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• Is there a recommended approach to handle saving data in response to within-site navigation without

  - by Carvell Fenton

  Hello all, Preamble to scope my question: I have a web app (or site, this is an internal LAN site) that uses jQuery and AJAX extensively to dynamically load the content section of the UI in the browser. A user navigates the app using a navigation menu. Clicking an item in the navigation menu makes an AJAX call to php, and php then returns the content that is used to populate the central content section. One of the pages served back by php has a table form, set up like a spreadsheet, that the user enters values into. This table is always kept in sync with data in the database. So, when the table is created, is it populated with the relevant database data. Then when the user makes a change in a "cell", that change immediately is written back to the database so the table and database are always in sync. This approach was take to reassure users that the data they entered has been saved (long story...), and to alleviate them from having to click a save button of some kind. So, this always in sync idea is great, except that a user can enter a value in a cell, not take focus out of the cell, and then take any number of actions that would cause that last value to be lost: e.g. navigate to another section of the site via the navigation menu, log out of the app, close the browser, etc. End of preamble, on to the issue: I initially thought that wasn't a problem, because I would just track what data was "dirty" or not saved, and then in the onunload event I would do a final write to the database. Herein lies the rub: because of my clever (or not so clever, not sure) use of AJAX and dynamically loading the content section, the user never actually leaves the original url, or page, when the above actions are taken, with the exception of closing the browser. Therefore, the onunload event does not fire, and I am back to losing the last data again. My question, is there a recommended way to handle figuring out if a person is navigating away from a "section" of your app when content is dynamically loaded this way? I can come up with a solution I think, that involves globals and tracking the currently viewed page, but I thought I would check if there might be a more elegant solution out there, or a change I could make in my design, that would make this work. Thanks in advance as always!

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• Why is my namespace not recognized in Visual Studio / xaml

  - by msfanboy

  Hello, these are my 2 classes a Attachable Property SelectedItems: code is from here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1297643/sync-selecteditems-in-a-muliselect-listbox-with-a-collection-in-viewmodel The namespace TBM.Helper is for sure proper as it works for other classes too. The namespace reference is also in the xaml file: xmlns:Helper="clr_namespace:TBM.Helper" But <ListBox Helper:SelectedItems.Items="{Binding SelectedItems}" ... does not work because = The property 'SelectedItems.Items' does not exist in XML namespace 'clr_namespace:TBM.Helper'. The attachable property 'Items' was not found in type 'SelectedItems What do I have to change ? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Collections; using System.Windows; namespace TBM.Helper { public static class SelectedItems : DependencyObject { private static readonly DependencyProperty SelectedItemsBehaviorProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "SelectedItemsBehavior", typeof(SelectedItemsBehavior), typeof(ListBox), null); public static readonly DependencyProperty ItemsProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "Items", typeof(IList), typeof(SelectedItems), new PropertyMetadata(null, ItemsPropertyChanged)); public static void SetItems(ListBox listBox, IList list) { listBox.SetValue(ItemsProperty, list); } public static IList GetItems(ListBox listBox) { return listBox.GetValue(ItemsProperty) as IList; } private static void ItemsPropertyChanged(DependencyObject d, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { var target = d as ListBox; if (target != null) { GetOrCreateBehavior(target, e.NewValue as IList); } } private static SelectedItemsBehavior GetOrCreateBehavior(ListBox target, IList list) { var behavior = target.GetValue(SelectedItemsBehaviorProperty) as SelectedItemsBehavior; if (behavior == null) { behavior = new SelectedItemsBehavior(target, list); target.SetValue(SelectedItemsBehaviorProperty, behavior); } return behavior; } } } using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Collections; namespace TBM.Helper { public class SelectedItemsBehavior { private readonly ListBox _listBox; private readonly IList _boundList; public SelectedItemsBehavior(ListBox listBox, IList boundList) { _boundList = boundList; _listBox = listBox; SetSelectedItems(); _listBox.SelectionChanged += OnSelectionChanged; _listBox.DataContextChanged += OnDataContextChanged; } private void SetSelectedItems() { _listBox.SelectedItems.Clear(); foreach (object item in _boundList) { // References in _boundList might not be the same as in _listBox.Items int i = _listBox.Items.IndexOf(item); if (i >= 0) _listBox.SelectedItems.Add(_listBox.Items[i]); } } private void OnDataContextChanged(object sender, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { SetSelectedItems(); } private void OnSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { _boundList.Clear(); foreach (var item in _listBox.SelectedItems) _boundList.Add(item); } } }

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• Memory allocation and release for UIImage in iPhone?

  - by rkbang

  Hello all, I am using following code in iPhone to get smaller cropped image as follows: - (UIImage*) getSmallImage:(UIImage*) img { CGSize size = img.size; CGFloat ratio = 0; if (size.width < size.height) { ratio = 36 / size.width; } else { ratio = 36 / size.height; } CGRect rect = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, ratio * size.width, ratio * size.height); UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); [img drawInRect:rect]; UIImage *tempImg = [UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext() retain]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); return [tempImg autorelease]; } - (UIImage*)imageByCropping:(UIImage *)imageToCrop toRect:(CGRect)rect { //create a context to do our clipping in UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); CGContextRef currentContext = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //create a rect with the size we want to crop the image to //the X and Y here are zero so we start at the beginning of our //newly created context CGFloat X = (imageToCrop.size.width - rect.size.width)/2; CGFloat Y = (imageToCrop.size.height - rect.size.height)/2; CGRect clippedRect = CGRectMake(X, Y, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); //CGContextClipToRect( currentContext, clippedRect); //create a rect equivalent to the full size of the image //offset the rect by the X and Y we want to start the crop //from in order to cut off anything before them CGRect drawRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, imageToCrop.size.width, imageToCrop.size.height); CGContextTranslateCTM(currentContext, 0.0, drawRect.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(currentContext, 1.0, -1.0); //draw the image to our clipped context using our offset rect //CGContextDrawImage(currentContext, drawRect, imageToCrop.CGImage); CGImageRef tmp = CGImageCreateWithImageInRect(imageToCrop.CGImage, clippedRect); //pull the image from our cropped context UIImage *cropped = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:tmp];//UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); CGImageRelease(tmp); //pop the context to get back to the default UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); //Note: this is autoreleased*/ return cropped; } I am using following line of code in cellForRowAtIndexPath to update the image of the cell: cell.img.image = [self imageByCropping:[self getSmallImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"goal_image.png"]] toRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 36, 36)]; Now when I add this table view and pop it from navigation controller, I see a memory hike.I see no leaks but memory keeps climbing. Please note that the images changes for each row and I am creating the controller using lazy initialization that is I create or alloc it whenever I need it. I saw on internet many people facing the same issue, but very rare good solutions. I have multiple views using the same way and I see almost memory raised to 4MB within 20-25 view transitions. What is the good solution to resolve this issue. tnx.

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• iPhone Debugger Message -- Weird

  - by Bill Shiff

  Hello, I have an iPhone app that I've been working on and have recently upgraded my version of XCode. Since the upgrade, I can build and debug in the iPhone Simulator just fine, but when I try to debug on an attached device I get the following messages: From Xcode4: GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1510) (Fri Oct 22 04:12:10 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "--host=i386-apple-darwin --target=arm-apple-darwin".tty /dev/ttys001 sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all warning: Unable to read symbols from "dyld" (prefix __dyld_) (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/MessageUI.framework/MessageUI (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "MessageUI" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/MapKit.framework/MapKit (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "MapKit" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "Foundation" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/UIKit.framework/UIKit (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "UIKit" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/CoreGraphics.framework/CoreGraphics (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreGraphics" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreData" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "QuartzCore" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "libgcc_s.1.dylib" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "libSystem.B.dylib" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "libobjc.A.dylib" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreFoundation" (not yet mapped into memory). target remote-mobile /tmp/.XcodeGDBRemote-3836-28 Switching to remote-macosx protocol mem 0x1000 0x3fffffff cache mem 0x40000000 0xffffffff none mem 0x00000000 0x0fff none [Switching to thread 11523] [Switching to thread 11523] gdb stack crawl at point of internal error: 0 gdb-arm-apple-darwin 0x0013216e internal_vproblem + 316

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• Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

  - by Volomike

  I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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• Trying to understand the usage of class_eval

  - by eMxyzptlk

  Hello everyone, I'm using the rails-settings gem, and I'm trying to understand how you add functions to ActiveRecord classes (I'm building my own library for card games), and I noticed that this gem uses one of the Meta-programming techniques to add the function to the ActiveRecord::Base class (I'm far from Meta-programming master in ruby, but I'm trying to learn it) module RailsSettings class Railtie < Rails::Railtie initializer 'rails_settings.initialize', :after => :after_initialize do Railtie.extend_active_record end end class Railtie def self.extend_active_record ActiveRecord::Base.class_eval do def self.has_settings class_eval do def settings RailsSettings::ScopedSettings.for_thing(self) end scope :with_settings, :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :select => "DISTINCT #{self.table_name}.*" scope :with_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'" } } scope :without_settings, :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' scope :without_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' } } end end end end end end What I don't understand is why he uses class_eval on ActiveRecord::Base, wasn't it easier if he just open the ActiveRecord::Base class and define the functions? Specially that there's nothing dynamic in the block (What I mean by dynamic is when you do class_eval or instance_eval on a string containing variables) something like this: module ActiveRecord class Base def self.has_settings class_eval do def settings RailsSettings::ScopedSettings.for_thing(self) end scope :with_settings, :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :select => "DISTINCT #{self.table_name}.*" scope :with_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'" } } scope :without_settings, :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' scope :without_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' } } end end end end I understand the second class_eval (before the def settings) is to define functions on the fly on every class that 'has_settings' right ? Same question here, I think he could use "def self.settings" instead of "class_eval.... def settings", no ?

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• JavaScript - Cross Site Scripting - Permission Denied

  - by Villager

  Hello, I have a web application for which I am trying to use Twitter's OAuth functionality. This application has a link that prompts a user for their Twitter credentials. When a user clicks this link, a new window is opened via JavaScript. This window serves as a dialog. This is accomplished like such: MainPage: <div id="promptDiv"><a href="#" onclick="launchDialog('twitter/prompt.aspx');">Provide Credentials</a></div> ... function launchDialog(url) { var specs = "location=0,menubar=0,status=0,titlebar=0,toolbar=0"; var dialogWindow = window.open(url, "dialog", specs, true); } When a user clicks the link, they are redirected to Twitter's site from the prompt.aspx page. On the Twitter site, the user has the option to enter their Twitter credentials. When they have provided their credentials, they are redirected back to my site. This is accomplished through a callback url which can be set for applications on Twitter's site. When the callback happens, the user is redirected to "/twitter/confirm.aspx" on my site in the dialog window. When this happens I want to update the contents of "promptDiv" to say "You have successfully connected with Twitter" to replace the link and close the dialog. This serves the purpose of notifying the user they have successfully completed this step. I can successfully close the dialog window. However, when I am try to update the HTML DOM, I receive an error that says "Error: Permission denied to get property Window.document". In an attempt to update the HTML DOM, I tried using the following script in "/twitter/confirm.aspx": // Error is thrown on the first line. var confirmDiv = window.opener.document.getElementById("confirmDiv"); if (confirmDiv != null) { // Update the contents } window.close(); I then just tried to read the HTML to see if I could even access the DOM via the following script: alert(window.opener.document.body.innerHTML); When I attempted this, I still got a "Permission denied" error. I know this has something to do with cross-site scripting. However, I do not know how to resolve it. How do I fix this problem? Am I structuring my application incorrectly? How do I update the HTML DOM after a user has been redirected back to my site? Thank you for your help!

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• how to get mxml file in ActionScript class

  - by nemade-vipin

  hello friend I want to refer my mxml file into Actionscript class.My code is :- Mxml file is :- var User:Authentication; User = new Authentication(); User.authentication(); } ]] <mx:Panel width="100%" height="100%" layout="absolute"> <mx:TabNavigator width="100%" height="100%" id="viewstack2"> <mx:Form label="Login Form" id="loginform"> <mx:FormItem label="Mobile no:" creationPolicy="all"> <mx:TextInput id="mobileno"/> </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem label="Password:" creationPolicy="all"> <mx:TextInput displayAsPassword="true" id="password" /> </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem> <mx:Button label="Login" click="authentication()"/> </mx:FormItem> </mx:Form> <mx:Form label="Child List"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select Child."/> </mx:Form> </mx:TabNavigator> </mx:Panel> Action script class is package SBTSBusineesObject { import generated.webservices.*; import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.FaultEvent; public class Authentication { [Bindable] private var childName:ArrayCollection; [Bindable] private var childId:ArrayCollection; private var photoFeed:ArrayCollection; private var arrayOfchild:Array; private var newEntry:GetSBTSMobileAuthentication; public var user:SBTSWebService; public var mxmlobj:SBTS =null; public function authentication():void { user = new SBTSWebService(); mxmlobj = new SBTS(); if(user!=null) { user.addSBTSWebServiceFaultEventListener(handleFaults); user.addgetSBTSMobileAuthenticationEventListener(authenticationResult); newEntry = new GetSBTSMobileAuthentication(); if(newEntry!=null) { if(mxmlobj != null) { newEntry.mobile = mxmlobj.mobileno.text ; newEntry.password=mxmlobj.password.text; } user.getSBTSMobileAuthentication(newEntry); } } } public function handleFaults(event:FaultEvent):void { Alert.show("A fault occured contacting the server. Fault message is: " + event.fault.faultString); } public function authenticationResult(event:GetSBTSMobileAuthenticationResultEvent):void { if(event.result != null && event.result._return>0) { if(event.result._return > 0) { var UserId:int = event.result._return; if(mxmlobj != null) { mxmlobj.loginform.enabled = false; mxmlobj.viewstack2.selectedIndex=1; } } else { Alert.show("Authentication fail"); } } } } }

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• ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

  - by David Lively

  I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

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• LoaderContext and ApplicationDomain changes with Adobe AIR ?

  - by Tyn

  Hello, I'm currently experimenting with loading external SWF files from both an standard AS3 application, and an AIR application. It seems that the AIR application doesn't act the same way a standard SWF run by the Flash Player does. According to the documentation, the applicationDomain property of LoaderContext is usable in an AIR application too, but it just seems to be not working. I have the following code : package { import flash.display.Loader; import flash.display.LoaderInfo; import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.events.Event; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.system.ApplicationDomain; import flash.system.LoaderContext; public class Invoker extends Sprite { private var _ldr : Loader; public function Invoker() { _ldr = new Loader(); _ldr.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onChildOneComplete); var ldrC : LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(false, new ApplicationDomain(ApplicationDomain.currentDomain) ); _ldr.load(new URLRequest("otherSwf.swf"), ldrC); } private function onChildOneComplete(e : Event) : void { var c1ad : ApplicationDomain = (e.target as LoaderInfo).applicationDomain; var inad : ApplicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; trace("Child One parentDomain : " + c1ad.parentDomain); trace("Invoker parentDomain : " + inad.parentDomain); trace("Child One has Invoker : " + c1ad.hasDefinition("Invoker")); trace("Invoker has Invoker : " + inad.hasDefinition("Invoker")); } } } Compiling this code as an SWF file and launching it with the Flash Player does this output, which seems right : Child One parentDomain : [object ApplicationDomain] Invoker parentDomain : null Child One has Invoker : true Invoker has Invoker : true But the same code as an AIR application does a different output : Child One parentDomain : null Invoker parentDomain : null Child One has Invoker : false Invoker has Invoker : true According to the documentation, the first output (using a SWF with Flash Player, and not an AIR application) is the right one. Also, playing around with this snippet and changing the application domain to others possible configurations (like new ApplicationDomain(null), or ApplicationDomain.currentDomain) does exaclty what the documentation says with the SWF, but does not change the output of the AIR application. Any clue why AIR is simply ignoring the application domain passed to the loader context ? Any documentation about this particular issue ? Thank you very much.

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• How can I implement ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

  - by Cheeso

  I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio)

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• set/unset checkboxes in JSF

  - by mykola

  Hello, i've got one problem with checkboxes in JSF. I want them to behave dependently on each other, e.g., when i check a box which belongs to some object that has children then all checkboxes that belong to these children components must be checked either. And also when i uncheck one of child's checkbox the parent should be unchecked too. It's pretty simple with plain HTML/javascript, but i can't do anything with this under JSF. For some reason i can't set ID's for them because all checkboxes are rendered dynamically in a treetable and it prevents me from setting my own ID's, i.e. whatever i set in ID property only constant part will apply, all dynamic data that i pass is ignored. I tried to do it through valueChangeListener or validator but in both cases after i set needed values something sets them back! I don't know who does it and i can't do anything with this. Here's some code (i use OpenFaces treeTable): <o:treeTable id="instTreeTable" var="inst" ...> <...> <o:column id="isGranted" width="10%"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="#{msg.access_granted}" /> </f:facet> <h:selectBooleanCheckbox value="#{inst.assignedToUser}" styleClass="treeTableText" valueChangeListener="#{MbUserInstitutions.onAccessGrantedChanged}" > <a4j:support event="onchange" reRender="instTreeTable"/> </h:selectBooleanCheckbox> </o:column> <...> </o:treeTable> MbUserInstitutions: public void onAccessGrantedChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { Boolean granted = (Boolean) event.getNewValue(); Institution inst = getInstitution(); if (granted.booleanValue() && inst.hasChildren()) { setChildrenInsts(inst); } else if (!granted.booleanValue() && inst.getParentId() != null){ unsetParentInst(inst); } } private Institution getInstitution() { return (Institution) Faces.var("inst"); } private void setChildrenInsts(Institution parent) { for (Institution child: parent.getChildren()) { child.setAssignedToUser(true); if (child.hasChildren()) { setChildrenInsts(child); } } } private void unsetParentInst(Institution child) { child.setAssignedToUser(false); for (Institution inst: coreInsts) { if (inst.getId().equals(child.getParentId())) { unsetParentInst(inst); break; } } }

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• how to handle a array of objects in a session

  - by Robert

  Hello, In the project I'm working on I have got a list List<Item> with objects that Is saved in a session. Session.Add("SessionName", List); In the Controller I build a viewModel with the data from this session var arrayList = (List<Item>)Session["SessionName"]; var arrayListItems= new List<CartItem>(); foreach (var item in arrayList) { var listItem = new Item { Amount = item.Amount, Variant= item.variant, Id = item.Id }; arrayListItems.Add(listItem); } var viewModel = new DetailViewModel { itemList = arrayListItems } and in my View I loop trough the list of Items and make a form for all of them to be able to remove the item. <table> <%foreach (var Item in Model.itemList) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <tr> <td><%=Html.Hidden(Settings.Prefix + ".VariantId", Item .Variant.Id)%> <td> <%=Html.TextBox(Settings.Prefix + ".Amount", Item.Amount)%></td> <td> <%=Html.Encode(Item.Amount)%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Remove" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> <% } %> </table> When the post from the submit button is handeld the item is removed from the array and post back exactly the same viewModel (with 1 item less in the itemList). return View("view.ascx", viewModel); When the post is handled and the view has reloaded the value's of the html.Hidden and Html.Textbox are the value's of the removed item. The value of the html.Encode is the correct value. When i reload the page the correct values are in the fields. Both times i build the viewModel the exact same way. I cant find the cause or solution of this error. I would be very happy with any help to solve this problem Thanx in advance for any tips or help

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• Creating a generic NotFound View in ASP.MVC

  - by George

  Hello guys, I'm having a problem to create a generic View to represent NotFound pages. The view is created and it's fine. I need to know how i can direct the user to the NotFound view in my Controllers and how to render a specific "Return to Index" in each controller. Here is some code: public class NotFoundModel { private string _contentName; private string _notFoundTitle; private string _apologiesMessage; public string ContentName { get; private set; } public string NotFoundTitle { get; private set; } public string ApologiesMessage { get; private set; } public NotFoundModel(string contentName, string notFoundTitle, string apologiesMessage) { this._contentName = contentName; this._notFoundTitle = notFoundTitle; this._apologiesMessage = apologiesMessage; } } // NotFound View <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Geographika.Models.NotFoundModel>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> <%= Html.Encode(Model.ContentName) %> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2><%= Html.Encode(Model.NotFoundTitle) %></h2> <p><%= Html.Encode(Model.ApologiesMessage) %></p> <!-- How can i render here a specific "BackToIndexView", but that it's not bound to my NotFoundModel? --> </asp:Content> // Controller piece of code // // GET: /Term/Details/2 public ActionResult Details(int id) { Term term = termRepository.SingleOrDefault(t => t.TermId == id); if (term == null) return View("NotFound"); // how can i return the specific view that its not bound to Term Model? // the idea here would be something like: // return View("NotFound",new NotFoundModel("a","b","c")); else return View("Details", term); } I'm not sure how to redirect to a whole different page. Can anyone give me any pointers? Thanks

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• SQL Server CTE referred in self joins slow

  - by Kharlos Dominguez

  Hello, I have written a table-valued UDF that starts by a CTE to return a subset of the rows from a large table. There are several joins in the CTE. A couple of inner and one left join to other tables, which don't contain a lot of rows. The CTE has a where clause that returns the rows within a date range, in order to return only the rows needed. I'm then referencing this CTE in 4 self left joins, in order to build subtotals using different criterias. The query is quite complex but here is a simplified pseudo-version of it WITH DataCTE as ( SELECT [columns] FROM table INNER JOIN table2 ON [...] INNER JOIN table3 ON [...] LEFT JOIN table3 ON [...] ) SELECT [aggregates_columns of each subset] FROM DataCTE Main LEFT JOIN DataCTE BananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality = 100 LEFT JOIN DataCTE DamagedBananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality < 20 LEFT JOIN DataCTE MangosSubset ON [...] GROUP BY [ I have the feeling that SQL Server gets confused and calls the CTE for each self join, which seems confirmed by looking at the execution plan, although I confess not being an expert at reading those. I would have assumed SQL Server to be smart enough to only perform the data retrieval from the CTE only once, rather than do it several times. I have tried the same approach but rather than using a CTE to get the subset of the data, I used the same select query as in the CTE, but made it output to a temp table instead. The version referring the CTE version takes 40 seconds. The version referring the temp table takes between 1 and 2 seconds. Why isn't SQL Server smart enough to keep the CTE results in memory? I like CTEs, especially in this case as my UDF is a table-valued one, so it allowed me to keep everything in a single statement. To use a temp table, I would need to write a multi-statement table valued UDF, which I find a slightly less elegant solution. Did some of you had this kind of performance issues with CTE, and if so, how did you get them sorted? Thanks, Kharlos

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• Implementing events to communicate between two processes - C

  - by Jamie Keeling

  Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Create thread: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'm trying to find out how I would integrate an event with the threaded code to signify to the other process that something has happened, I've seen an MSDN article on using events but it's just confused me if anything, I'm coming up on empty whilst searching on the internet too. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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• How to retrieve parent container ID after sorting using Jquery sortable??

  - by user187580

  Hello I have following markup and javascript to sort some items. Items can be sorted within a block or across other blocks. It works but I have a problem in retrieving correct block ID after an item is moved from one block to another. For example, if I move item 1 within "Block 1", I get "I am in Block= block_1" but if I move Item 1 to Block 2 I still get I am in Block 1. But I want to make the block 2 as its parent container. I need to retrieve this id so that I can do some ajax and update the db accordingly. Can you please help me correct this?? <div id="blocks_sortable"> <div id="block_1"> <h2>Block 1</h2> <div class="items_sortable connectedSortable"> <div id="item_1"> <span>Item 1</span></div> <div id="item_2"> <span>Item 2</span></div> <div id="item_3"> <span>Item 3</span></div> </div> </div> <div id="block_2"> <h2>Block 2</h2> <div class="items_sortable connectedSortable"> <div id="item_4"> <span>Item 4</span></div> <div id="item_5"> <span>Item 5</span></div> <div id="item_6"> <span>Item 6</span></div> </div> </div> </div> <script> $("#blocks_sortable").sortable({ }); $(".items_sortable").sortable({ connectWith: '.connectedSortable' , forcePlaceholderSize: true , stop : function(event, ui){ alert("I am in block = "+$(this).parent().attr("id")); } }).disableSelection(); </script> Thank you.

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• Problems with creating and using of delegate-protocols

  - by Flocked

  Hello, I have the problem that I have created a delegate protocol, but the necessary methods are not executed, although I have implemented the protocol in my header file. Here are the detailed explanation: I created an instance of my ViewController (TimeLineViewController), which will be displayed. This ViewController contains a UITableView, which in turn receives the individual Cells / Rows from one instance of my TableViewCell. So the ViewController creates an instance of TableCellView. The TableViewCell contains a UITextView, which contains web links. Now I want, that not safari opens the links, but my own built-in browser. Unfortunately TableViewCell can not open a new ViewController with a WebView, so I decided to create a delegate protocol. The whole thing looks like this: WebViewTableCellDelegate.h: @protocol WebViewTableCellDelegate -(void)loadWeb; @end Then I created a instance WebViewDelegate in the TableViewCell: id <WebViewTableCellDelegate> _delegate; In the .m of the TableViewCell: @interface UITextView (Override) @end @class WebView, WebFrame; @protocol WebPolicyDecisionListener; @implementation UITextView (Override) - (void)webView:(WebView *)webView decidePolicyForNavigationAction:(NSDictionary *)actionInformation request:(NSURLRequest *)request frame:(WebFrame *)frame decisionListener:(id < WebPolicyDecisionListener >)listener { NSLog(@"request: %@", request); [_delegate loadWeb]; } @end - (void)setDelegate:(id <WebViewTableCellDelegate>)delegate{ _delegate = delegate;} And in my TimeLineViewController I implemented the protocol with < and the loadWeb-metode: - (void)loadWeb{ WebViewController *web = [[WebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; web.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController: web animated:YES]; [web release]; } And when the instance of the TableViewCell will be created in the TimelineViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; MyIdentifier = @"tableCell"; TableViewCell *cell = (TableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if(cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TableViewCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = tableCell;} [cell setDelegate:self]; //… } It is the first time I created a own delegate-protocol, so maybe there are stupid mistakes. Also I´m learnung Objective-C and programming generally only for 4 weeks. Thanks for your help! EDIT: I think i found the problem, but I dont know how to resolve it. I try to use [_delegate loadWeb]; in the subclass of the UITextView (because that is the only way i can react on the weblinks) and the subclass can´t use [_delegate loadWeb];. I tried this in a other methode and it worked.

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• Publish to Facebook Stream via PHP using Graph API

  - by Liquid

  I'm trying to post a message to a user's wall using the new graph API and PHP. Connection seems to work fine, but no post appears. I'm not sure how to set up the posting code correctly. Please help me out. Sorry for the broken-looking code, for some reason StackOverflow didn't want to close it all in the code block. Below is my full code. Am I missing an extender permission requests, or is that taken care in this code: PHP Code <?php include_once 'facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx', 'secret' => 'xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx', 'cookie' => true )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); if (!$session) { $url = $facebook->getLoginUrl(array( 'canvas' => 1, 'fbconnect' => 0 )); echo "<script type='text/javascript'>top.location.href = '$url';</script>"; } else { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); $updated = date("l, F j, Y", strtotime($me['updated_time'])); echo "Hello " . $me['name'] . "<br />"; echo "You last updated your profile on " . $updated; $connectUrl = $facebook->getUrl( 'www', 'login.php', array_merge(array( 'api_key' => $facebook->getAppId(), 'cancel_url' => 'http://www.test.com', 'req_perms' => 'publish_stream', 'display' => 'page', 'fbconnect' => 1, 'next' => 'http://www.test.com', 'return_session' => 1, 'session_version' => 3, 'v' => '1.0', ), $params) ); $result = $facebook->api( '/me/feed/', 'post', array('access_token' => $facebook->access_token, 'message' => 'Playing around with FB Graph..') ); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { echo "Error:" . print_r($e, true); } } ?>

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• Making a Login Work After Cache, Cookies, etc. Have Been Cleared

  - by John

  Hello, I am using the code below for a user login. The first I try to login after cache / cookies, etc. have been cleared, the browser refreshes and the user name is not logged in. After that, logging in works fine. Any idea how I can make it work the first time? Thanks in advance, John index.php: <?php if($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == "POST"){header('Location: http://www...com/.../index.php?username='.$username.'&password='.$password.'');} require_once "header.php"; include "login.php"; require_once "footer.php"; ?> login.php: <?php if (!isLoggedIn()) { if (isset($_POST['cmdlogin'])) { if (checkLogin($_POST['username'], $_POST['password'])) { show_userbox(); } else { echo "Incorrect Login information !"; show_loginform(); } } else { show_loginform(); } } else { show_userbox(); } ?> show_loginform function: function show_loginform($disabled = false) { echo '<form name="login-form" id="login-form" method="post" action="./index.php?'.$_SERVER['QUERY_STRING'].'"> <div class="usernameformtext"><label title="Username">Username: </label></div> <div class="usernameformfield"><input tabindex="1" accesskey="u" name="username" type="text" maxlength="30" id="username" /></div> <div class="passwordformtext"><label title="Password">Password: </label></div> <div class="passwordformfield"><input tabindex="2" accesskey="p" name="password" type="password" maxlength="15" id="password" /></div> <div class="registertext"><a href="http://www...com/.../register.php" title="Register">Register</a></div> <div class="lostpasswordtext"><a href="http://www...com/.../lostpassword.php" title="Lost Password">Lost password?</a></div> <p class="loginbutton"><input tabindex="3" accesskey="l" type="submit" name="cmdlogin" value="Login" '; if ($disabled == true) { echo 'disabled="disabled"'; } echo ' /></p></form>'; }

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• Loading images to UIScrollview crashes

  - by Icky

  Hello All. I have a Navigationcontroller pushing a UIViewController with a scrollview inside. Within the scrollview I download a certain number of images around 20 (sometimes more) each sized around 150 KB. All these images are added to the scrollview so that their origin is x +imageSize and the following is sorted right to the one before. All in all I think its a lot of data (3-4 MB). On an I pod Touch this sometimes crashes, the IPhone can handle it once, if it has to load the data again (some other images) , it crashes too. I guess its a memory issue but within my code, I download the image, save it to a file on the phone as NSData, read it again from file and add it to a UIImageview which I release. So I have freed the memory I allocated, nevertheless it still crashes. Can anyone help me out? Since Im new to this, I dont know the best way to handle the Images in a scrollview. Besides I create the controller at start from nib, which means I dont have to release it, since I dont use alloc - right? Code: In my rootviewcontroller I do: -(void) showImages { [[self naviController] pushViewController:imagesViewController animated:YES]; [imagesViewController viewWillAppear:YES]; } Then in my Controller handling the scroll View, this is the method to load the images: - (void) loadOldImageData { for (int i = 0; i < 40 ; i++) { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *filePath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"img%d.jpg", i]]; NSData *myImg = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; UIImage *im = [UIImage imageWithData:myImg]; if([im isKindOfClass:[UIImage class]]) { NSLog(@"IM EXISTS"); UIImageView *imgView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:im]; CGRect frame = CGRectMake(i*320, 0, 320, 416); imgView.frame = frame; [myScrollView addSubview:imgView]; [imgView release]; //NSLog(@"Adding img %d", i); numberImages = i; NSLog(@"setting numberofimages to %d", numberImages); //NSLog(@"scroll subviews %d", [myScrollView.subviews count]); } } myScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(320 * (numberImages + 1), 416); }

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• AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

  - by Joern

  Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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• Missing parameter error after running MySql query

  - by annelie

  Hello, I'm completely new to MySql and haven't used SqlDataSource with UpdateParameters before, so I'm probably missing something very obvious. When trying to update a record, the update does happen but then throws an error saying "'id' parameter is missing at the statement". So the query works and the database gets updated as it should, but an error is thrown afterwards. These are the update parameters: <UpdateParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="business_name" Type="string" Size="256" /> <asp:Parameter Name="addr_line_1" Type="string" Size="256" /> <asp:Parameter Name="addr_line_2" Type="string" Size="256" /> <asp:Parameter Name="addr_line_3" Type="string" Size="256" /> <asp:Parameter Name="postcode" Type="string" Size="32" /> <asp:Parameter Name="county" Type="string" Size="128" /> <asp:Parameter Name="town_city" Type="string" Size="256" /> <asp:Parameter Name="tl_url" Type="string" Size="256" /> <asp:Parameter Name="customer_id" Type="string" Size="16" /> <asp:Parameter Name="region_id" Type="Int16" /> <asp:Parameter Name="description" Type="string" Size="1024" /> <asp:Parameter Name="approval_status" Type="string" Size="1" /> <asp:Parameter Name="tl_user_name" Type="string" Size="256" /> <asp:Parameter Name="phone" Type="string" Size="50" /> <asp:Parameter Name="uploaders_own" Type="Int16" /> </UpdateParameters> Here's the update statement: UPDATE myTable SET business_name = ?, addr_line_1 = ?, addr_line_2 = ?, addr_line_3 = ?, postcode = ?, county = ?, town_city = ?, tl_url = ?, customer_id = ?, region_id = ?, description = ?, approval_status = ?, tl_user_name = ?, phone = ?, uploaders_own = ? WHERE id = " + id Here's the stack trace: [InvalidOperationException: 'id' parameter is missing at the statement] CoreLab.MySql.r.a() +775 CoreLab.MySql.r.a(Int32& A_0, ArrayList& A_1) +448 CoreLab.MySql.x.e() +398 CoreLab.MySql.x.o() +89 CoreLab.MySql.MySqlCommand.a(CommandBehavior A_0, IDisposable A_1, Int32 A_2, Int32 A_3) +1306 CoreLab.Common.DbCommandBase.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +310 System.Data.Common.DbCommand.ExecuteReader() +12 CoreLab.Common.DbCommandBase.ExecuteNonQuery() +64 System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSourceView.ExecuteDbCommand(DbCommand command, DataSourceOperation operation) +386 System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +325 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DetailsView.HandleUpdate(String commandArg, Boolean causesValidation) +837 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DetailsView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +509 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DetailsView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DetailsViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +113 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +135 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +10 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +13 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +175 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1565 Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong? Thanks, Annelie

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• How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

  - by Tal Galili

  Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

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• Objective-C++ Memory Problem

  - by Stephen Furlani

  Hello, I'm having memory woes. I've got a C++ Library (Equalizer from Eyescale) and they use the Traversal Visitor Pattern to allow you to add new functionality to their classes. I've finally figured out how it works, and I've got a Visitor that just returns the properties from one of the objects. (since I don't know how they're allocated). so. My little code does this: VisitorResult AGLContextVisitor::visit( Channel* channel ) { // Search through Nodes, Pipes until we get to the right window. // Add some code to make sure we find the right one? // Not executing the following code as C++ in gdb? eq::Window* w = channel->getWindow(); OSWindow* osw = w->getOSWindow(); AGLWindow* aw = (AGLWindow *)osw; AGLContext agl_ctx = aw->getAGLContext(); this->setContext(agl_ctx); return TRAVERSE_PRUNE; } So here's the problem. eq::Window* w = channel->getWindow(); (gdb) print w 0x0 BUT If I do this: (gdb) set objc-non-blocking-mode off (gdb) print w=channel->getWindow() 0x300effb9 // an honest memory location, and sets w as verified in the Debugger window of XCode. It does the same thing for osw. I don't get it. Why would something work in (gdb) but not in the code? The file is completely a cpp file, but it seems to be running in objc++, since I need to turn blocking off. Help!? I feel like I'm missing some memory-management basic thing here, either with C++ or Obj-C. [edit] channel-getWindow() is supposed to do this: /** @return the parent window. @version 1.0 */ Window* getWindow() { return _window; } The code also executes fine if I run it from a C++-only application. [edit] No... I tried creating a simple stand-alone program since I was tired of running it as a plugin. Messy to debug. And no, it doesn't run in the C++ program either. So I'm really at a loss as to what I'm doing wrong. Thanks, -- Stephen Furlani

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