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  • When is it worth using a BindingSource?

    - by Justin
    I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

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  • jQuery CSS plugin that returns computed style of element to pseudo clone that element?

    - by Keith Bentrup
    I'm looking for a way using jQuery to return an object of computed styles for the 1st matched element. I could then pass this object to another call of jQuery's css method. For example, with width, I can do the following to make the 2 divs have the same width: $('#div2').width($('#div1').width()); It would be nice if I could make a text input look like an existing span: $('#input1').css($('#span1').css()); where .css() with no argument returns an object that can be passed to .css(obj). (I can't find a jQuery plugin for this, but it seems like it should exist. If it doesn't exist, I'll turn mine below into a plugin and post it with all the properties that I use.) Basically, I want to pseudo clone certain elements but use a different tag. For example, I have an li element that I want to hide and put an input element over it that looks the same. When the user types, it looks like they are editing the element inline. I'm also open to other approaches for this pseudo cloning problem for editing. Any suggestions? Here's what I currently have. The only problem is just getting all the possible styles. This could be a ridiculously long list. jQuery.fn.css2 = jQuery.fn.css; jQuery.fn.css = function() { if (arguments.length) return jQuery.fn.css2.apply(this, arguments); var attr = ['font-family','font-size','font-weight','font-style','color', 'text-transform','text-decoration','letter-spacing','word-spacing', 'line-height','text-align','vertical-align','direction','background-color', 'background-image','background-repeat','background-position', 'background-attachment','opacity','width','height','top','right','bottom', 'left','margin-top','margin-right','margin-bottom','margin-left', 'padding-top','padding-right','padding-bottom','padding-left', 'border-top-width','border-right-width','border-bottom-width', 'border-left-width','border-top-color','border-right-color', 'border-bottom-color','border-left-color','border-top-style', 'border-right-style','border-bottom-style','border-left-style','position', 'display','visibility','z-index','overflow-x','overflow-y','white-space', 'clip','float','clear','cursor','list-style-image','list-style-position', 'list-style-type','marker-offset']; var len = attr.length, obj = {}; for (var i = 0; i < len; i++) obj[attr[i]] = jQuery.fn.css2.call(this, attr[i]); return obj; } Edit: I've now been using the code above for awhile. It works well and behaves exactly like the original css method with one exception: if 0 args are passed, it returns the computed style object. As you can see, it immediately calls the original css method if that's the case that applies. Otherwise, it gets the computed styles of all the listed properties (gathered from Firebug's computed style list). Although it's getting a long list of values, it's quite fast. Hope it's useful to others.

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  • Custom property editors do not work for request parameters in Spring MVC?

    - by dvd
    Hello, I'm trying to create a multiaction web controller using Spring annotations. This controller will be responsible for adding and removing user profiles and preparing reference data for the jsp page. @Controller public class ManageProfilesController { @InitBinder public void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) { binder.registerCustomEditor(UserAccount.class,"account", new UserAccountPropertyEditor(userManager)); binder.registerCustomEditor(Profile.class, "profile", new ProfilePropertyEditor(profileManager)); logger.info("Editors registered"); } @RequestMapping("remove") public void up( @RequestParam("account") UserAccount account, @RequestParam("profile") Profile profile) { ... } @RequestMapping("") public ModelAndView defaultView(@RequestParam("account") UserAccount account) { logger.info("Default view handling"); ModelAndView mav = new ModelAndView(); logger.info(account.getLogin()); mav.addObject("account", account); mav.addObject("profiles", profileManager.getProfiles()); mav.setViewName(view); return mav; } ... } Here is the part of my webContext.xml file: <context:component-scan base-package="ru.mirea.rea.webapp.controllers" /> <context:annotation-config/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <value> ... /home/users/manageProfiles=users.manageProfilesController </value> </property> </bean> <bean id="users.manageProfilesController" class="ru.mirea.rea.webapp.controllers.users.ManageProfilesController"> <property name="view" value="home\users\manageProfiles"/> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter" /> However, when i open the mapped url, i get exception: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [ru.mirea.rea.model.UserAccount]: no matching editors or conversion strategy found I use spring 2.5.6 and plan to move to the Spring 3.0 in some not very distant future. However, according to this JIRA https://jira.springsource.org/browse/SPR-4182 it should be possible already in spring 2.5.1. The debug shows that the InitBinder method is correctly called. What am i doing wrong?

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  • Cascade Saves with Fluent NHibernate AutoMapping - Old Anwser Still Valid?

    - by Glenn
    I want to do exactly what this question asks: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/586888/cascade-saves-with-fluent-nhibernate-automapping Using Fluent Nhibernate Mappings to turn on "cascade" globally once for all classes and relation types using one call rather than setting it for each mapping individually. The answer to the earlier question looks great, but I'm afraid that the Fluent Nhibernate API altered its .WithConvention syntax last year and broke the answer... either that or I'm missing something. I keep getting a bunch of name space not found errors relating to the IOneToOnePart, IManyToOnePart and all their variations: "The type or namespace name 'IOneToOnePart' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" I've tried the official example dll's, the RTM dll's and the latest build and none of them seem to make VS 2008 see the required namespace. The second problem is that I want to use the class with my AutoPersistenceModel but I'm not sure where to this line: .ConventionDiscovery.AddFromAssemblyOf() in my factory creation method. private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile(DbFile)) .Mappings(m => m.AutoMappings .Add(AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Shelf>(type => type.Namespace.EndsWith("Entities")) .Override<Shelf>(map => { map.HasManyToMany(x => x.Products).Cascade.All(); }) ) )//emd mappings .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory();//finalizes the whole thing to send back. } Below is the class and using statements I'm trying using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using FluentNHibernate.Conventions; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg.Db; using NHibernate; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; namespace TestCode { public class CascadeAll : IHasOneConvention, IHasManyConvention, IReferenceConvention { public bool Accept(IOneToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IOneToManyPart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToManyPart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IManyToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IManyToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } } }

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  • android - using resources drawable in content provider

    - by Russ Wheeler
    I am trying to pass back an image through a content provider in a separate app. I have two apps, one with the activity in (app a), the other with content provider (app b) I have app a reading an image off my SD card via app b using the following code. App a: public void but_update(View view) { ContentResolver resolver = getContentResolver(); Uri uri = Uri.parse("content://com.jash.cp_source_two.provider/note/1"); InputStream inStream = null; try { inStream = resolver.openInputStream(uri); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(inStream); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } catch(FileNotFoundException e) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "error = "+e, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } finally { if (inStream != null) { try { inStream.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("test", "could not close stream", e); } } } }; App b: @Override public ParcelFileDescriptor openFile(Uri uri, String mode) throws FileNotFoundException { try { File path = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory().getAbsolutePath(),"pic2.png"); return ParcelFileDescriptor.open(path,ParcelFileDescriptor.MODE_READ_ONLY); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { Log.i("r", "File not found"); throw new FileNotFoundException(); } } In app a I am able to display an image from app a's resources folder, using setImageURi and constructing a URI using the following code. int id = R.drawable.a2; Resources resources = getBaseContext().getResources(); Uri uri = Uri.parse(ContentResolver.SCHEME_ANDROID_RESOURCE + "://" + resources.getResourcePackageName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceTypeName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceEntryName(id) ); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageURI(uri); However, if I try to do the same in app b (read from app b's resources folder rather than the image on the SD card) it doesn't work, saying it can't find the file, even though I am creating the path of the file from the resource, so it is definitely there. Any ideas? Does it restrict sending resources over the content provider somehow? P.S. I also got an error when I tried to create the file with File path = new File(uri); saying 'there is no applicable constructor to '(android.net.Uri)' though http://developer.android.com/reference/java/io/File.html#File(java.net.URI) Seems to think it's possible...unless java.net.URI is different to android.net.URI, in which case can I convert them? Thanks Russ

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  • WPF MVVM Pattern, ViewModel DataContext question

    - by orangecl4now
    I used this side to create my demo application http://windowsclient.net/learn/video.aspx?v=314683 The site was very useful in getting my started and in their example, they created a file called EmployeeRepository.cs which appears to be the source for the data. In their example, the data was hard-wired in code. So I'm trying to learn how to get the data from a data source (like a DB). In my specific case, I want to get the data from a Microsoft Access DB. (READ ONLY, So I'll only use SELECT commands). using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student One", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Two", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Three", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I found another example where an Access DB is used but it doesn't comply with MVVM. So I was trying to figure out how to add the DB file to the project, how to wire it up and bind it to a listbox (i'm not that far yet). Below is my modified file using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; // integrating new code with working code using Telephone_Directory_2010.telephone2010DataSetTableAdapters; using System.Windows.Data; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; // start // integrating new code with working code private telephone2010DataSet.telephone2010DataTable employeeTable; private CollectionView dataView; internal CollectionView DataView { get { if (dataView == null) { dataView = (CollectionView) CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(this.DataContext); } return dataView; } } public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } telephone2010TableAdapter employeeTableAdapter = new telephone2010TableAdapter(); employeeTable = employeeTableAdapter.GetData(); this.DataContext = employeeTable; } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I get the following error messages when building Error 1 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' does not contain a definition for 'DataContext' and no extension method 'DataContext' accepting a first argument of type 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) C:\Projects\VS2010\Telephone Directory 2010\Telephone Directory 2010\DataAccess\EmployeeRepository.cs 23 90 Telephone Directory 2010

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  • Populating ComboBoxDataColumn items and values

    - by MarceloRamires
    I have a "populate combobox", and I'm so happy with it that I've even started using more comboboxes. It takes the combobox object by reference with the ID of the "value set" (or whatever you want to call it) from a table and adds the items and their respective values (which differ) and does the job. I've recently had the brilliant idea of using comboboxes in a gridview, and I was happy to notice that it worked JUST LIKE a single combobox, but populating all the comboboxes in the given column at the same time. ObjComboBox.Items.Add("yadayada"); //works just like ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("blablabla"); But When I started planning how to populate these comboboxes I've noticed: There's no "Values" property in ComboBoxDataColumn. ObjComboBox.Values = whateverArray; //works, but the following doesn't ObjComboBoxColumn.Values = whateverArray; Questions: 0 - How do I populate it's values ? (I suspect it's just as simple, but uses another name) 1 - If it works just like a combobox, what's the explanation for not having this attribute ? -----[EDIT]------ So I've checked out Charles' quote, and I've figured I had to change my way of populating these bad boys. Instead of looping through the strings and inserting them one by one in the combobox, I should grab the fields I want to populate in a table, and set one column of the table as the "value", and other one as the "display". So I've done this: ObjComboBoxColumn.DataSource = DTConfig; //Double checked, guaranteed to be populated ObjComboBoxColumn.ValueMember = "Code"; ObjComboBoxColumn.DisplayMember = "Description"; But nothing happens, if I use the same object as so: ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("StackOverflow"); It is added. There is no DataBind() function. It finds the two columns, and that's guaranteed ("Code" and "Description") and if I change their names to nonexistant ones it gives me an exception, so that's a good sign. -----[EDIT]------ I have a table in SQL Server that is something like code  |  text —————    1    | foo    2    | bar It's simple, and with other comboboxes (outside of gridviews) i've successfully populated looping through the rows and adding the texts: ObjComboBox.Items.Add(MyDataTable.Rows[I]["MyColumnName"].ToString()); And getting every value, adding it into an array, and setting it like: ObjComboBox.Values = MyArray; I'd like to populate my comboboxColumns just as simply as I do with comboboxes.

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  • formcollection not see me all inputs

    - by sanfra1983
    Hi, I have a View where some input text to be added dynamica using jquery, I mean everything funzona, and when I go to add these inputs and do right button on the browser I'm not seeing the added input. function addPerson () ( current + +; StrToAdd var = '<table id="compo" name="compo"' + current +'> <tr> <td> <label for="firstname"' + current +'"> Name </ label> <input id = 'firstname' + current + '"name =" Componenti.Nome_ "' +" "+ current +" "+ '" size = "29" /> </ td> <td> <label for = "lastname"' current + + '"> Name </ label> <input id="lastname''" name="Componenti.Cognome_"' + + + current + current'" size="29" /> </ td>' StrToAdd + = '<td> <label for="luogonascita"' + current +'"> LuogoNascita </ label> <input id = "luogodinascita' + current + '" name = "Componenti.Luogonascita_"' + "" + current + "" + '"size =" 29 "/> </ td>' StrToAdd + = '<td> <label for="datanascita"' + current +'"> DataNacita </ label> <input id = "dateOfBirth' + current + '" name = "Componenti.datanascita_"' + current + ' "size =" 29 "/> </ td> </ tr> </ table> ' StrToAdd + = '<script type="text/javascript"> jQuery (function ($) {$("# dateOfBirth' + current + '). mask ("' + mask +'")});</ script > '; $ ('# Components'). Append (StrToAdd); ) The problem is that when I pass the data via post in the action, and I go to create the education var valueProvider= formanagrafica.ToValueProvider(); valueProvider I find all the input I have added only one and that therefore there are more than one gives me the values separated by commas. How can I retrieve the values of a line of input text? I hope I explained correctly.

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  • Custom validator not invoked when using Validation Application Block through configuration

    - by Chris
    I have set up a ruleset in my configuration file which has two validators, one of which is a built-in NotNullValidator, the other of which is a custom validator. The problem is that I see the NotNullValidator hit, but not my custom validator. The custom validator is being used to validate an Entity Framework entity object. I have used the debugger to confirm the NotNull is hit (I forced a failure condition so I saw it set an invalid result), but it never steps into the custom one. I am using MVC as the web app, so I defined the ruleset in a config file at that layer, but my custom validator is defined in another project. However, I wouldn't have thought that to be a problem because when I use the Enterprise Library Configuration tool inside Visual Studio 2008 it is able to set the type properly for the custom validator. As well, I believe the custom validator is fine as it builds ok, and the config tool can reference it properly. Does anybody have any ideas what the problem could be, or even what to do/try to debug further? Here is a stripped down version of my custom validator: [ConfigurationElementType(typeof(CustomValidatorData))] public sealed class UserAccountValidator : Validator { public UserAccountValidator(NameValueCollection attributes) : base(string.Empty, "User Account") { } protected override string DefaultMessageTemplate { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } protected override void DoValidate(object objectToValidate, object currentTarget, string key, ValidationResults results) { if (!currentTarget.GetType().Equals(typeof(UserAccount))) { throw new Exception(); } UserAccount userAccountToValidate = (UserAccount)currentTarget; // snipped code ... this.LogValidationResult(results, "The User Account is invalid", currentTarget, key); } } Here is the XML of my ruleset in Validation.config (the NotNull rule is only there to force a failure so I could see it getting hit, and it does): <validation> <type defaultRuleset="default" assemblyName="MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="MyProj.Entities.UserAccount"> <ruleset name="default"> <properties> <property name="HashedPassword"> <validator negated="true" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.NotNullValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" name="Not Null Validator" /> </property> <property name="Property"> <validator messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="MyProj.Entities.UserAccountValidator, MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="Custom Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> </type> </validation> And here is the stripped down version of the way I invoke the validation: var type = entity.GetType() var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator(type, "default", new FileConfigurationSource("Validation.config")) var results = validator.Validate(entity) Any advice would be much appreciated! Thanks, Chris

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  • Calling Save on a Configuration obj with a custom sectiongroup of type NameValueSectionHandler

    - by Allen
    I've got aConfiguration object that I can easily read and write settings from and call Save(ConfigurationSaveMode.Minimal, true) on and that typically works just fine. However, I now have a config file that has a custom sectionGroup defined of type System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler (I didn't write that part and I can't change it). Now when I call the Save method, it throws a TypeLoadException Message: Type System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler does not inherit from System.Configuration.ConfigurationSectionGroup. Callstack: at System.Configuration.TypeUtil.VerifyAssignableType (Type baseType, Type type, Boolean throwOnError) at System.Configuration.TypeUtil.GetConstructorWithReflectionPermission (Type type, Type baseType, Boolean throwOnError) at System.Configuration.MgmtConfigurationRecord.CreateSectionGroupFactory (FactoryRecord factoryRecord) at System.Configuration.MgmtConfigurationRecord.EnsureSectionGroupFactory (FactoryRecord factoryRecord) at System.Configuration.MgmtConfigurationRecord.GetSectionGroup (String configKey) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationSectionGroupCollection.Get (String name) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationSectionGroupCollection. <GetEnumerator>d__0.MoveNext() at System.Configuration.Configuration.ForceGroupsRecursive (ConfigurationSectionGroup group) at System.Configuration.Configuration.SaveAsImpl (String filename, ConfigurationSaveMode saveMode, Boolean forceSaveAll) at System.Configuration.Configuration.Save (ConfigurationSaveMode saveMode, Boolean forceSaveAll) at MyCompany.MyProduct.blah.blah.Save () in C:\\projects\\blah\\blah\\blah.cs:line blah For reference, the configuration goes like so <configuration> <configSections> ... normal sections here that work just fine, followed by ... <sectionGroup name="threadSettings" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler"> <section name="T1" type="System.Configuration.DictionarySectionHandler"/> <section name="T2" type="System.Configuration.DictionarySectionHandler"/> <section name="T3" type="System.Configuration.DictionarySectionHandler"/> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <applicationSettings /> <threadSettings> <T1> <add key="key-here" value="value-here"/> </T1> ... T2 and T3 here as well, thats not interesting ... </threadSettings> </configuration> If I remove the actual sections and the definition for the custom section groups, I am able to read / write settings just fine and even call Save just fine. Obviously the custom section groups could be setup a little nicer but I can't fix that so I'm wondering: Is it possible to get the Configuration object to save if it has custom sectionGroups of the NameValueSectionHandler type

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  • compile AMR-nb codec with RVCT for WinCE/Window Mobile

    - by pps
    Hello everybody, I'm working on amr speech codec (porting/optimization) I have an arm (for WinCE) optimized version from voiceage and I use it as a reference in performance testing. So far, binary produced with my lib beats the other one by around 20-30%! I use Vs2008 and I have limited access to ARM instruction set I can generate with Microsoft compiler. So I tried to look for alternative compiler to see what would be performance difference. I have RVCT compiler, but it produces elf binaries/object files. However, I run my test on a wince mobile phone (TyTn 2) so I need to find a way to run code compiled with RVCT on WinCE. Some of the options are 1) to produce assembly listing (-S option of armcc), and try to assemble with some other assembler that can create COFF (MS assembler for arm) 2) compile and convert generated ELF object file to COFF object (seems like objcopy of gnu binutils could help me with that) 3) using fromelf utility supplied by RVCT create BIN file and somehow try to mangle the bits so I can execute them ;) My first attempt is to create a simple c++ file with one exported function, compile it with RVCT and then try to run that function on the smartphone. The emitted assembly cannot be assembled by the ms assembler (not only they are not compatible, but also ms assembler rejects some of the instructions generated with RVCT compiler; ASR opcode in my case) Then I tried to convert ELF object to coff format and I can't find any information on that. There is a gcc port for ce and objcopy from that toolset is supposed to be able to do the task. However, I can't get it working. I tried different switches, but I have no idea what exactly I need to specify as bfdname for input and output format. So, I couldn't get it working either. Dumping with fromelf and using generated bin file seems to be overkill, so I decided to ask you guys if there is anything I should try to do or maybe someone has already done similar task and could help me. Basically, all I want to do is to compile my code with RVCT compiler and see what's the performance difference. My code has zero dependencies on any c runtime functions. thanks!

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  • Data denormalization and C# objects DB serialization

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I'm using a DB table with various different entities. This means that I can't have an arbitrary number of fields in it to save all kinds of different entities. I want instead save just the most important fields (dates, reference IDs - kind of foreign key to various other tables, most important text fields etc.) and an additional text field where I'd like to store more complete object data. the most obvious solution would be to use XML strings and store those. The second most obvious choice would be JSON, that usually shorter and probably also faster to serialize/deserialize... And is probably also faster. But is it really? My objects also wouldn't need to be strictly serializable, because JsonSerializer is usually able to serialize anything. Even anonymous objects, that may as well be used here. What would be the most optimal solution to solve this problem? Additional info My DB is highly normalised and I'm using Entity Framework, but for the purpose of having external super-fast fulltext search functionality I'm sacrificing a bit DB denormalisation. Just for the info I'm using SphinxSE on top of MySql. Sphinx would return row IDs that I would use to fast query my index optimised conglomerate table to get most important data from it much much faster than querying multiple tables all over my DB. My table would have columns like: RowID (auto increment) EntityID (of the actual entity - but not directly related because this would have to point to different tables) EntityType (so I would be able to get the actual entity if needed) DateAdded (record timestamp when it's been added into this table) Title Metadata (serialized data related to particular entity type) This table would be indexed with SPHINX indexer. When I would search for data using this indexer I would provide a series of EntityIDs and a limit date. Indexer would have to return a very limited paged amount of RowIDs ordered by DateAdded (descending). I would then just join these RowIDs to my table and get relevant results. So this won't actually be full text search but a filtering search. Getting RowIDs would be very fast this way and getting results back from the table would be much faster than comparing EntityIDs and DateAdded comparisons even though they would be properly indexed.

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  • Linq-to-sql Compiled Query returning object NOT belonging to submitted DataContext

    - by Vladimir Kojic
    Compiled query: public static class Machines { public static readonly Func<OperationalDataContext, short, Machine> QueryMachineById = CompiledQuery.Compile((OperationalDataContext db, short machineID) => db.Machines.Where(m => m.MachineID == machineID).SingleOrDefault() ); public static Machine GetMachineById(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, short id) { Machine machine; // Old code (working) //var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); //machine = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == id).SingleOrDefault(); // New code (making problems) machine = QueryMachineById(unitOfWork.DataContext, id); return machine; } It looks like compiled query is caching Machine object and returning the same object even if query is called from new DataContext (I’m disposing DataContext in the service but I’m getting Machine from previous DataContext). I use POCOs and XML mapping. Revised: It looks like compiled query is returning result from new data context and it is not using the one that I passed in compiled-query. Therefore I can not reuse returned object and link it to another object obtained from datacontext thru non compiled queries. [TestMethod] public void GetMachinesTest() { // Test Preparation (not important) using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // GET ALL List<Machine> list = machineRepository.FindAll().ToList<Machine>(); VerifyIntegratedMachine(list[2], 3, "Machine 3", "333333", "G300PET", "MachineIconC.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, "10.0.97.3", "10.0.97.3", 0); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); Assert.AreSame(list[2], machine); // PASS !!!! } using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // GET ALL List<Machine> list = machineRepository.FindAll().ToList<Machine>(); VerifyIntegratedMachine(list[2], 3, "Machine 3", "333333", "G300PET", "MachineIconC.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, "10.0.97.3", "10.0.97.3", 0); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); Assert.AreSame(list[2], machine); // FAIL !!!! } } If I run other (complex) unit tests I'm getting as expected: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext.

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  • c# Uploading files to ftp server

    - by etarvt
    Hi there, I have a problem with uploading files to ftp server. I have a few buttons. Every button uploads different files to the ftp. The first time when a button is clicked the file is uploaded successfully, but the second and later tries fail. It gives me "The operation has timed out". When I close the site and then open it again I can upload again only one file. I am sure that I can override files on the ftp. Here's the code: protected void btn_export_OnClick(object sender, EventArgs e) { Stream stream = new MemoryStream(); stream.Position = 0; // fill the stream bool res = this.UploadFile(stream, "test.csv", "dir"); stream.Close(); } private bool UploadFile(Stream stream, string filename, string ftp_dir) { stream.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); string uri = String.Format("ftp://{0}/{1}/{2}", "host", ftp_dir, filename); try { FtpWebRequest reqFTP = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(new Uri(uri)); reqFTP.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("user", "pass"); reqFTP.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; reqFTP.KeepAlive = false; reqFTP.UseBinary = true; reqFTP.UsePassive = true; reqFTP.ContentLength = stream.Length; reqFTP.EnableSsl = true; // it's FTPES type of ftp int buffLen = 2048; byte[] buff = new byte[buffLen]; int contentLen; try { Stream ftpStream = reqFTP.GetRequestStream(); contentLen = stream.Read(buff, 0, buffLen); while (contentLen != 0) { ftpStream.Write(buff, 0, contentLen); contentLen = stream.Read(buff, 0, buffLen); } ftpStream.Flush(); ftpStream.Close(); } catch (Exception exc) { this.lbl_error.Text = "Error:<br />" + exc.Message; this.lbl_error.Visible = true; return false; } } catch (Exception exc) { this.lbl_error.Text = "Error:<br />" + exc.Message; this.lbl_error.Visible = true; return false; } return true; } Does anyone have idea what may cause this strange behaviour? I think I'm closing all streams accurately. Could this be related with the ftp server settings? The admin said that the ftp handshake never happened second time.

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  • How to optimize Core Data query for full text search

    - by dk
    Can I optimize a Core Data query when searching for matching words in a text? (This question also pertains to the wisdom of custom SQL versus Core Data on an iPhone.) I'm working on a new (iPhone) app that is a handheld reference tool for a scientific database. The main interface is a standard searchable table view and I want as-you-type response as the user types new words. Words matches must be prefixes of words in the text. The text is composed of 100,000s of words. In my prototype I coded SQL directly. I created a separate "words" table containing every word in the text fields of the main entity. I indexed words and performed searches along the lines of SELECT id, * FROM textTable JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) ON id=textTableId LIMIT 50 This runs very fast. Using an IN would probably work just as well, i.e. SELECT * FROM textTable WHERE id IN (SELECT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) LIMIT 50 The LIMIT is crucial and allows me to display results quickly. I notify the user that there are too many to display if the limit is reached. This is kludgy. I've spent the last several days pondering the advantages of moving to Core Data, but I worry about the lack of control in the schema, indexing, and querying for an important query. Theoretically an NSPredicate of textField MATCHES '.*\bfoo.*' would just work, but I'm sure it will be slow. This sort of text search seems so common that I wonder what is the usual attack? Would you create a words entity as I did above and use a predicate of "word BEGINSWITH 'foo'"? Will that work as fast as my prototype? Will Core Data automatically create the right indexes? I can't find any explicit means of advising the persistent store about indexes. I see some nice advantages of Core Data in my iPhone app. The faulting and other memory considerations allow for efficient database retrievals for tableview queries without setting arbitrary limits. The object graph management allows me to easily traverse entities without writing lots of SQL. Migration features will be nice in the future. On the other hand, in a limited resource environment (iPhone) I worry that an automatically generated database will be bloated with metadata, unnecessary inverse relationships, inefficient attribute datatypes, etc. Should I dive in or proceed with caution?

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  • Backbone.Marionette - Collection within CompositeView, which itself is nested in a CollectionView

    - by nicefinly
    *UPDATE: The problem probably involves the tour-template as I've discovered that it thinks the 'name' attribute is undefined. This leads me to think that it's not an array being passed on to the ToursView, but for some reason a string. * After studying similar questions on StackOverflow: How to handle nested CompositeView using Backbone.Marionette? How do you properly display a Backbone marionette collection view based on a model javascript array property? Nested collections with Backbone.Marionette ... and Derick Bailey's excellent blog's on this subject: http://lostechies.com/derickbailey/2012/04/05/composite-views-tree-structures-tables-and-more/ ... including the JSFiddle's: http://jsfiddle.net/derickbailey/AdWjU/ I'm still having trouble with a displaying the last node of a nested CollectionView of CompositeViews. It is the final CollectionView within each CompositeView that is causing the problem. CollectionView { CompositeView{ CollectionView {} //**<-- This is the troublemaker!** } } NOTE: I have already made a point of creating a valid Backbone.Collection given that the collection passed on to the final, child CollectionView is just a simple array. Data returned from the api to ToursList: [ { "id": "1", "name": "Venice", "theTours": "[ {'name': u'test venice'}, {'name': u'test venice 2'} ]" }, { "id": "2", "name": "Rome", "theTours": "[ {'name': u'Test rome'} ]" }, { "id": "3", "name": "Dublin", "theTours": "[ {'name': u'test dublin'}, {'name': u'test dublin 2'} ]" } ] I'm trying to nest these in a dropdown where the nav header is the 'name' (i.e. Dublin), and the subsequent li 's are the individual tour names (i.e. 'test dublin', 'test dublin2', etc.) Tour Models and Collections ToursByLoc = TastypieModel.extend({}); ToursList = TastypieCollection.extend({ model: ToursByLoc, url:'/api/v1/location/', }); Tour Views ToursView = Backbone.Marionette.ItemView.extend({ template: '#tour-template', tagName: 'li', }); ToursByLocView = Backbone.Marionette.CompositeView.extend({ template: '#toursByLoc-template', itemView: ToursView, initialize: function(){ //As per Derick Bailey's comments regarding the need to pass on a //valid Backbone.Collection to the child CollectionView //REFERENCE: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/12163118/nested-collections-with-backbone-marionette var theTours = this.model.get('theTours'); this.collection = new Backbone.Collection(theTours); }, appendHtml: function(collectionView, itemView){ collectionView.$('div').append(itemView.el); } }); ToursListView = Backbone.Marionette.CollectionView.extend({ itemView: ToursByLocView, }); Templates <script id="tour-template" type="text/template"> <%= name %> </script> <script id="toursByLoc-template" type="text/template"> <li class="nav-header"><%= name %></li> <div class="indTours"></div> <li class="divider"></li> </script>

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 Unused Model Property being called when posting a product to the server?

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    i have my auto-generated linq to sql classes, and i extend this class using partial classing (instead of using inheritance), and i have properties that that i've put in later which are not part of the database model and should not be. these are things like "FinalPrice" and "DisplayFinalPrice" - in the dbase, there is only RetailPrice and WholesalePrice so FinalPrice etc are more like extensions of the dbase fields. when i submit the form with nothing filled in, "FinalPrice" gets called (the 'get' of the property) even tho i never ask for it to be, and even tho it is not needed. this happens before validation, so i don't even get the validation errors i would get. i've tried using and on the FinalPrice and FinalPriceDisplay properties - no go! why does this happen and how can i stop it from happening? is the modelstate just trying to validate everything so therefore it calls every item no matter what? for those interested, here is all the code... Partial Public Class tProduct 'Inherits tProduct Private Const CommissionMultiplier As Decimal = CDec(1.18) Private _FinalPrice As Decimal? Private _DisplayFinalPrice As String Private _DisplayNormalPrice As String Public Property CategoryComplete As Short <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property FinalPrice As Decimal Get 'If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing OrElse WholesalePrice IsNot Nothing Then If _FinalPrice Is Nothing Then If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing Then _FinalPrice = RetailPrice Else _FinalPrice = WholesalePrice * CommissionMultiplier ' TODO: this should be rounded to the nearest 5th cent so prices don't look weird. End If Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value) Dim DecimalPart = _FinalPrice.Value - NormalPart If DecimalPart = 0 OrElse DecimalPart = 0.5 Then Return _FinalPrice ElseIf DecimalPart > 0 AndAlso DecimalPart < 0.5 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 ' always rounded up to the nearest 50 cents. ElseIf DecimalPart > 0.5 AndAlso DecimalPart < 1 Then ' Only in this case round down if its about to be rounded up to a valeu like 20, 30 or 50 etc as we want most prices to end in 9. If NormalPart.ToString.LastChr.ToInt = 9 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 Else DecimalPart = 1 End If End If _FinalPrice = NormalPart + DecimalPart End If Return _FinalPrice 'End If End Get End Property <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property DisplayFinalPrice As String Get If _DisplayFinalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayFinalPrice = FormatCurrency(FinalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayFinalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DisplayNormalPrice As String Get If _DisplayNormalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayNormalPrice = FormatCurrency(NormalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayNormalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DivID As String Get Return "pdiv" & ProductID End Get End Property End Class more... i get busted here, with a null reference exception telling me it should contain a value... Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value)

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  • How to get NHProf reports in TeamCity running MSBUILD

    - by Jon Erickson
    I'm trying to get NHProf reports on my integration tests as a report in TeamCity I'm not sure how to get this set up correctly and my first attempts are unsuccessful. Let me know if there is any more information that would be helpful... I'm getting the following error, when trying to generate html reports with MSBUILD (which is being run by TeamCity) error MSB3073: The command "C:\CI\Tools\NHProf\NHProf.exe /CmdLineMode /File:"E:\CI\BuildServer\RMS-Winform\Group\dev\NHProfOutput.html" /ReportFormat:Html" exited with code -532459699 I tell TeamCity to run MSBUILD w/ CIBuildWithNHProf target The command line parameters that I pass from TeamCity are... /property:NHProfExecutable=%system.NHProfExecutable%;NHProfFile=%system.teamcity.build.checkoutDir%\NHProfOutput.html;NHProfReportFormat=Html The portion of my MSBUILD script that runs my tests is as follows... <UsingTask TaskName="NUnitTeamCity" AssemblyFile="$(teamcity_dotnet_nunitlauncher_msbuild_task)"/> <!-- Set Properties --> <PropertyGroup> <Configuration Condition=" '$(Configuration)' == '' ">Debug</Configuration> <Platform Condition=" '$(Platform)' == '' ">x86</Platform> <NHProfExecutable></NHProfExecutable> <NHProfFile></NHProfFile> <NHProfReportFormat></NHProfReportFormat> </PropertyGroup> <!-- Test Database --> <Target Name="DeployDatabase"> <!-- ... --> </Target> <!-- Database Used For Integration Tests --> <Target Name="DeployTestDatabase"> <!-- ... --> </Target> <!-- Build All Projects --> <Target Name="BuildProjects"> <MSBuild Projects="..\MySolutionFile.sln" Targets="Build"/> </Target> <!-- Stop NHProf --> <Target Name="NHProfStop"> <Exec Command="$(NHProfExecutable) /Shutdown" /> </Target> <!-- Run Unit/Integration Tests --> <Target Name="RunTests"> <CreateItem Include="..\**\bin\debug\*Tests.dll"> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="TestAssemblies" /> </CreateItem> <NUnitTeamCity Assemblies="@(TestAssemblies)" NUnitVersion="NUnit-2.5.3"/> </Target> <!-- Start NHProf --> <Target Name="NHProfStart"> <Exec Command="$(NHProfExecutable) /CmdLineMode /File:&quot;$(NHProfFile)&quot; /ReportFormat:$(NHProfReportFormat)" /> </Target> <Target Name="CIBuildWithNHProf" DependsOnTargets="BuildProjects;DeployTestDatabase;NHProfStart;RunTests;NHProfStop;DeployDatabase"> </Target>

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  • make an http post from server using user credentials - integrated security

    - by opensas
    I'm trying to make a post, from an asp classic server side page, using the user credentials... I'm using msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP to programatically make the post I've tried with several configurations in the IIS 5.1 site, but there's no way I can make IIS run with a specified account... I made a little asp page that runs whoami to verify what account the iis process i using... with IIS 5.1, using integrated security the process uses: my_machine\IWAM_my_machine I disable integrated security, and leave a domain account as anonymous access, and I get the same (¿?) to test the user I do the following private function whoami() dim shell, cmd set shell = createObject("wscript.shell") set cmd = shell.exec( server.mapPath( "whoami.exe" ) ) whoami = cmd.stdOut.readAll() set shell = nothing: set cmd = nothing end function is it because I'm issuing a shell command? I'd like to make http post calls, to another site that works with integrated security... So I need some way to pass the credentials, or at least to run with a specified account, and then configure the remote site to thrust that account... I thought that just setting the site to work with integrated security would be enough... How can I achieve such a thing? ps: with IIS6,happens the same but if I change the pool canfiguration I get the following info from whoami NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM if I set a domain account, I get a "service unavailable" message... edit: found this http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/275269ee-1b9f-4869-8d72-c9006b5bd659.mspx?mfr=true it says what I supossed, "If an authenticated user makes a request, the thread token is based on the authenticated account of the user", but somehow I doesn't seem to work like that... what could I possibly be missing? edit: well the whoami thing is obviously fooling me, I tried with the following function private function whoami_db( serverName, dbName ) dim conn, data set conn = server.createObject("adodb.connection") conn.open "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;" & _ "Initial Catalog=" & dbName & ";Data Source=" & serverName set data = conn.execute( "select suser_sname() as user_name" ) whoami_db = data("user_name") data.close: conn.close set data = nothing: set conn = nothing end function and everything seemed to be working fine... but how can I make msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP work with the user credentials???

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  • Winforms connection strings from App.config

    - by Geo Ego
    I have a Winforms app that I am developing in C# that will serve as a frontend for a SQL Server 2005 database. I rolled the executable out to a test machine and ran it. It worked perfectly fine on the test machine up until the last round of changes that I made. However, now on the test machine, it throws the following exception immediately upon opening: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at PSRD_Specs_Database_Administrat.mainMenu.mainMenu_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.OnCreateControl() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmShowWindow(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.WmShowWindow(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) The only thing that I changed in this version that pertains to mainMenu_Load is the way that the connection string to the database is called. Previously, I had set a string with the connection string on every form that I needed to call it from, like: string conString = "Data Source = SHAREPOINT;Trusted_Connection = yes;" + "database = CustomerDatabase;connection timeout = 15"; As my app grew and I added forms to it, I decided to add an App.config to the project. I defined the connection string in it: <connectionStrings> <add name="conString" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" connectionString="Data Source = SHAREPOINT;Trusted_Connection = yes;database = CustomerDatabase;connection timeout = 15" /> </connectionStrings> I then created a static string that would return the conString: public static string GetConnectionString(string conName) { string strReturn = string.Empty; if (!(string.IsNullOrEmpty(conName))) { strReturn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[conName].ConnectionString; } else { strReturn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["conString"].ConnectionString; } return strReturn; } I removed the conString variable and now call the connection string like so: PublicMethods.GetConnectionString("conString").ToString() It appears that this is giving me the error. I changed these instances to directly call the connection string from App.config without using GetConnectionString. For instance, in a SQLConnection: using (SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["conString"].ConnectionString)) This also threw the exception. However, when I went back to using the conString variable on each form, I had no issues. What I don't understand is why all three methods work fine on my development machine, while using the App.config directly or via the static string I created throw exceptions.

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  • Keeping files or database records? Java and Python

    - by danpalmer
    My website will use a Neural Network to predict thing based on user data. The user can select the data to be used in training the network and then use their trained network to predict things. I am using a framework to create, train and query the networks. This uses Java. The framework has persistence for saving a network to an XML file. What is the best way to store these files? I can see several potential ideas, but I need help on choosing which is best: Save each network to a separate XML file with a name that is stored in the database. Load this each time. Save all the networks to the same XML file with each network having a different name that is stored in the database. Somehow pass what would normally be written to an XML file to the Django site for writing to the database. This would need to be returned to the Java code when a prediction needs to be made. I am able to do 1 or 2, but I think their performance will be quite limited and I am on shared hosting at the moment, so I don't know how pleased they would be with thousands of files. Also, after adding a few thousand records to one XML file, I was noticing a massive performance hit on saving to it. If I were able to implement version 3 somehow I think it would be best. No issues with separate processes accessing the database and I think performance would be better. Not to mention having no files lying around. However, the stuff in the neural network framework I am using (Encog) for saving to a file needs access to a Java file object, not a string that could be saved to a database. Unless there is some Java magic I can do here (I know very little Java), the only way I can see of doing this would be with a temporary files but I don't know if this is the correct way to do it. I would appreciate any ideas on the best way to implement any of the above 3 ideas or any alternatives. Thanks!

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  • How to create a Uri instance parsed with GenericUriParserOptions.DontCompressPath

    - by Andrew Arnott
    When the .NET System.Uri class parses strings it performs some normalization on the input, such as lower-casing the scheme and hostname. It also trims trailing periods from each path segment. This latter feature is fatal to OpenID applications because some OpenIDs (like those issued from Yahoo) include base64 encoded path segments which may end with a period. How can I disable this period-trimming behavior of the Uri class? Registering my own scheme using UriParser.Register with a parser initialized with GenericUriParserOptions.DontCompressPath avoids the period trimming, and some other operations that are also undesirable for OpenID. But I cannot register a new parser for existing schemes like HTTP and HTTPS, which I must do for OpenIDs. Another approach I tried was registering my own new scheme, and programming the custom parser to change the scheme back to the standard HTTP(s) schemes as part of parsing: public class MyUriParser : GenericUriParser { private string actualScheme; public MyUriParser(string actualScheme) : base(GenericUriParserOptions.DontCompressPath) { this.actualScheme = actualScheme.ToLowerInvariant(); } protected override string GetComponents(Uri uri, UriComponents components, UriFormat format) { string result = base.GetComponents(uri, components, format); // Substitute our actual desired scheme in the string if it's in there. if ((components & UriComponents.Scheme) != 0) { string registeredScheme = base.GetComponents(uri, UriComponents.Scheme, format); result = this.actualScheme + result.Substring(registeredScheme.Length); } return result; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { UriParser.Register(new MyUriParser("http"), "httpx", 80); UriParser.Register(new MyUriParser("https"), "httpsx", 443); Uri z = new Uri("httpsx://me.yahoo.com/b./c.#adf"); var req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(z); req.GetResponse(); } } This actually almost works. The Uri instance reports https instead of httpsx everywhere -- except the Uri.Scheme property itself. That's a problem when you pass this Uri instance to the HttpWebRequest to send a request to this address. Apparently it checks the Scheme property and doesn't recognize it as 'https' because it just sends plaintext to the 443 port instead of SSL. I'm happy for any solution that: Preserves trailing periods in path segments in Uri.Path Includes these periods in outgoing HTTP requests. Ideally works with under ASP.NET medium trust (but not absolutely necessary).

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  • JSON Post To Rails From Android

    - by Stealthnh
    I'm currently working on an android app that interfaces with a Ruby on Rails app through XML and JSON. I can currently pull all my posts from my website through XML but I can't seem to post via JSON. My app currently builds a JSON object from a form that looks a little something like this: { "post": { "other_param": "1", "post_content": "Blah blah blah" } } On my server I believe the Create method in my Posts Controller is set up correctly: def create @post = current_user.posts.build(params[:post]) respond_to do |format| if @post.save format.html { redirect_to @post, notice: 'Post was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @post, status: :created, location: @post } format.xml { render xml: @post, status: :created, location: @post } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @post.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } format.xml { render xml: @post.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end And in my android app I have a method that takes that JSON Object I posted earlier as a parameter along with the username and password for being authenticated (Authentication is working I've tested it, and yes Simple HTTP authentication is probably not the best choice but its a quick and dirty fix) and it then sends the JSON Object through HTTP POST to the rails server. This is that method: public static void sendPost(JSONObject post, String email, String password) { DefaultHttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); client.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials(new AuthScope(null,-1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials(email,password)); HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost("http://mysite.com/posts"); JSONObject holder = new JSONObject(); try { holder.put("post", post); StringEntity se = new StringEntity(holder.toString()); Log.d("SendPostHTTP", holder.toString()); httpPost.setEntity(se); httpPost.setHeader("Content-Type","application/json"); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { Log.e("Error",""+e); e.printStackTrace(); } catch (JSONException js) { js.printStackTrace(); } HttpResponse response = null; try { response = client.execute(httpPost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("ClientProtocol",""+e); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("IO",""+e); } HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if (entity != null) { try { entity.consumeContent(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("IO E",""+e); e.printStackTrace(); } } } Currently when I call this method and pass it the correct JSON Object it doesn't do anything and I have no clue why or how to figure out what is going wrong. Is my JSON still formatted wrong, does there really need to be that holder around the other data? Or do I need to use something other than HTTP POST? Or is this just something on the Rails end? A route or controller that isn't right? I'd be really grateful if someone could point me in the right direction, because I don't know where to go from here.

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  • Resultant of a polynomial with x^n–1

    - by devin.omalley
    Resultant of a polynomial with x^n–1 (mod p) I am implementing the NTRUSign algorithm as described in http://grouper.ieee.org/groups/1363/lattPK/submissions/EESS1v2.pdf , section 2.2.7.1 which involves computing the resultant of a polynomial. I keep getting a zero vector for the resultant which is obviously incorrect. private static CompResResult compResMod(IntegerPolynomial f, int p) { int N = f.coeffs.length; IntegerPolynomial a = new IntegerPolynomial(N); a.coeffs[0] = -1; a.coeffs[N-1] = 1; IntegerPolynomial b = new IntegerPolynomial(f.coeffs); IntegerPolynomial v1 = new IntegerPolynomial(N); IntegerPolynomial v2 = new IntegerPolynomial(N); v2.coeffs[0] = 1; int da = a.degree(); int db = b.degree(); int ta = da; int c = 0; int r = 1; while (db > 0) { c = invert(b.coeffs[db], p); c = (c * a.coeffs[da]) % p; IntegerPolynomial cb = b.clone(); cb.mult(c); cb.shift(da - db); a.sub(cb, p); IntegerPolynomial v2c = v2.clone(); v2c.mult(c); v2c.shift(da - db); v1.sub(v2c, p); if (a.degree() < db) { r *= (int)Math.pow(b.coeffs[db], ta-a.degree()); r %= p; if (ta%2==1 && db%2==1) r = (-r) % p; IntegerPolynomial temp = a; a = b; b = temp; temp = v1; v1 = v2; v2 = temp; ta = db; } da = a.degree(); db = b.degree(); } r *= (int)Math.pow(b.coeffs[0], da); r %= p; c = invert(b.coeffs[0], p); v2.mult(c); v2.mult(r); v2.mod(p); return new CompResResult(v2, r); } There is pseudocode in http://www.crypto.rub.de/imperia/md/content/texte/theses/da_driessen.pdf which looks very similar. Why is my code not working? Are there any intermediate results I can check? I am not posting the IntegerPolynomial code because it isn't too interesting and I have unit tests for it that pass. CompResResult is just a simple "Java struct".

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  • How can I easily maintain a cross-file JavaScript Library Development Environment

    - by John
    I have been developing a new JavaScript application which is rapidly growing in size. My entire JavaScript Application has been encapsulated inside a single function, in a single file, in a way like this: (function(){ var uniqueApplication = window.uniqueApplication = function(opts){ if (opts.featureOne) { this.featureOne = new featureOne(opts.featureOne); } if (opts.featureTwo) { this.featureTwo = new featureTwo(opts.featureTwo); } if (opts.featureThree) { this.featureThree = new featureThree(opts.featureThree); } }; var featureOne = function(options) { this.options = options; }; featureOne.prototype.myFeatureBehavior = function() { //Lots of Behaviors }; var featureTwo = function(options) { this.options = options; }; featureTwo.prototype.myFeatureBehavior = function() { //Lots of Behaviors }; var featureThree = function(options) { this.options = options; }; featureThree.prototype.myFeatureBehavior = function() { //Lots of Behaviors }; })(); In the same file after the anonymous function and execution I do something like this: (function(){ var instanceOfApplication = new uniqueApplication({ featureOne:"dataSource", featureTwo:"drawingCanvas", featureThree:3540 }); })(); Before uploading this software online I pass my JavaScript file, and all it's dependencies, into Google Closure Compiler, using just the default Compression, and then I have one nice JavaScript file ready to go online for production. This technique has worked marvelously for me - as it has created only one global footprint in the DOM and has given me a very flexible framework to grow each additional feature of the application. However - I am reaching the point where I'd really rather not keep this entire application inside one JavaScript file. I'd like to move from having one large uniqueApplication.js file during development to having a separate file for each feature in the application, featureOne.js - featureTwo.js - featureThree.js Once I have completed offline development testing, I would then like to use something, perhaps Google Closure Compiler, to combine all of these files together - however I want these files to all be compiled inside of that scope, as they are when I have them inside one file - and I would like for them to remain in the same scope during offline testing too. I see that Google Closure Compiler supports an argument for passing in modules but I haven't really been able to find a whole lot of information on doing something like this. Anybody have any idea how this could be accomplished - or any suggestions on a development practice for writing a single JavaScript Library across multiple files that still only leaves one footprint on the DOM?

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