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  • CSS to Make 2 Column Content Areas

    - by Joe Majewski
    I'm trying to stray away from using tables to form the layout of my content, and I can think of two alternatives that I'd like to better learn: (1) styling list items to be side-by-side, and (2) using div blocks that float onto the same line. Both of these would have their own uses for what I'm working on. I'm already using div tags to form the entire layout of my three-column template, but what I need to do now is a bit different. In case it helps, my project can be found here. In short, here's my question; how would I style a div so that the width of it is 50% of the width of the area it occupies, rather than 50% of the width of the page? As for my other question, what would be the best approach to styling list items so that they are side-by-side? I'm working on a registration script now, and instead of using a table with "Username" on the left and the input text on the right, I can use two list items. It's late and I've been working on this project of mine for about 8 hours straight now, so I apologize if I'm asking anything confusing. Feel free to ask me any questions about what I'm trying to do. Thanks, friends. :)

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  • Zend_Dojo_Form not rendering in layout

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I have a quick question about adding Zend_Dojo_Form into Zend_layouts. I have a Zend_Dojo_Form that I want to display in the layout that is used for a particular controller. I can add the form to the layout without any issue however the dojo elements fail to render, as they would do if I added the form to a standard view. Is there any reason why this would be the case? Do I need to do something to the layout so that it will enable the components for this embedded form in the layout. Any other dojo enabled forms that are added in the view using this layout work fine. My form is created in the usual way: class QuickAddJobForm extends Zend_Dojo_Form{ public function init(){ $this->setName('quickaddjobfrm') ->setMethod('post') ->setAction('/addjob/start/); /*We now create the elements*/ $jobTitle = new Zend_Dojo_Form_Element_TextBox('jobtitle', array( 'trim' => true ) ); $jobTitle->setAttrib('style', 'width:200px;') ->addFilter('StripTags') ->removeDecorator('DtDdWrapper') ->removeDecorator('HtmlTag') ->removeDecorator('Label'); .... $this->addElements(array($jobTitle, ....)); In the controller I declare the layout and the form in the init function: public function init(){ $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('add-layout'); $form = new QuickAddJobForm(); $form->setDecorators(array(array('ViewScript', array('viewScript' => 'quickAddJobFormDecorator.phtml')))); $this->_helper->layout()->quickaddjob = $form; In my layout Where I want the form I have: echo $this->layout()->quickaddjob; Why would adding this form in the layout fail to render/add the Dojo elements? All that is currently being displayed are text boxes, rather than some of the other components such as ComboBoxes/FilteringSelects etc... Thanks in advance.

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  • Access to and availability of private member functions in C++

    - by David
    I am wandering the desert of my brain. I'm trying to write something like the following: class MyClass { // Peripherally Related Stuff public: void TakeAnAction(int oneThing, int anotherThing) { switch(oneThing){ case THING_A: TakeThisActionWith(anotherThing); break; //cases THINGS_NOT_A: }; }; private: void TakeThisActionWith(int thing) { string outcome = new string; outcome = LookUpOutcome(thing); // Do some stuff based on outcome return; } string LookUpOutcome(int key) { string oc = new string; oc = MyPrivateMap[key]; return oc; } map<int, string> MyPrivateMap; Then in the .cc file where I am actually using these things, while compiling the TakeAnAction section, it [CC, the solaris compiler] throws an an error: 'The function LookUpOutcome must have a prototype' and bombs out. In my header file, I have declared 'string LookUpOutcome(int key);' in the private section of the class. I have tried all sorts of variations. I tried to use 'this' for a little while, and it gave me 'Can only use this in non-static member function.' Sadly, I haven't declared anything static and these are all, putatively, member functions. I tried it [on TakeAnAction and LookUp] when I got the error, but I got something like, 'Can't access MyPrivateMap from LookUp'. MyPrivateMap could be made public and I could refer to it directly, I guess, but my sensibility says that is not the right way to go about this [that means that namespace scoped helper functions are out, I think]. I also guess I could just inline the lookup and subsequent other stuff, but my line-o-meter goes on tilt. I'm trying desperately not to kludge it.

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  • SharePoint 2007 - Content deployment and swapping content database

    - by Mel Lota
    Hi all, I'm currently working on a SharePoint 2007 site which is setup to allow clients to author content on a staging server and then this is automatically pushed up to the live environment via content deployment. The content deployment is setup in the 'Content deployment jobs and paths' in central admin. Now the problem I've got is that it seems that historically there have been a mixture of full and incremental deployments done to the live site collection which according to Stefan Goßner's best practices post (http://blogs.technet.com/stefan_gossner/pages/content-deployment-best-practices.aspx) is a bad idea due to the fact that things soon become out of sync. It's gotten to the point where the content deployment has just stopped working and incremental or full deployments are throwing errors in the logs. What I'm thinking is that I probably need to perform a full content deployment to an empty site collection and then somehow switch the new clean site collection with the current live one. I was wondering if anybody has any experience with this and could provide any pointers, I'm currently investigating the feasibility of performing the clean content deployment and then switching the live content database with the new one, however in my tests I've found that as soon as I switch content databases, the incremental deployment still fails. Any help much appreciated. (Note: I did post this on SharePoint Overflow as well, but thought I'd put it on here in case anybody else has any ideas) Cheers

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  • jquery is getting the old values from database

    - by sansknwoledge
    hi in my jsp page i am a having a jquery area which pass the values to a servlet which returns an output of dropdownlist . then the jsp file do some updation so certain values which are in the dropdownlist should not be there while repopulating. but it is not happening. my jquery code is $("#cbocode").change(function(){ var cdid=$("#cbocode option:selected"); $.get("trnDC?caseNo=20&cdid="+cdid.text(),function(data){ $("#divinstrument").html(data); }) and the servlet code is case 20:{ //jquery call String cdid=(String) request.getParameter("cdid"); Statement st = con.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = st.executeQuery("select instrumentid from mstinstrument where codeid='" + cdid + "' and rec_Status='A' and statusid='U' and Agentid='METLAB'"); if (!rs.wasNull()){ //List data=new ArrayList(); String v="<select id=cboinstr>"; while (rs.next()) { // data.add(rs.getString("vend_code")); v += "<option>" + rs.getString("instrumentid").toString() + "</option>"; } v+="</select>"; response.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.print(v); } else{ response.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.print("no data found"); } where i am missing???

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  • initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

    - by ludwigs3rd
    I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

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  • What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

    - by tvanfosson
    On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

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  • Django - Problem with models/manager to organise a query...

    - by user296644
    Hi, I have an application to count the number of access to an object for each website in a same database. class SimpleHit(models.Model): """ Hit is the hit counter of a given object """ content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') site = models.ForeignKey(Site) hits_total = models.PositiveIntegerField(default=0, blank=True) [...] class SimpleHitManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): print self.model._meta.fields qset = super(SimpleHitManager, self).get_query_set() qset = qset.filter(hits__site=settings.SITE_ID) return qset class SimpleHitBase(models.Model): hits = generic.GenericRelation(SimpleHit) objects = SimpleHitManager() _hits = None def _db_get_hits(self, only=None): if self._hits == None: try: self._hits = self.hits.get(site=settings.SITE_ID) except SimpleHit.DoesNotExist: self._hits = SimpleHit() return self._hits @property def hits_total(self): return self._db_get_hits().hits_total [...] class Meta: abstract = True And I have a model like: class Model(SimpleHitBase): name = models.CharField(max_length=255) url = models.CharField(max_length=255) rss = models.CharField(max_length=255) creation = AutoNowAddDateTimeField() update = AutoNowDateTimeField() So, my problem is this one: when I call Model.objects.all(), I would like to have one request for the SQL (not two). In this case: one for Model in order to have information and one for the hits in order to have the counter (hits_total). This is because I cannot call directly hits.hits_total (due to SITE_ID?). I have tried select_related, but it seems to do not work... Question: - How can I add column automatically like (SELECT hits.hits_total, model.* FROM [...]) to the queryset? - Or use a functional select_related with my models? I want this model could be plugable on all other existing model. Thank you, Best regards.

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  • iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

    - by rondoagogo
    Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

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  • License For (Mostly) Open Source Website / Service

    - by Ryan Sullivan
    I have an interesting setup and am not sure how to license a website. I know this is not legal advice, and I am not asking for any. There are so many different Open Source Licenses and I do not have the time to read every last one to see which best fits my situation. Really, I am looking for suggestions and a nudge in the right direction. My setup is: I give away for free version of my web service with a clean website interface. The implementation I use in the actual web site is (almost) identical to what I give away. The main service works the exactly the same way, but the website interface to manage features in the service is fairly different. Really the web interfaces have the same exact backend, and the front ends accomplish the same tasks, but the service I offer on my site is very rich and uses a good deal of javascript, where I kept the interface in the version I give away as simple and javascript-less as possible. Mostly so it is easy to understand and integrate into other sites. I am not entirely sure how I should license this. It is more like I develop an open source service but have a separate site built upon it. I like the GPLv3 but I am not sure if I can use it in this case especially since I am making some money off of google ad's on the site and plan on using amazon affiliates as well. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I do want to open it up as much as possible. But I still want to be able to continue with my own implementation. Thanks in advance for any information or help anyone can provide.

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  • How do browser cookie domains work?

    - by Vilx-
    Due to weird domain/subdomain cookie issues that I'm getting, I'd like to know how browsers handle cookies. If they do it in different ways, it would also be nice to know the differences. In other words - when a browser receives a cookie, that cookie MAY have a domain and a path attached to it. Or not, in which case the browser probably substitutes some defaults for them. Question 1: what are they? Later, when the browser is about to make a request, it checks its cookies and filters out the ones it should send for that request. It does so by matching them against the requests path and domain. Question 2: what are the matching rules? Added: The reason I'm asking this is because I'm interested in some edge cases. Like: Will a cookie for .example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for .example.com be available for example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for anotherexample.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for www2.example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for .com? Etc. Added 2: Also, could someone suggest how I should set a cookie so that: It can be set by either www.example.com or example.com; It is accessible by both www.example.com and example.com.

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  • How can I get sessions to work if I'm using Google App Engine + Django 1.1?

    - by user341642
    Is there a way for me to get sessions working? I know Django has built in session management, and GAE has some tools for it if you're using their watered down version of Django 0.96, but is there a way to get sessions to work if you're trying to use GAE w/ Django 1.1 (i.e. use_library() call). I assume using a db-backed session doesn't work, and a file system backed one won't work b/c we don't have access to the filesystem if we deploy to the Google production servers. This kinda worked (as in didn't crap out) when I used SessionMiddleware backed by a local-memory backed cache and a non-persistent cache (i.e. setting SESSION_ENGINE to django.contrib.sessions.backends.cache). But the session never seems to persist in this case, no matter how I set the timeouts. A new session key is generated on every page reload. Maybe this is b/c the GAE assumes complete statelessness with each request and blows away my local cache? Apologies in advance, I'm pretty new to Python. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Sessions not sticking linux server

    - by Jacob Windsor
    I have just moved the dev site over to my linux server for production but the sessions don't seem to be sticking for very long. I am guessing it is the server settings and not the php because it does the same thing with the plesk panel. Whenever a script is executed the sessions seems to get unset. I see nothing in the error log so not sure what it is. It all worked fine on wamp. Anyway I uploaded the php.ini file which was in the wamp server as it had all the settings i needed and all was working on localhost. Not sure what the problem is and this is the final thing that I have to sort out before going into production. And just too add the sessions are being started as they last for a little bit just don't stick around long. Here is the relevent part of my login script just in case there is something wrong with the code: // if login is ok then we add a cookie if($flag == 0) { $pass = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['pass'])); $username = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['username'])); $_SESSION['username']=$username; $_SESSION['password']=$pass;

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  • Should I be backing up a webapp's data to another host continuously ?

    - by user196289
    I have webapp in development. I need to plan for what happens if the host goes down. I will lose some very recent session status (which I can live with) and everything else should be persistently stored in the database. If I am starting up again after an outage, can I expect a good host to reconstruct the database to within minutes of where I was up to ? Or seconds ? Or should I build in a background process to continually mirror the database elsewhere ? What is normal / sensible ? Obviously a good host will have RAID and other redundancy so the likelihood of total loss should be low, and if they have periodic backups I should lose only very recent stuff but this is presumably likely to be designed with almost static web content in mind, and my site is transactional with new data being filed continuously (with a customer expectation that I don't ever lose it). Any suggestions / advice ? Are there off the shelf frameworks for doing this ? (I'm primarily working in Java) And should I just plan to save the data or should I plan to have an alternative usable host implementation ready to launch in case the host doesn't come back up in a suitable timeframe ?

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  • Coloring Default Buttons - color filter only on unfocused state

    - by rlo
    I want to buttons of different colors, but I want to do so while using the default button background resource in order to preserve the onfocus and onclick states. This is because I want to use the default highlight color of the OS for my app, which is NOT always orange (HTC Sense makes it green). I found that adding a color filter to the button's background drawable works great (in this case, blue): myButton.getBackground().setColorFilter(Color.parseColor(this.getString (R.color.button_blue)), Mode.MULTIPLY); BUT, when the button is focused or clicked, it turns a nasty orange_blue because it mixes the color filter with the orange of the background drawable. I want to ONLY set this color filter for the unfocused/unclicked nine- patch drawable within the default button's statelistdrawable. I'm not sure how else to do this. I see a similar solution here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2065430/fixed-android-detecting-fo... but I have some concerns with that solution, mainly what if the OS changes the graphic of the default button? Since the normal unfocused/ unpressed graphic is now hardcoded into the app, it would break the flow. Maybe can someone comment on whether it would be good or bad practice to hardcode the default graphic into the app? What are the chances of the OS completely changing the graphic? Any help please? Thanks very much!!

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  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute cleaner temporary value or create a

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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  • Recommendation for using equals in Entities and avoiding LazyInitializationExceptions?

    - by huxendupsel
    In the beginning there is a problem that wants to be solved. In my case i got an LazyInitializationException while using indexof in a Collection to retrieve an Object for manipulation. Here i start to think about using equals in EntityBeans (OR-Mapper at all). I know there are some discussions about overriding equals in association with OR-Mapper as hibernate like [1] Entities equals(), hashCode() and toString(). How to correctly implement them? [2] To equals and hashcode or not on entity classes, that is the question. [3] Overriding equals and hashCode in Java I currently have some entities which implements the equals but inside the code i could not use equals several times because of the LazyInitializationExceptions. So i had to workaround and use eg. the name property of the object to identify it's equality. From my point of view the whole 'LazyInitializationException-thing' is not really mentioned in this questions. I'd like to know have you got some good patterns or real live recommendations how to avoid such exception in an equal-Method. Shall i use some helper Methodes to distinguish if a Object of a class is already initialized (4) or should i apdicate the use of equals and use helper classes instead (2)? And what is about catching LazyInitializationExceptions in the equals? [Edit]: If you put equals in context with the initialization of the Object then it will gain importance. Sometimes it is nessesary to have the Object fully initialized but sometimes you don't want to. Because you just need the Object itself (name, id, ...) not its Collection-Properties. So just for equalization you have to reattach the Object and load the whole bunch you don't realy need? Are there any other solutions for such a problem?

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  • Is MySQL caching occurring, how to fix it?

    - by rlb.usa
    I think that MySQL or ASP.NET is caching my queries. I edited my MySQL sproc to remove some parameters but it keeps saying that those parameters are missing. Here is what happens: ASP.NET app calls a MySQL stored procedure. Everything works perfect. I delete some parameters from the sproc and ASP.NET parameter list accordingly. All parameters exactly match in case and order from the new ASP.NET and MySQL sproc code Upon execution, it fails, saying : System.ArgumentException: Parameter 'deleted_parameter_foo_bar' not found in the collection. at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlParameterCollection ... I delete the sproc from the database, restart my browser, and reexecute the ASP.NET page. It says the same error, that the parameter is missing - but the sproc itself doesn't exist anymore. ( I know 100% that I am editing/deleting from the right database. ) How do I fix this or make it work again; I want it to use my new sproc instead of the old one ? _o

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  • MVC and binding to List of Checkboxes

    - by Josh
    Here is my problem. I have a list of models that are displayed to the user. On the left is a checkbox for each model to indicate that the user wants to choose this model (in this case, we're building products a user can add to their shopping cart). The model has no concept of being chosen...it strictly has information about the product in question. I've talked with a few other developers after having gone through and the best I could come up with is getting the formcollection and string parsing the key values to determine whether the checkbox is checked or not. This doesn't seem ideal. I was thinking there would be something more strongly bound, but I can't figure out a way to do it. I tried creating another model that had a boolean property to represent being checked and a property of the model and passing a list of that model type to the view and creating a ActionResult on the controller that accepts a list of the new model / checked property, but it comes back null. Am I just thinking too much like web forms and should just continue on with parsing checkbox values? Here's what I've done for wrapping the models inside a collection: public class SelectableCollection[T] : IList[T] {} public class SelectableTrack{ public bool IsChecked{get;set;} public bool CurrentTrack{get;set;} } For the view, I inherit from ViewPage[SelectableCollection[SelectableTrack]] For the controller, I have this as the ActionResult: [HttpPost] public ActionResult SelectTracks(SelectableCollection sc) { return new EmptyResult(); } But when I break inside the ActionResult, the collection is null. Any reason why it isn't coming through?

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  • Int Showing as Long Odd Value

    - by Josh Kahane
    Hi I am trying to send an int in my iphone game for game center multiplayer. The integer is coming up and appearing as an odd long integer value rather than the expected one. I have this in my .h: typedef enum { kPacketTypeScore, } EPacketTypes; typedef struct { EPacketTypes type; size_t size; } SPacketInfo; typedef struct { SPacketInfo packetInfo; int score; } SScorePacket; Then .m: Sending data: scoreData *score = [scoreData sharedData]; SScorePacket packet; packet.packetInfo.type = kPacketTypeScore; packet.packetInfo.size = sizeof(SScorePacket); packet.score = score.score; NSData* dataToSend = [NSData dataWithBytes:&packet length:packet.packetInfo.size]; NSError *error; [self.myMatch sendDataToAllPlayers: dataToSend withDataMode: GKMatchSendDataUnreliable error:&error]; if (error != nil) { // handle the error } Receiving: SPacketInfo* packet = (SPacketInfo*)[data bytes]; switch (packet->type) { case kPacketTypeScore: { SScorePacket* scorePacket = (SScorePacket*)packet; scoreData *score = [scoreData sharedData]; [scoreLabel setString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"You: %d Challenger: %d", score.score, scorePacket]]; break; } default: CCLOG(@"received unknown packet type %i (size: %u)", packet->type, packet->size); break; } Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Rails - Beginner wants feedback on how they've modeled their app and how to do it better.

    - by adam
    I think the way I've modelled my app is a bit fishy and i need to rejig things, im just not sure how. I've already re-jigged and refactored before. It took a long time ( I'm a beginner ) and I'm hesitant to it again in case i head off in the wrong direction again. Basic Idea, user can submit an answer, another user can mark it correct or incorrect. If incorrect they have to write the correct answer. Users can view their and everybody else's correct and incorrect answers. So I did it this way class Answer has_one: correction end class Correction belongs_to :answer end when a user marks an answer as correct, I set checked_at:DateTime and checked_by_id:integer on the Answer object to keep track of who checked the answer and when. For incorrect answers I create a correction object which holds the correct answer and again checked_by and checked_at details. I don't like this because I have checked_by and checked_at in both models. It just doesn't sit right. Possible solutions are: Create a third model such as VerifiedAnswer and move the checked_by/at attributes to that. It will handle the situtation where an answer is marked correct. Or are these models thin enough (they dont have any other attributes) that I can just have one model ( Answer ) that has all the attributes to store all this information?

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  • Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

    - by bcrist
    I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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  • Why is post() not updating the DOM after it returns? Wierd timing problem observed.

    - by Sephrial
    Hi all, I have the following code that is really bugging me, I'm thinking perhaps the post() function needs to be blocking. I am new to jQuery(latest version) and AJAX, but I'm using ColdFusion which returns some HTML in the data variable. var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; }); //alert(statusResult); if ('success' == statusResult) { alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); } When I uncomment out the first alert, it returns 'undefined' but then it goes into the if block and the next alert box it says 'success'. If I comment out that line it doesn't make it into the if statement at all. My guess is that I want to make this a blocking call or something because I want to insert the data on the page after the post. I also have a problem when I re-write the top code as follows: var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); }); //alert(statusResult); Now in this case, the alert says 'success' when I comment out the second alert box. When I uncomment it out, I get one alert that says success and the other that says undefined, but this time it updates the DOM with the result of the postback as desired. How can I do this without the alert box?

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  • get random password with puppet function

    - by ninja-2
    I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

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  • PHP delete script, return to 'viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=NO VALUE'

    - by Derek
    Hi, As the title states... I am deleting a 'subject' from a 'classroom' I view classrooms, then can click on a classroom to view the subject for that classroom. So the link where I am viewing subjects looks like: viewsubjects.php?classroom=23 When the user selects the delete button (in a row) to remove a subject from a class, I simply want the user to be redirected back to the list of subjects for the classroom (exactly where they were before!!) So I though this is simply a case of calling up the classroom ID within my delete script. Here is what I have: EDIT: corrected spelling mistake in code (this was not the problem) $subject_id = $_GET['subject_id']; $classroom_id = $_GET['classroom_id']; $sql = "DELETE FROM subjects WHERE subject_id=".$subject_id; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("MySQL Error: ".mysql_error()); header("Location: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=".$classroom_id); exit(); The subject is being removed from the DB, but when I am redirected back the URI is displaying with an empty classroom ID like: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id= Is there a way to carry the classroom ID through successfully through the delete script so it can be displayed after, allowing the user to be redirected back to the page? Thanks for any help!

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