Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'use case'.

Page 776/906 | < Previous Page | 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783  | Next Page >

  • What's the steps for SQL optimization and changes without reflect live system ?

    - by Space Cracker
    we have a big portal that build using SharePoint 2007 , asp.net 3.5 , SQL Server 2005 .. many developers work in it since 01/2008 and we are now doing huge analysis for current SQL Databases [not share-point DB ] to optimize and enhance it. The main db have about 330 table and 1720 stored procedure (SP) created from 01/2008 till now Many table names / Columns is very long and we want to short it we found SP names is written in 25 format :( , some of them are very complex and also we want to rename many SP parameters need to be renamed one of the biggest table is Registered user table, that will be spitted in more than one table for some optimization, many columns name will be changed I searched for the way that i can rename table names ,columns and i found SQL refactor tool but i still trying it .. my questions : Is SQl Refactor is the best tool for renaming ? or is there any other one ? if i want to make it manually, is there any references or best practice for that ? How can i do such changes in fast and stable way .. i search for recommendations and case studies if exist ?

    Read the article

  • MVC and binding to List of Checkboxes

    - by Josh
    Here is my problem. I have a list of models that are displayed to the user. On the left is a checkbox for each model to indicate that the user wants to choose this model (in this case, we're building products a user can add to their shopping cart). The model has no concept of being chosen...it strictly has information about the product in question. I've talked with a few other developers after having gone through and the best I could come up with is getting the formcollection and string parsing the key values to determine whether the checkbox is checked or not. This doesn't seem ideal. I was thinking there would be something more strongly bound, but I can't figure out a way to do it. I tried creating another model that had a boolean property to represent being checked and a property of the model and passing a list of that model type to the view and creating a ActionResult on the controller that accepts a list of the new model / checked property, but it comes back null. Am I just thinking too much like web forms and should just continue on with parsing checkbox values? Here's what I've done for wrapping the models inside a collection: public class SelectableCollection[T] : IList[T] {} public class SelectableTrack{ public bool IsChecked{get;set;} public bool CurrentTrack{get;set;} } For the view, I inherit from ViewPage[SelectableCollection[SelectableTrack]] For the controller, I have this as the ActionResult: [HttpPost] public ActionResult SelectTracks(SelectableCollection sc) { return new EmptyResult(); } But when I break inside the ActionResult, the collection is null. Any reason why it isn't coming through?

    Read the article

  • While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

    - by Mahn
    I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

    Read the article

  • Uitableview not able to hold data

    - by pankaj
    Hi i have a uitableview, i am displaying some data of about 200 rows in it. Data will be displayed in several sections which will be determined at run time. I am able to get sections but i am not able to display data for a particular section in correct order. I have data in the form of dictionaries in an array. My Code: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { TeraGoAppDelegate *appDel = (TeraGoAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UITableViewCell *cell = nil; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:nil] autorelease]; cell.textLabel.text = [(NSMutableDictionary *)[appDel.arrEqp objectAtIndex:countEqpIndex] objectForKey:@"EQP_NAME"]; cell.textLabel.font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Arial" size:14]; if(![[(NSMutableDictionary *)[appDel.arrEqp objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"select"] isEqualToString:@"0"]) { cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark; } else cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; } // Set up the cell... return cell; } I am trying to use indexPath.row but its values initialises from 0 in every section I can not get data from array in this case as i dont have index of array to get data. How will i get the index of array whose values i need to display????

    Read the article

  • LinqtoSql Pre-compile Query problem with Count() on a group by

    - by Joe Pitz
    Have a LinqtoSql query that I now want to precompile. var unorderedc = from insp in sq.Inspections where insp.TestTimeStamp > dStartTime && insp.TestTimeStamp < dEndTime && insp.Model == "EP" && insp.TestResults != "P" group insp by new { insp.TestResults, insp.FailStep } into grp select new { FailedCount = (grp.Key.TestResults == "F" ? grp.Count() : 0), CancelCount = (grp.Key.TestResults == "C" ? grp.Count() : 0), grp.Key.TestResults, grp.Key.FailStep, PercentFailed = Convert.ToDecimal(1.0 * grp.Count() / tcount * 100) }; I have created this delegate: public static readonly Funct<SQLDataDataContext, int, string, string, DateTime, DateTime, IQueryable<CalcFailedTestResult>> GetInspData = CompiledQuery.Compile((SQLDataDataContext sq, int tcount, string strModel, string strTest, DateTime dStartTime, DateTime dEndTime, IQueryable<CalcFailedTestResult> CalcFailed) => from insp in sq.Inspections where insp.TestTimeStamp > dStartTime && insp.TestTimeStamp < dEndTime && insp.Model == strModel && insp.TestResults != strTest group insp by new { insp.TestResults, insp.FailStep } into grp select new { FailedCount = (grp.Key.TestResults == "F" ? grp.Count() : 0), CancelCount = (grp.Key.TestResults == "C" ? grp.Count() : 0), grp.Key.TestResults, grp.Key.FailStep, PercentFailed = Convert.ToDecimal(1.0 * grp.Count() / tcount * 100) }); The syntax error is on the CompileQuery.Compile() statement It appears to be related to the use of the select new {} syntax. In other pre-compiled queries I have written I have had to just use the select projection by it self. In this case I need to perform the grp.count() and the immediate if logic. I have searched SO and other references but cannot find the answer.

    Read the article

  • Memory fragmentation @ boost::asio ?

    - by Poni
    I'm pretty much stuck with a question I never got an answer for, a question which addresses an extremely important issue; memory fragmentation at boost::asio. Found nothing at the documentation nor here at SO. The functions at boost::asio, for example async_write() & async_read_some() always allocate something. (in my case it's 144 & 96 bytes respectively, in VC9 Debug build). How do I know about it? I connect a client to the "echo server" example provided with this library. I put a breakpoint at "new.cpp" at the code of "operator new(size_t size)". Then I send "123". Breakpoint is hit! Now using the stack trace I can clearly see that the root to the "new" call is coming from the async_write() & async_read_some() calls I make in the function handlers. So memory fragmentation will come sooner or later, thus I can't use ASIO, and I wish I could! Any idea? Any helpful code example?

    Read the article

  • How would I automate my array to be used with cURL?

    - by Rob
    I have an array containing the contents of a MySQL table. I need to put each of these contents into curl_multi_handles so that I can execute them all simultaneously Here is the code for the array, in case it helps: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM urls") or die(mysql_error()); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $urls[]=$resultSet } So I need to put be able to send data to each url at the same time. I don't need to get any data back, and in fact I'll be having them time out after two seconds. It only needs to send the data and then close. My code prior to this, was executing them one at a time. here is that code: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM shells") or die(mysql_error()); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); So my question is: How can I load the contents of the array into curl_multi_handle, execute it, and then remove each handle and close the curl_multi_handle?

    Read the article

  • What's the difference between UI development and front-end development?

    - by Nick Lowman
    I'm a front-end developer and really enjoy jQuery and JavaScript. I've built a lot a websites, done some good jQuery work and built a few JavaScript based applications and would really like to get in UI development. Or so I thought. I guessed it would be pretty similar to what I already do except maybe a little more JavaScript heavy but when I looked into it all the job specs said I needed to know about Scrum or Agile development, knowledge of testing frameworks and a good knowledge of JavaScript frameworks and custom events. So, from the specs I get the idea that a UI developer is actually a dedicated JavaScript developer. Is that the case? I understand (with much help from the users on stackoverflow), about JavaScript OO, inheritance, closures, custom events, debugging in Firefox or Aptana etc, and the people I work with seem to think I pretty OK at what I do but clearly my knowledge is not good enough to go for UI jobs. If anyone could tell me a little more about UI development and if there are any good resources for learning about it I would be most grateful as I couldn't find much on the internet.

    Read the article

  • Why am I unable to prevent the animation queue from stacking without breaking my code?

    - by user1888886
    I am attempting to use jquery and CSS to animate the buttons of a navigation sidebar I am using to signify which button is selected when the mouse is hovered over each. Currently, my code for the CSS appears as such: #navbutton {position:relative; width:178px; height:35px; border:1px #FFF solid; z-index:+3; font-family:'Capriola', sans-serif; font-size:18px; text-align:center;} #navbutton.button {color:#77D; background-color: #F0B0D0;} #navbutton.button_hover {color:#66C; background-color: #FCF; padding:10px;} And my jquery: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#sidebar div").mouseenter(buttonHover) function buttonHover(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button','button_hover',500); } $("#sidebar div").mouseleave(button) function button(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button_hover','button',500); } }); </script> Before I added the .stop() to each part of the animation, the animation queue would stack up for each time the mouse was moved over each button and then removed. Now that the .stop() has been applied, however, if the mouse is moved away from a button during its animation, the button will freeze and remain in its mid-animation state, unable to be fixed by being hovered over until the page is reloaded, rather than reverting to its original mouseleave state. From everything I've read, this should not be the case. Might anyone be able to tell why my animation queue becomes broken once the .stop() is applied?

    Read the article

  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

    Read the article

  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

    Read the article

  • jquery is getting the old values from database

    - by sansknwoledge
    hi in my jsp page i am a having a jquery area which pass the values to a servlet which returns an output of dropdownlist . then the jsp file do some updation so certain values which are in the dropdownlist should not be there while repopulating. but it is not happening. my jquery code is $("#cbocode").change(function(){ var cdid=$("#cbocode option:selected"); $.get("trnDC?caseNo=20&cdid="+cdid.text(),function(data){ $("#divinstrument").html(data); }) and the servlet code is case 20:{ //jquery call String cdid=(String) request.getParameter("cdid"); Statement st = con.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = st.executeQuery("select instrumentid from mstinstrument where codeid='" + cdid + "' and rec_Status='A' and statusid='U' and Agentid='METLAB'"); if (!rs.wasNull()){ //List data=new ArrayList(); String v="<select id=cboinstr>"; while (rs.next()) { // data.add(rs.getString("vend_code")); v += "<option>" + rs.getString("instrumentid").toString() + "</option>"; } v+="</select>"; response.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.print(v); } else{ response.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.print("no data found"); } where i am missing???

    Read the article

  • How to get the parameter names of an object's constructors (reflection)?

    - by Tom
    Say I somehow got an object reference from an other class: Object myObj = anObject; Now I can get the class of this object: Class objClass = myObj.getClass(); Now, I can get all constructors of this class: Constructor[] constructors = objClass.getConstructors(); Now, I can loop every constructor: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < constructors.length; i++) { System.out.println(constructors[i]); } } This is already giving me a good summary of the constructor, for example a constructor public Test(String paramName) is shown as public Test(java.lang.String) Instead of giving me the class type however, I want to get the name of the parameter.. in this case "paramName". How would I do that? I tried the following without success: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int iCon = 0; iCon < constructors.length; iCon++) { Class[] params = constructors[iCon].getParameterTypes(); if (params.length > 0) { for (int iPar = 0; iPar < params.length; iPar++) { Field fields[] = params[iPar].getDeclaredFields(); for (int iFields = 0; iFields < fields.length; iFields++) { String fieldName = fields[i].getName(); System.out.println(fieldName); } } } } } Unfortunately, this is not giving me the expected result. Could anyone tell me how I should do this or what I am doing wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Limiting number of text lines in a table cell

    - by Kuzco
    I have a table cell where I need to limit the text to a max of two lines. I tried achieving this by placing an inner div with a limited height: div { border: 1px solid #EECCDD; width: 100px; height: 40px; overflow: hidden; } <div> <p>bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla</p> </div> <div> <p>bla bla bla bla</p> </div> However, in this case the cells which have only one line of text are not vertically aligned to the middle. I know there are ways to vertically align a text within a div, but most of the ones I found seemed a bit complicated and/or hacky (like this one), and felt like a bit of an overkill. Is there a different way to effectively limit the number of lines inside the cell, or a simple way to align the text in the way I did it?

    Read the article

  • Zend_Dojo_Form not rendering in layout

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I have a quick question about adding Zend_Dojo_Form into Zend_layouts. I have a Zend_Dojo_Form that I want to display in the layout that is used for a particular controller. I can add the form to the layout without any issue however the dojo elements fail to render, as they would do if I added the form to a standard view. Is there any reason why this would be the case? Do I need to do something to the layout so that it will enable the components for this embedded form in the layout. Any other dojo enabled forms that are added in the view using this layout work fine. My form is created in the usual way: class QuickAddJobForm extends Zend_Dojo_Form{ public function init(){ $this->setName('quickaddjobfrm') ->setMethod('post') ->setAction('/addjob/start/); /*We now create the elements*/ $jobTitle = new Zend_Dojo_Form_Element_TextBox('jobtitle', array( 'trim' => true ) ); $jobTitle->setAttrib('style', 'width:200px;') ->addFilter('StripTags') ->removeDecorator('DtDdWrapper') ->removeDecorator('HtmlTag') ->removeDecorator('Label'); .... $this->addElements(array($jobTitle, ....)); In the controller I declare the layout and the form in the init function: public function init(){ $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('add-layout'); $form = new QuickAddJobForm(); $form->setDecorators(array(array('ViewScript', array('viewScript' => 'quickAddJobFormDecorator.phtml')))); $this->_helper->layout()->quickaddjob = $form; In my layout Where I want the form I have: echo $this->layout()->quickaddjob; Why would adding this form in the layout fail to render/add the Dojo elements? All that is currently being displayed are text boxes, rather than some of the other components such as ComboBoxes/FilteringSelects etc... Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • [RAILS] Why is ssl_requirement clearing the Flash? (Chrome Mac)

    - by aaronrussell
    I am using ssl_requirement and since setting it up, my application's Flash messages are disappearing. I've modified the plugin slightly as accounts can optionally have a domain mapped to their account. In that case the non-ssl areas of the site should use the mapped domain, whereas the ssl areas should use the subdomain: def ensure_proper_protocol return true if ssl_allowed? if ssl_required? && !request.ssl? redirect_to "https://#{@account.subdomain}." + APP_CONF[:domain] + request.request_uri flash.keep return false elsif request.ssl? && !ssl_required? redirect_to "http://#{@account.sub_or_mapped_domain}" + request.request_uri flash.keep return false end end The application is broadly split into a website (front end) and an admin (back end). ALL of the admin area uses SSL so in the AdminController I have overwritten ssl_required? with: protected def ssl_required? return false if RAILS_ENV == "test" || RAILS_ENV == "development" true end Interestingly, Flash messages work fine in the development environment, where I am bypassing requiring SSL, but in my production environment where SSL is required, all Flash are gone. Any ideas? EDIT I've done some further testing and can add that this problem is ONLY occurring in Chrome on the Mac. Other Mac browsers and Chrome on windows are displaying the Flash messages as expected. This may be a bug with Chrome on the Mac then...?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic jQuery dialog after data append w/o reloading page. Possible?

    - by Arun
    Howdy, So I have a page with an enormous table in a CRUD interface of sorts. Each link within a span calls a jQuery UI Dialog Form which fetches it's content from another page. When the action taking place (in this case, a creation) has completed, it appends the resulting new data to the table and forces a resort of the table. This all happens within the JS and the DOM. The problem with this, is that the new table row's CRUD links don't actually trigger the dialog form creation as all the original links in spans are only scanned on document.ready and since I'm not reloading the page, the new links cannot be seen. Code is as follows: $(document).ready(function() { var $loading = $('<img src="/images/loading.gif" alt="Loading">'); $('span a').each(function() { var $dialog = $('<div></div>') .append($loading.clone()); var $link = $(this).one('click', function() { // Dialog Stuff success: function(data) { $('#studies tbody').append( '<tr>' + '<td><span><a href="./?action=update&study=' + data.study_id + '" title="Update Study">Update</a></span></td>' + '</tr>' ); fdTableSort.init(#studies); // This re-sorts the table. $(this).dialog('close'); } $link.click(function() { $dialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); return false; }); }); }); Basically, my question is if there is any way in which to trigger a jQuery re-evaluation of the pages links without forcing me to do a browser page refresh?

    Read the article

  • initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

    - by ludwigs3rd
    I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

    Read the article

  • jQuery only firing last class in multiple-class click

    - by user1134644
    I have a set of links like so: <a href="#internalLink1" class="classA">This has Class A</a> <a href="#internalLink2" class="classB">This has Class B</a> <a href="#internalLink3" class="classA classB">This has Class A and Class B</a> And here's the corresponding jQuery: $('.classA').click(function(){ // do class A stuff }); $('.classB').click(function(){ // do class B stuff }); Currently, when I click on the first link with Class A, it does the Class A stuff like it's supposed to. Similarly, when I click on the second link with Class B, it does the Class B stuff like it's supposed to. No worries there. My issue is, when I click on the third link with BOTH classes, it only fires the function for whichever class comes last (in this case, class B. If I put class A at the end instead, it performs class A's function). I want it to fire both. What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance. EDIT: To those posting fiddles, nearly all of them work, so as many have said, it's most likely not my code, but the way it displays in my file. For a little more clarification, I was teaching myself some jQuery and decided to try making a (very) simple "Choose Your Own Adventure" type game. Here's a jsfiddle containing the opening of my bare-bones-please-don't-laugh game. Click on "Hide in the bushes", then "Examine the victim", then "Take any valuables and leave, he's dead already" <-- THIS is where the issue is. It's supposed to add 98 gold ("hawks") to your inventory, AND tell you that your alignment has shifted 1 point towards Chaotic. At the moment, it only does the chaotic alert, and no gold gets added to your inventory. The other option (refresh the fiddle to restart) that adds money to your inventory, but DOES NOT make you chaotic, works just fine (if you select "Search him for identification" instead of "take the money and run") Sorry this is so long!

    Read the article

  • Looking for a book which teaches how to write applications (as opposed to writng code)

    - by rumtscho
    I am not a developer. I have coded for fun and for university projects in several languages, and during an internship, I have written code which is still in use by a department of Fortune Global 500 company. I also have extensive theoretical knowledge of software engineering - process models, architecture, project management, UI construction using Lauesen's virtual windows... you get the picture. But I am not involved with software development in my job. I recently decided to start coding for fun again, and now I have some free days to do it. But this time, I want to do it right. I want to write a real, useful application, install it on my devices and use it myself. Also I want to publish it for others to use, should they want to do so. I am vaguely aware that there is more to writing an application than to writing code. There is stuff like version control software, decision for the right IDE, having a suite of unit tests, producing an installation package - and probably lots of other things I never thought of but which must be taken care of in a proper application, as opposed to a bunch of classes I am running from my IDE. All this is stuff I should know before I start, but I have not learned it. Coding books touch on some of the subjects like IDE choice, but don't go into detail, and are not exhaustive. Theoretical software engineering textbooks are even less helpful. So is there a book which teaches exactly that? I know that I can find information on each of these topics on the Internet, but I'd rather have a systematic book exhaustively listing all the things I should take care of if I want to create a good application, and offering the currently accepted solutions for them. In the best case, it will be language- and platform independent, but if you know of a good book focusing on a specific platform, I would like to know about it too. I know I want a lot, but given how important such knowledge is and how many people need it, surely somebody must have written such a book?

    Read the article

  • .NET List Thread-Safe Implementation Suggestion needed

    - by Bamboo
    .Net List class isn't thread safe. I hope to achieve the minimal lock needed and yet still fulfilling the requirement such that as for reading, phantom record is allowed, and for writing, they must be thread-safe so there won't be any lost updates. So I have something like public static List<string> list = new List<string>(); In Methods that have **List.Add**/**List.Remove** , I always lock to assure thread safety lock (lockHelper) { list.Add(obj); or list.Remove(obj); } In Methods that requires **List Reading** I don't care about phantom record so I go ahead to read without any locking. In this case. Return a bool by checking whether a string had been added. if (list.Count() != 0) { return list.Contains("some string") } All I did was locking write accesses, and allow read accesses to go through without any locking. Is my thread safety idea valid? I understand there is List size expansion. Will it be ok? My guess is that when a List is expanding, it may uses a temp. list. This is ok becasue the temp list size will always have a boundary, and .Net class is well implemented, ie. there shouldn't be any indexOutOfBound or circular reference problems when reading was caught in updates.

    Read the article

  • Access to and availability of private member functions in C++

    - by David
    I am wandering the desert of my brain. I'm trying to write something like the following: class MyClass { // Peripherally Related Stuff public: void TakeAnAction(int oneThing, int anotherThing) { switch(oneThing){ case THING_A: TakeThisActionWith(anotherThing); break; //cases THINGS_NOT_A: }; }; private: void TakeThisActionWith(int thing) { string outcome = new string; outcome = LookUpOutcome(thing); // Do some stuff based on outcome return; } string LookUpOutcome(int key) { string oc = new string; oc = MyPrivateMap[key]; return oc; } map<int, string> MyPrivateMap; Then in the .cc file where I am actually using these things, while compiling the TakeAnAction section, it [CC, the solaris compiler] throws an an error: 'The function LookUpOutcome must have a prototype' and bombs out. In my header file, I have declared 'string LookUpOutcome(int key);' in the private section of the class. I have tried all sorts of variations. I tried to use 'this' for a little while, and it gave me 'Can only use this in non-static member function.' Sadly, I haven't declared anything static and these are all, putatively, member functions. I tried it [on TakeAnAction and LookUp] when I got the error, but I got something like, 'Can't access MyPrivateMap from LookUp'. MyPrivateMap could be made public and I could refer to it directly, I guess, but my sensibility says that is not the right way to go about this [that means that namespace scoped helper functions are out, I think]. I also guess I could just inline the lookup and subsequent other stuff, but my line-o-meter goes on tilt. I'm trying desperately not to kludge it.

    Read the article

  • How do browser cookie domains work?

    - by Vilx-
    Due to weird domain/subdomain cookie issues that I'm getting, I'd like to know how browsers handle cookies. If they do it in different ways, it would also be nice to know the differences. In other words - when a browser receives a cookie, that cookie MAY have a domain and a path attached to it. Or not, in which case the browser probably substitutes some defaults for them. Question 1: what are they? Later, when the browser is about to make a request, it checks its cookies and filters out the ones it should send for that request. It does so by matching them against the requests path and domain. Question 2: what are the matching rules? Added: The reason I'm asking this is because I'm interested in some edge cases. Like: Will a cookie for .example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for .example.com be available for example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for anotherexample.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for www2.example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for .com? Etc. Added 2: Also, could someone suggest how I should set a cookie so that: It can be set by either www.example.com or example.com; It is accessible by both www.example.com and example.com.

    Read the article

  • why the exception is not caught?

    - by Álvaro García
    I have the following code: List<MyEntity> lstAllMyRecords = miDbContext.MyEntity.ToList<MyEntity>(); foreach MyEntity iterator in lstMainRecord) { tasks.Add( TaskEx.Run(() => { try { checkData(lstAllMyRecords.Where(n => n.IDReference == iterator.IDReference).ToList<MyEntity>()); } catch CustomRepository ex) { //handle my custom repository } catch (Exception) { throw; } }) ); }//foreach Task.WaitAll(tasks.ToArray()); I get all the records from my data base and in the foreach loop, I group all the records that have the same IDReference. Thenk I check if the data is correct with the method chekData. The checkData method throw a custom exception if something is wrong. I would like to catch this exception to handle it. But the problem is that with this code the exceptions are not caught and all seem to work without errors, but I know that this is not true. I try to check only one group of records that I know that has problems. If I check only one group of registrers, the loop is execute once and then only task is created. In this case the exception is caught, but if I have many groups, then any exception s thrwon. Why when I only have one task the exception is caught and with many groups are not? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Create an index only on certain rows in mysql

    - by dhruvbird
    So, I have this funny requirement of creating an index on a table only on a certain set of rows. This is what my table looks like: USER: userid, friendid, created, blah0, blah1, ..., blahN Now, I'd like to create an index on: (userid, friendid, created) but only on those rows where userid = friendid. The reason being that this index is only going to be used to satisfy queries where the WHERE clause contains "userid = friendid". There will be many rows where this is NOT the case, and I really don't want to waste all that extra space on the index. Another option would be to create a table (query table) which is populated on insert/update of this table and create a trigger to do so, but again I am guessing an index on that table would mean that the data would be stored twice. How does mysql store Primary Keys? I mean is the table ordered on the Primary Key or is it ordered by insert order and the PK is like a normal unique index? I checked up on clustered indexes (http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/innodb-index-types.html), but it seems only InnoDB supports them. I am using MyISAM (I mention this because then I could have created a clustered index on these 3 fields in the query table). I am basically looking for something like this: ALTER TABLE USERS ADD INDEX (userid, friendid, created) WHERE userid=friendid

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783  | Next Page >