trying to goto the following url :- http://user1:pass1@localhost:1234/api/users?format=xml nothing to complex. Notice how i've got the username/password in the url? this, i believe, is for basic authentication. When I do that, the Request Headers are MISSING the 'Authorize' header. Er... that's not right :( I have anonymous authentication only setup on the site. I don't want to have anon off and basic turned on .. because not all of the site requires basic.. only a few action methods. So .. why is this not working? Is this something to do with the fact my code is not sending a 401 challenge or some crap? For What It's Worth, my site is ASP.NET MVC1 running on IIS7 (and the same thing happens when i run it on cassini). Update: If this is an illegal way of calling a resource using basic auth (ala security flaw) .. then is this possible to do, for an ASP.NET MVC website .. per action method (and not the entire site, per say)?

    Read the article

  • GD PHP Base64 Picture (png) error

    - by hogofwar
    This is part of my code: $con = mysql_connect("localhost","username","passs"); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("database", $con); if(mysql_num_rows(mysql_query("SELECT name FROM xbox_user WHERE name = '$user'"))){ // Code inside if block if userid is already there $result = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM xbox_user WHERE name = '$user'"); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { if ($row['date'] > $row['date']+100){ $src = imagecreatefrompng($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl']); $base64= base64_encode(file_get_contents($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl'])); $date = date("Ymd"); mysql_query("UPDATE xbox_user SET date = '$date' SET avatar = '$base64' WHERE name = '$user'"); }else{ $encode = $row['avatar']; //echo $encode; $rand = rand(1, 1337); file_put_contents('/tmp/'.$rand.'.png', base64_decode($row['avatar'])); //ERROR LINE $src = imagecreatefrompng('/tmp/'.$rand.'.png'); unlink('/tmp/'.$rand.'.png'); } } }else{ $src = imagecreatefrompng($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl']); $base64= base64_encode(file_get_contents($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl'])); $date = date("Ymd"); mysql_query("INSERT INTO xbox_user (name, avatar, date) VALUES ('$user', '$base64', '$date')"); } It comes up with multiple errors but I feel this one should be addressed first as the other could just be caused by the first error: Warning: imagecreatefrompng() [function.imagecreatefrompng]: '/tmp/628.png' is not a valid PNG file in /home/nah/public_html/experiment/xbox/draw3.php on line 60 It also does create an entry in my mysql DB

    Read the article

  • a selector which has this selector together with a class selector

    - by Woho87
    Here is an analogy of my problem(a selector which has this selector together with a class selector): Let say that I selects all yellow(classes) div elements in a arbitrary HTML document. And I want each to check if the attribute is yes = 1. If the attribute 'yes' equals '1', then I want the child with class 'blue' have the attribute 'no' equals '1'; $('div .yellow').each(function(){ if($(this).attr('yes') == 1){ $(this '.blue:first-child').attr('no', 1);//This line needs to be fixed } }); I know that the line this.getElementsByClassName('blue')[0] fixes this problem. But in my real problem (not this analogy) I want to use addClass and removeClass which only functions with jQuery objects. It is to cumbersome to use other functions than addClass and removeClass. UPDATE: Here is a code snippet from my real problem. I got some problem with "this" in javascript. I want a invited button to have the className visible when I click on it. The button lies within a div element with className 'box'. I know that there are problem with 'this' on the code snippet. But I want the button and not the box to change to visible $('.Box').each(function(){ if($(this).attr('hasButton') != 1){ var invite = document.createElement('div'); invite.className = 'invite invisible'; invite.innerHTML = 'invite'; $(this).attr('hasButton', 1); this.appendChild(invite); invite.addEventListener('mouseover', function(event){ $('.invite', this).removeClass('invisible');//this line is not functioning $('.invite', this).addClass('visible');//neither this }, false); } });

    Read the article

  • VB.Net Application Settings / ClickOnce

    - by B Z
    VS 2008 / VB.Net / WinForms I have an application setting (Settings.settings) for a project and I am using Click Once deployment. I used the VS Editor to create the setting and I can see the setting in the app.config file <applicationSettings> <MyApp.Win.My.MySettings> <setting name="MySetting" serializeAs="String"> <value>False</value> </setting> </MyApp.ArtTracker.Win.My.MySettings> </applicationSettings> I would like to update this setting after the application is compiled. The setting is for testing purposes only. If I change the xxx.config.deploy and I reinstall the app with click once. The new setting value doesn't change (seems to be cached somewhere). Even if I change in my local pc the setting seems to be cached somewhere. If I go in VS it asks me to Re-Sync the settings. But I need to do this after the application is compiled. Thanks for any help

    Read the article

  • Making a 64 bit shared library that dynamically links to a 32 bit library on Mac OS X Snow Leopard

    - by carneades
    Update: After some more reading I see that this problem is totally general, you can't mix architectures in the same process, so 64 bit Java cannot dlopen() a 32 bit library like FMOD. Is there any possible workaround for this, keeping in mind I'm writing my own C interface to the FMOD library? I need to make a 64-bit dylib on Max OS X because Java Native Access only likes 64-bit libraries on 64-bit machines. The problem is, my C source code dynamically includes FMOD which on Mac only provides 32-bit dylibs. When I try to compile without the -m32 option (since I must output a 64-bit dylib) I get the following error: gcc -dynamiclib -std=c99 -pedantic -Wall -O3 -fPIC -pthread -o ../bin/libpenntotalrecall_fmod.dylib ../../src/libpenntotalrecall_fmod.c -lfmodex -L../../lib/osx/ ld: warning: in /usr/lib/libfmodex.dylib, missing required architecture x86_64 in file Undefined symbols: "_FMOD_System_CreateSound", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_GetPosition", referenced from: _streamPosition in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Create", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_PlaySound", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Sound_Release", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_IsPlaying", referenced from: _playbackInProgress in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Update", referenced from: _streamPosition in ccJnlwrd.o _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetPaused", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Release", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Init", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetVolume", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Close", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetCallback", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [all] Error 1 Shouldn't it be possible to get a 64 bit dylib from my source code that dynamically includes 32 bit libraries?!

    Read the article

  • stack overflow on XMLListCollection collectionEvent

    - by reidLinden
    I'm working on a Flex 3 project, and I'm using a pair of XMLListCollection(s) to manage a combobox and a data grid. The combobox piece is working perfectly. The XMLListCollection for this is static. The user picks an item, and, on "change", it fires off an addItem() to the second collection. The second collection's datagrid then displays the updated list, and all is well. The datagrid, however, is editable. A further complication is that I have another event handler bound to the second XMLLIstCollection's "change" event, and in that handler, I do make additional changes to the second list. This essentially causes an infinite loop (a stack overflow :D ), of the second lists "change" handler. I'm not really sure how to handle this. Searching has brought up an idea or two regarding AutoUpdate functionality, but I wasn't able to get much out of them. In particular, the behavior persists, executing the 'updates' as soon as I re-enable, so I imagine I may be doing it wrong. I want the update to run, in general, just not DURING that code block. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • How do I copy or move an NSManagedObject from one context to another?

    - by Aeonaut
    I have what I assume is a fairly standard setup, with one scratchpad MOC which is never saved (containing a bunch of objects downloaded from the web) and another permanent MOC which persists objects. When the user selects an object from scratchMOC to add to her library, I want to either 1) remove the object from scratchMOC and insert into permanentMOC, or 2) copy the object into permanentMOC. The Core Data FAQ says I can copy an object like this: NSManagedObjectID *objectID = [managedObject objectID]; NSManagedObject *copy = [context2 objectWithID:objectID]; (In this case, context2 would be permanentMOC.) However, when I do this, the copied object is faulted; the data is initially unresolved. When it does get resolved, later, all of the values are nil; none of the data (attributes or relationships) from the original managedObject are actually copied or referenced. Therefore I can't see any difference between using this objectWithID: method and just inserting an entirely new object into permanentMOC using insertNewObjectForEntityForName:. I realize I can create a new object in permanentMOC and manually copy each key-value pair from the old object, but I'm not very happy with that solution. (I have a number of different managed objects for which I have this problem, so I don't want to have to write and update copy: methods for all of them as I continue developing.) Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Strange execution times in t-sql

    - by TonyP
    Hi All I have two stored procedures, the first one calls the second .. If I execute the second one alone it takes over 5 minutes to complete.. But when executed within the first one it takes little over 1 minute.. What is the reason ! Here is the first one ALTER procedure [dbo].[schRefreshPriceListItemGroups] as begin tran delete from PriceListItemGroups if @@error !=0 goto rolback Insert PriceListItemGroups(comno,t$cuno,t$cpls,t$cpgs,t$dsca,t$cpru) SELECT distinct c.comno,c.t$cuno, c.t$cpls,I.t$cpgs,g.t$dsca,g.t$cpru FROM TTCCOM010nnn C JOIN TTDSLS032nnn PL ON PL.comno = c.Comno and PL.t$cpls = c.t$cpls JOIN TTIITM001nnn I ON I.t$item = pl.t$item AND I.comno = pl.comNo JOIN TTCMCS024nnn G ON g.T$cprg = I.t$cpgs AND g.comno = I.Comno WHERE c.t$cpls !='' order by comno desc, t$cuno, t$cpgs if @@error !=0 goto rolback ----------------------------------------------------- Exec scrRefreshCustomersCatalogs ----------------------------------------------------- commit tran return rolback: Rollback tran And the second one Alter proc scrRefreshCustomersCatalogs as declare @baanIds table(id int identity(1,1),baanId varchar(12)) declare @baanId varchar(12),@i int, @n int Insert @baanIds(BaanId) select baanId from ftElBaanIds() SELECT @I=1,@n=max(id) from @baanIds select @i,@n Begin tran if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack WHILE @I <=@n Begin select @baanId=baanId from @baanIds where id=@i if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack Delete from customersCatalogs where comno+'-'+t$cuno=@baanId print Convert(varchar,@i)+' baanId='+@baanId Insert customersCatalogs exec customersCatalog @baanId if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack set @i=@i+1; end Commit Tran Update statistics customersCatalogs with fullscan Return xRollBack: Print '*****Rolling back*************' Rollback tran

    Read the article

  • Database Design Question regaurding duplicate information.

    - by galford13x
    I have a database that contains a history of product sales. For example the following table CREATE TABLE SalesHistoryTable ( OrderID, // Order Number Unique to all orders ProductID, // Product ID can be used as a Key to look up product info in another table Price, // Price of the product per unit at the time of the order Quantity, // quantity of the product for the order Total, // total cost of the order for the product. (Price * Quantity) Date, // Date of the order StoreID, // The store that created the Order PRIMARY KEY(OrderID)); The table will eventually have millions of transactions. From this, profiles can be created for products in different geographical regions (based on the StoreID). Creating these profiles can be very time consuming as a database query. For example. SELECT ProductID, StoreID, SUM(Total) AS Total, SUM(Quantity) QTY, SUM(Total)/SUM(Quantity) AS AvgPrice FROM SalesHistoryTable GROUP BY ProductID, StoreID; The above query could be used to get the Information based on products for any particular store. You could then determine which store has sold the most, has made the most money, and on average sells for the most/least. This would be very costly to use as a normal query run anytime. What are some design descisions in order to allow these types of queries to run faster assuming storage size isn’t an issue. For example, I could create another Table with duplicate information. Store ID (Key), Product ID, TotalCost, QTY, AvgPrice And provide a trigger so that when a new order is received, the entry for that store is updated in a new table. The cost for the update is almost nothing. What should be considered when given the above scenario?

    Read the article

  • UpdatePanel and ModalPopup Extender

    - by rs
    I have my form designed as <asp:Panel runat="server" Id="xyz"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> 'Gridview with edit/delete - opens detailsview(edit template) with data for editing </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> 'Hyperlink to open detailsview(insert template) for inserting records </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" Id="xyz1"> 'Ajax modal popup extender control </asp:Panel> It works perfectly when i click update, insert alternately, but when i click insert hyperlink (which is outside gridview) and close/cancel popup without any insert and then again click insert it doesn't call insert_onclick event. It works if i click some other button and click this button. What could be causing this issue and how can i solve it?

    Read the article

  • How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

    - by emzero
    Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

    Read the article

  • Does WPF break an Entity Framework ObjectContext?

    - by David Veeneman
    I am getting started with Entity Framework 4, and I am getting ready to write a WPF demo app to learn EF4 better. My LINQ queries return IQueryable<T>, and I know I can drop those into an ObservableCollection<T> with the following code: IQueryable<Foo> fooList = from f in Foo orderby f.Title select f; var observableFooList = new ObservableCollection<Foo>(fooList); At that point, I can set the appropriate property on my view model to the observable collection, and I will get WPF data binding between the view and the view model property. Here is my question: Do I break the ObjectContext when I move my foo list to the observable collection? Or put another way, assuming I am otherwise handling my ObjectContext properly, will EF4 properly update the model (and the database)? The reason why I ask is this: NHibernate tracks objects at the collection level. If I move an NHibernate IList<T> to an observable collection, it breaks NHibernate's change tracking mechanism. That means I have to do some very complicated object wrapping to get NHibernate to work with WPF. I am looking at EF4 as a way to dispense with all that. So, to get EF4 working with WPF, is it as simple as dropping my IQueryable<T> results into an ObservableCollection<T>. Does that preserve change-tracking on my EDM entity objects? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

    Read the article

  • JConsole does not connect when a program (running in eclipse) is waiting for a console input

    - by Calm Storm
    Hi, I have a problem similar to the one mentioned here. I have a program which launches a selenium browser and refreshes it every 2 seconds. My idea here was to monitor the memory usage of my application as the page is being hit. This console program does a "System.in.read" and when a user presses enter key, this stops the browser refresh thread. I run the program and it runs as I would expect it to. But when I fire jconsole and attach it to the process, it looks like jconsole waits forever to attach. This is because of the "System.in.read", apparently as shown in the JConsole source. In my code it makes perfect sense for me to terminte the browser when user presses something so is there any alternative available at all ? (Posted code sample below) package com.ekanathk; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import org.junit.Test; public class MultiThread { @Test public void testSimple() throws Exception { List<Integer> x = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { x.add(i); } System.out.print("Press Enter to stop (try attach a jconsole now...."); System.in.read(); } } The problem here seems to be that any System.in.read (either in Main thread or any threads) seems to completely block jconsole. I guess the problem essentially boils down to multiple threads requesting system inputs at the same time? Is there a solution ? UPDATE 1: It seems this works fine when launching the class from a command line, however when I run from eclipse, jconsole cant connect. Any reasons ?

    Read the article

  • Tips on managing dependencies for a release?

    - by Andrew Murray
    Our system comprises many .NET websites, class libraries, and a MSSQL database. We use SVN for source control and TeamCity to automatically build to a Test server. Our team is normally working on 4 or 5 projects at a time. We try to lump many changes into a largish rollout every 2-4 weeks. My problem is with keeping track of all the dependencies for a rollout. Example: Website A cannot go live until we've rolled out Branch X of Class library B, built in turn against the Trunk of Class library C, which needs Config Updates Y and Z and Database Update D, which needs Migration Script E... It gets even more complex - like making sure each developer's project is actually compatible with the others and are building against the same versions. Yes, this is a management issue as much as a technical issue. Currently our non-optimal solution is: a whiteboard listing features that haven't gone live yet relying on our memory and intuition when planning the rollout, until we're pretty sure we've thought of everything... a dry-run on our Staging environment. It's a good indication but we're often not sure if Staging is 100% in sync with Live - part of the problem I'm hoping to solve. some amount of winging it on rollout day. So far so good, minus a few close calls. But as our system grows, I'd like a more scientific release management system allowing for more flexibility, like being able to roll out a single change or bugfix on it's own, safe in the knowledge that it won't break anything else. I'm guessing the best solution involves some sort of version numbering system, and perhaps using a project management tool. We're a start-up, so we're not too hot on religiously sticking to rigid processes, but we're happy to start, providing it doesn't add more overhead than it's worth. I'd love to hear advice from other teams who have solved this problem.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783  | Next Page >