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  • How do I capture a WinForm window to a bitmap without the caret

    - by Steve Dunn
    I've got window on a WinForm that I want to get the bitmap representation of. For this, I use the following code (where codeEditor is the control I want a bitmap representation of): public Bitmap GetBitmap( ) { IntPtr srcDC = NativeMethods.GetDC( codeEditor.Handle ) ; var bitmap = new Bitmap( codeEditor.Width, codeEditor.Height ) ; Graphics graphics = Graphics.FromImage( bitmap ) ; var deviceContext = graphics.GetHdc( ) ; bool blitted = NativeMethods.BitBlt( deviceContext, 0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height, srcDC, 0, 0, 0x00CC0020 /*SRCCOPY*/ ) ; if ( !blitted ) { throw new InvalidOperationException( @"The bitmap could not be generated." ) ; } int result = NativeMethods.ReleaseDC( codeEditor.Handle, srcDC ) ; if ( result == 0 ) { throw new InvalidOperationException( @"Cannot release bitmap resources." ) ; } graphics.ReleaseHdc( deviceContext ) ; graphics.Dispose( ) ; The trouble is, this captures the caret if it's flashing in the window at the time of capture. I tried calling the Win32 method HideCaret before capturing, but it didn't seem to have any effect.

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  • How to TDD Asynchronous Events?

    - by Padu Merloti
    The fundamental question is how do I create a unit test that needs to call a method, wait for an event to happen on the tested class and then call another method (the one that we actually want to test)? Here's the scenario if you have time to read further: I'm developing an application that has to control a piece of hardware. In order to avoid dependency from hardware availability, when I create my object I specify that we are running in test mode. When that happens, the class that is being tested creates the appropriate driver hierarchy (in this case a thin mock layer of hardware drivers). Imagine that the class in question is an Elevator and I want to test the method that gives me the floor number that the elevator is. Here is how my fictitious test looks like right now: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += TestElevatorArrived; elevator.GoToFloor(5); //Here's where I'm getting lost... I could block //until TestElevatorArrived gives me a signal, but //I'm not sure it's the best way int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } Edit: Thanks for all the answers. This is how I ended up implementing it: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += (s, e) => { Monitor.Pulse(this); }; lock (this) { elevator.GoToFloor(5); if (!Monitor.Wait(this, Timeout)) Assert.Fail("Elevator did not reach destination in time"); int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } }

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded'

    - by user3604227
    I am using ExtJS4 with Java servlets. I am following the MVC architecture for ExtJS. I am trying a simple example of displaying a border layout but it doesnt work and I get the following error in ext-all.js in the javascript console: Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded' Here is my code: app.js Ext.Loader.setConfig({ enabled : true }); Ext.application({ name : 'IN', appFolder : 'app', controllers : [ 'Items' ], launch : function() { console.log('in LAUNCH-appjs'); Ext.create('Ext.container.Viewport', { items : [ { xtype : 'borderlyt' } ] }); } }); Items.js (controller) Ext.define('IN.controller.Items', { extend : 'Ext.app.Controller', views : [ 'item.Border' ], init : function() { this.control({ 'viewport > panel' : { render : this.onPanelRendered } }); }, onPanelRendered : function() { console.log('The panel was rendered'); } }); Border.js (view) Ext.define('IN.view.item.Border',{extend : 'Ext.layout.container.Border', alias : 'widget.borderlyt', title : 'Border layout' , autoShow : true, renderTo : Ext.getBody(), defaults : { split : true, layout : 'border', autoScroll : true, height : 800, width : 500 }, items : [ { region : 'north', html : "Header here..", id : 'mainHeader' }, { region : 'west', width : 140, html : "Its West..", }, { region : 'south', html : "This is my temp footer content", height : 30, margins : '0 5 5 5', bodyPadding : 2, id : 'mainFooter' }, { id : 'mainContent', collapsible : false, region : 'center', margins : '5', border : true, } ] }); The folder structure for the Webcontent is as follows: WebContent app controller Items.js model store view item Border.js ext_js resources src ext_all.js index.html app.js Can someone help me resolve this error? Thanks in advance

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  • How can I get bitfields to arrange my bits in the right order?

    - by Jim Hunziker
    To begin with, the application in question is always going to be on the same processor, and the compiler is always gcc, so I'm not concerned about bitfields not being portable. gcc lays out bitfields such that the first listed field corresponds to least significant bit of a byte. So the following structure, with a=0, b=1, c=1, d=1, you get a byte of value e0. struct Bits { unsigned int a:5; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); (Actually, this is C++, so I'm talking about g++.) Now let's say I'd like a to be a six bit integer. Now, I can see why this won't work, but I coded the following structure: struct Bits2 { unsigned int a:6; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); Setting b, c, and d to 1, and a to 0 results in the following two bytes: c0 01 This isn't what I wanted. I was hoping to see this: e0 00 Is there any way to specify a structure that has three bits in the most significant bits of the first byte and six bits spanning the five least significant bits of the first byte and the most significant bit of the second? Please be aware that I have no control over where these bits are supposed to be laid out: it's a layout of bits that are defined by someone else's interface.

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  • SQL Server 2005, wide indexes, computed columns, and sargable queries

    - by luksan
    In my database, assume we have a table defined as follows: CREATE TABLE [Chemical]( [ChemicalId] int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, [Name] nvarchar(max) NOT NULL, [Description] nvarchar(max) NULL ) The value for Name can be very large, so we must use nvarchar(max). Unfortunately, we want to create an index on this column, but nvarchar(max) is not supported inside an index. So we create the following computed column and associated index based upon it: ALTER TABLE [Chemical] ADD [Name_Indexable] AS LEFT([Name], 20) CREATE INDEX [IX_Name] ON [Chemical]([Name_Indexable]) INCLUDE([Name]) The index will not be unique but we can enforce uniqueness via a trigger. If we perform the following query, the execution plan results in a index scan, which is not what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' However, if we modify the query to make it "sargable," then the execution plan results in an index seek, which is what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Indexable_Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-' AND [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' Is this a good solution if we control the format of all queries executed against the database via our middle tier? Is there a better way? Is this a major kludge? Should we be using full-text indexing?

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  • .NET Thread.Abort again

    - by hoodoos
    Again I want to talk about safety of the Thread.Abort function. I was interested to have some way to abort operations which I can't control really and don't want actually, but I want to have my threads free as soon as possible to prevent thread thirsty of my application. So I wrote some test code to see if it's possible to use Thread.Abort and have the aborting thread clean up resources propertly. Here's code: int threadRunCount = 0; int threadAbortCount = 0; int threadFinallyCount = 0; int iterations = 0; while( true ) { Thread t = new Thread( () => { threadRunCount++; try { Thread.Sleep( Random.Next( 45, 55 ) ); } catch( ThreadAbortException ) { threadAbortCount++; } finally { threadFinallyCount++; } } ); t.Start(); Thread.Sleep( 45 ); t.Abort(); iterations++; } So, so far this code worked for about 5 mins, and threadRunCount was always equal to threadFinally and threadAbort was somewhat lower in number, because some threads completed with no abort or probably got aborted in finally. So the question is, do I miss something?

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  • passing callback function accross windows causing error with ie ...

    - by krul
    I have a problem with IE causing two errors: 1. Object doesn't support this property or method 2. Call was rejected by callee. My Intention: To call window.opener.myObject method that is going to retrieve some data using ajax and pass in callback function that live as nested function in popup window that initiated call that is going to handle response data and modify popup window html accordingly. Here is a scenario: I pull up popup window that handles some specific operation. This popup window calling window.opener.myObject method that using ajax call. I'm passing in popup window function that is going to handle response and it works with ff and safari but not with ie. Here is code sample //RELEVANT SCRIPT ON POPUP WINDOW $('#myButton').live('click', function() { var h = window.opener.myObject, p = { 'p1': 1 }; var responseHandler = function(responseObj) { //in IE we never got here if (!responseObj) { alert('Unexpected error!! No response from server'); return false; } //..handle response }; p.p1 = $('#control').val(); h.executeMethod(p, responseHandler); }); //RELEVANT SCRIPT ON WINDOW OPENER MYOBJECT try { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', async: true, url: url, data: postData, dataType: "json", contentType: 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=utf-8', success: r, // r here is reference to my responseHandler popup window function error: handleError }); } catch (ex) { alert(ex.message); } Any tips?

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  • firefox reading web page from local JS file -- access to restricted URI denied, code: 1012, nsresult

    - by macias
    My problem is -- I have a html file which is really JS program, which reads web pages and show them in customized manner (i.e. it displays the same content in a different way). Basically, I create XMLHttpRequest object and then req.open("GET", web_page_address, false); req.send(""); This gives me (in firefox) an error: Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012" nsresult: "0x805303f4 (NS_ERROR_DOM_BAD_URI)" I already googled, and looked at SO but all other issues are very similar with those two exceptions: the file I open in firefox is a local file, opened directly in browser -- I don't have www server running at localhost I don't have any control over the web pages I am reading stuff from So, several solutions I've seen so far (like adding PHP proxy, changing the way external server sends data) cannot be applied here. What else can be done in such case? Another story is I am wondering if such strict security for directly local file has any sense. Thank you in advance for tips/links/etc. Have a nice day!

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  • What do I need to do to make sure my app launches as Admin?

    - by John Gietzen
    I'm writing an app that allows you to script the buttons from a wiimote into actions on your PC. It currently supports all of the features of the main remote control, except for the speaker. Now, I'm running in to trouble when I run it on Vista with UAC turned on. Any time a UAC'd window has focus, my app fails to move the mouse successfully. For instance, when an installer is run, I have to navigate it with the keyboard. Will running the app as administrator solve my problem? (At one point in time, I was able to successfully move the mouse over a UAC-password-entry box) How do I build a manifest that will tell windows to "run as administrator"? How do I embed this manifest into my app, if I'm strongly naming my assembly? How do I sign my application with an Authenticode cert? EDIT: Ok, so after some more extensive research, I have found: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb756929.aspx <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker|highestAvailable|requireAdministrator" uiAccess="true|false"/> However, the article says: Applications with the uiAccess flag set to true must be Authenticode signed to start properly. In addition, the application must reside in a protected location in the file system. \Program Files\ and \windows\system32\ are currently the two allowable protected locations. I have edited the question to reflect the new developments.

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  • Python: Best way to check for Python version in program that uses new language features?

    - by Mark Harrison
    If I have a python script that requires at least a particular version of python, what is the correct way to fail gracefully when an earlier version of python is used to launch the script? How do I get control early enough to issue an error message and exit? For example, I have a program that uses the ternery operator (new in 2.5) and "with" blocks (new in 2.6). I wrote a simple little interpreter-version checker routine which is the first thing the script would call ... except it doesn't get that far. Instead, the script fails during python compilation, before my routines are even called. Thus the user of the script sees some very obscure synax error tracebacks - which pretty much require an expert to deduce that it is simply the case of running the wrong version of python. update I know how to check the version of python. The issue is that some syntax is illegal in older versions of python. Consider this program: import sys if sys.version_info < (2, 4): raise "must use python 2.5 or greater" else: # syntax error in 2.4, ok in 2.5 x = 1 if True else 2 print x When run under 2.4, I want this result $ ~/bin/python2.4 tern.py must use python2.5 or greater and not this result: $ ~/bin/python2.4 tern.py File "tern.py", line 5 x = 1 if True else 2 ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax (channeling for a coworker)

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  • datepicker value is blank when disabled, jquery

    - by Mithil Deshmukh
    Hi. I'm fairly new to jQuery. I have a Jquery datepicker in a user control. I have added a "disable" property to the datepicker. Whenever I save the page(having this usercontrol) the datepicker with disable set to true is empty. All other datepickers save fine. Here is my code. ASPX < USERCONTROL:DATEPICKER id="dpBirthDate" startyear="1980" runat="server" Disable=true ASCX < input type="text" size="8" runat="server" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" onblur="ValidateForm(this.id);" / ASCX Code Behind Public Property Disable() As Boolean Get Return (txtDate.Disabled = True) End Get Set(ByVal bValue As Boolean) If (bValue = True) Then txtDate.Attributes.Add("Disabled", "True") Else txtDate.Attributes.Remove("Disabled") End If End Set End Property My Jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("input[id$=txtDate]").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("BASE_DIRECTORY")%>/Images/el-calendar.gif', buttonImageOnly: true }); $("input[id$=txtDate]").mask("99/99/9999", { placeholder: " " }); //Disable datepicker if "disable=true" $("input[id$=txtDate]").each(function() { if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "True") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("disable"); } else if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "False") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("enable"); } }); }); I am sorry, I am not sure how to format the code here. I apologies for the cluttered code. Can anybody tell me why the datepicker value is empty when it is disabled but works fine otherwise? Thanks is advance.

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  • How to allow the user to select an input file for my SQL AdventureWorks web application?

    - by salvationishere
    I have a SQL and VS 2008 web application that I need to capture the full file path (directories and file name) from the selected file on the client computer. So user selects a file and then clicks on one of the buttons which transfers control to my code for processing. So how do I get its file path? I can get the file name, but not the path. Maybe problem is that while testing this web app, I am using the server instead of client machine. And I learned that on a server you cannot read the full file path due to security concerns. Is this true? If I just want this to work on client machine, which method/class do you recommend? And then how can I test it? My web app allows the user to select an input file and then map columns from the input .MDF file with columns from the selected Adventureworks table. Finally, after they click on the "Append" button, it adds rows from the input file to that table. So I want to capture the path info after they click this button.

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  • ASP.NET Panel FindControl within DataList to change property C#

    - by SDC
    I'm new to this ASP.NET stuff. In my page I have a Datalist with a FooterTemplate. In the footer I have a couple panels that will be visible depending on the QueryString. The problem I am having is trying to find these panels on Page_Load to change the Visible Property. For example this is part of the aspx page: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> <asp:DataList ID="dlRecords" runat="server"> <FooterTemplate> <asp:Panel ID="pnlArticleHeader" runat="server" Visible="false" > </asp:Panel> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Datalist> </asp:Content> Here is something in the codebehind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { location = Request.QueryString["location"]; if (location == "HERE") { Panel pnlAH = *Need to find control here*; pnlAH.Visible=true; } } Like I said I am new at this. Everything I have found doesn't seem to work so I decided to post a specific question. Thanks in advance

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  • GET Trello JSON to put in a string var

    - by Verber
    I'm trying to get the JSON that a TRELLO API Url returns and put it into a string. On my own private board I am getting "401 Unauthorized". But the Trello Api doesn't seem to give any way to authorize a user through the URL. If I try a public board I get "XMLHttpRequest cannot load https://api.trello.com/1/board/4d5ea62fd76aa1136000000c?key=68d02bf40d2ad57dd9eb418eb15f9564. Request header field X-Requested-With is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers." This is my code: <body> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.0/jquery.min.js"> </script> <script> var list = $.getJSON(" https://api.trello.com/1/board/4d5ea62fd76aa1136000000c? key=68d02bf40d2ad57dd9eb418eb15f9564"); document.getElementById('print').innerHTML = list; </script> <div id="print"> </div> </body>

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  • How can I resolve this one application coming up with an "You don't have permission to use the application" error?

    - by morgant
    I've got a Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard Server Open Directory Master with a user who's getting Mobility & Application managed preferences from a group (the only group they're a member of). The workstation is also running Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard, when the user logs in and tries to run our primary application which they're explicitly allowed to run (via the group's preferences), it says "You don't have permission to use the application 'Blah'". Now, the application is added to the group's list of always allowed applications, unsigned (so a minor difference in application version or file contents shouldn't disallow it). It even lives in a subdirectory of /Applications which is in the list of folders to allow applications. I've run into this when logging this user into new workstations and the following usually works: Log them out Remove the following files from their mobile home folder on the workstation: /Library/Managed\ Preferences/, ~/.FileSync, ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist, and ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist. Remove the following files from their network home folder on the server: ~/.FileSync, ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist, and ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist. Log them back in on the workstation. However, this no longer resolves the issue. Their Home Sync preferences are set (on the group) to sync ~, but not the following files (manually, at login, and at logout... no background sync here): ~/.SymAVQSFile ~/NAVMac800QSFile ~/Library ~/.FileSync ~/.account Their Preferences Sync preferences are set (also on the group) to sync ~/Library & ~/Documents/Microsoft User Data, but not the following files (also manually, at login, and at logout... no background sync): ~/.SymAVQSFile ~/.Trash ~/.Trashes ~/Documents/Microsoft User Data/Entourage Temp ~/Library/Application Support/SyncServices ~/Library/Application Support/MobileSync ~/Library/Caches ~/Library/Calendars/Calendar Cache ~/Library/Logs ~/Library/Mail/AvailableFeeds ~/Library/Mail/Envelope Index ~/Library/Preferences/Macromedia/ ~/Library/Printers ~/Library/PubSub/Database ~/Library/PubSub/Downloads ~/Library/PubSub/Feeds ~/Library/Safari/Icons.db ~/Library/Safari/HistoryIndex.sk ~/Library/iTunes/iPhone Software Updates IMAP-* Exchange-* EWS-* Mac-* ~/Library/Preferences/ByHost ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.dock.plist ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.sitebarlists.plist ~/Library/Application Support/4D ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist ~/.FileSync ~/.account Even with ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist prevented from syncing during a Preferences Sync, it still seems to show up in the network home on the server frequently. Are there any other files other than ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist that contain application Managed Preferences that might be causing this one app to be showing up as not allowed? Any ideas on how ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist keeps getting sync'd back up the network home folder on the server? Update: I thought I had found a workaround this morning, but it also seemed to be extremely temporary. Basically, loking at /Library/Managed\ Preferences/[shortname]/com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist I discovered that it didn't have an entry for the application in question, but /Library/Managed\ Preferences/[shortname]/complete.plist did. Naturally, I deleted com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist, logged in again, and it worked... on one workstation. It failed on others, and after logging out & back in a couple more times it started failing on all of them again, even after further deletions of com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist. Oddly, com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist & complete.plist do both contain an entry for the application in question now, but it still says it's not allowed. Further Update: Okay, so I now have a reproducible workaround which seems to be required after every reboot of the workstation: Log in as the user (you'll discover you cannot launch the application in question). Fast User Switch to the local admin account on the workstation (we always have one on every machine). From that local admin account, run sudo mcxrefresh -n 'shortname' (logging out and back in as the user in question will not work). Fast User Switch back to the user (you'll still not be allowed to run the application). Log the user out and back in (you'll now be able to run the application in question.) Fast User Switch back to the local admin account, log it out, and log back in as the user in question. If you do all that exactly as described it'll keep working through log out & log back in, but NOT through a reboot. If, after a reboot, you try something like logging in as the local admin account, running sudo mcxrefresh -n 'shortname', logging out, then logging in as the user in question, it will NOT work. Yet Another Update We don't have any computer groups in our Open Directory, so it shouldn't be getting any conflicting settings from there. I ran sudo mcxquery -format xml -user shortname -group groupname before & after performing the aforementioned process to allow the application in question to be run and the results were identical (saved the result to files & diff'd... I'm not just guessing here). One Step Forward, Half a Step Back: When the Mac OS X 10.6.5 Server update was released, we upgraded our Open Directory Master to it as the changes included the following managed preferences fixes which I hoped might address this issue: Addresses an issue that could prevent managed preferences from being applied when a user logs in on a workstation that has been idle. Fixes an issue that could prevent administrators from bypassing client management settings on a workstation. This seemed to improve the situation slightly. The application in question now usually launches without error. If, and when it does launch with the "You don't have permission to use the application" error, logging the user out and back in seems to correct it. That said, we've since had to add a couple of applications to the user's ~/Applications/ directory and those are still prevented from launching. The workstations are running Mac OS X 10.6.4, the OD Master (which the workstations are bound to) is running Mac OS 10.6.5 Server (although there are two OD Replicas still running 10.6.4 Server), and we're using Workgroup Manager 10.6.3 (which is included with the Server Admin Tools 10.6.5 upgrade) to add the applications (unsigned, as always). This time, I've caught the following in /var/log/system.log when attempting to launch one of the allowed applications from ~/Applications: Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname parentalcontrolsd[43221]: -[ActivityTracker checkApp:csFlags:] [954:username] -- *** Incoming app appears to be masquerading as white listed app and failed signature validation: /Users/username/Applications/FileMaker Pro 5.5/FileMaker Pro.app/Contents/MacOS/FileMaker Pro. Note: This may be a valid app of a different version than what was whitelisted (on a different volume?) Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname [0x0-0xa42a42].com.filemaker.filemakerpro[43304]: launch of /Users/username/Applications/FileMaker Pro 5.5/FileMaker Pro.app/Contents/MacOS/FileMaker Pro was blocked Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname com.apple.launchd.peruser.1340[6375] ([0x0-0xa42a42].com.filemaker.filemakerpro[43304]): Exited with exit code: 255 Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname parentalcontrolsd[43221]: -[ActivityTracker(Private) _removeAppFromWhiteList:] [1362:username] -- *** Couldn't find local user record Running sudo mcxquery -format xml -user username -group groupname includes the following entry for FileMaker Pro 5.5 (and appears to include a full integration of the user's application whitelist & group's application whitelist): <dict> <key>bundleID</key> <string>com.filemaker.filemakerpro</string> <key>displayName</key> <string>FileMaker Pro</string> </dict> Note the lack of <key>appID</key><data> ... </data> which seems to specify a signed application. While whitelisted directories also appear to be correctly listed in the results, they too do not actually allow the applications to be run either. What is going on here?! Where else should I be looking?

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  • is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution on sql server

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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  • Browser: Cookie lost on refresh

    - by Nirmal
    I am experiencing a strange behaviour of my application in Chrome browser (No problem with other browsers). When I refresh a page, the cookie is being sent properly, but intermittently the browser doesn't seem to pass the cookie on some refreshes. This is how I set my cookie: $identifier = / some weird string /; $key = md5(uniqid(rand(), true)); $timeout = number_format(time(), 0, '.', '') + 43200; setcookie('fboxauth', $identifier . ":" . $key, $timeout, "/", "fbox.mysite.com", 0); This is what I am using for page headers: header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Thu, 25 Nov 1982 08:24:00 GMT"); // Date in the past Do you see any issue here that might affect the cookie handling? Thank you for any suggestion. EDIT-01: It seems that the cookie is not being sent with some requests. This happens intermittently and I am seeing this behaviour for ALL the browsers now. Has anyone come across such situation? Is there any situation where a cookie will not be sent with the request? Thanks again, for any guideline.

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  • jquery animation headache

    - by OneNerd
    Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

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  • How save selected switch option

    - by Rkm
    System UIviewcontroller has button , Tap on button i need to fire Info Tableviewcontroller. Tableviewcontroller itself UISwitch. My question is I need to save last selected switch option ON/OFF in UISwitch how to set my control. @implementation Info // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.section) { cell.textLabel.text = @"Sounds"; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; UISwitch *switchView = [[UISwitch alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; cell.accessoryView = switchView; [switchView setOn:NO animated:NO]; [switchView addTarget:self action:@selector(switchChanged_Sounds:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; [switchView release]; return cell ; } } - (void) switchChanged_Sounds:(id)sender { UISwitch* switchControl = sender; NSLog( @"The switchChanged_Sounds is %@", switchControl.on ? @"ON" : @"OFF" ); }

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  • UpdatePanel refreshes only once

    - by superexsl
    Hi, I have two updatepanels inside an accordion control, laid out like this: <accordion> <first pane content> <updatepanel UpdateMode="conditional"> <contenttemplate>...</contenttemplate> <triggers>...</triggers> </updatepanel> </first pane content> <second pane content> <updatepanel> <contenttemplate>...</contenttemplate> <triggers>...</triggers> </updatepanel> </second pane content> </accordion> The panel updates once, but after that, no updates take place. If I refresh the page, then I can see the updated information. This means that the database is being updated, but the updatepanel isn't refreshing (after refreshing the first time). Why is this happening? This has been bugging me for days, so any advice would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • I find a problem with sending receiving parameter

    - by kawtousse
    how to get the xml translation to html dropdownlist with ajax. I send the parameter with GET method but the JSP FILE THAT GENERATES THE XML DONT RECEIVE IT. var url="responsexml.jsp"; url=url+"?projectCode="+prj.options[prj.selectedIndex].value; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); and then in responsexml.jsp I do like that: <% String projectcode= (String)request.getParameter("projectCode"); System.out.println("++++projectCode:=" +projectcode); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s = HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx = s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("SELECT from Wa wa where wa.ProjectCode='"+projectcode+"'"); response.setContentType("text/xml"); PrintWriter output = response.getWriter(); output.write( "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>"); //response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); //constriure le xml if(projectcode!=null) { for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Wa object=(Wa)it.next(); //out.print( "<item id=\"" +object.getIdWA() + "\" name=\"" + object.getWAName() + "\" />"); output.write("<wa>"); output.write( "<item id=\"" + object.getIdWA() + "\" name=\"" + object.getWAName() + "\" />"); output.write("</wa>"); } } } } catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } %> </body> </html> With this code I dont have my xml file. I got this error: The server did not understand the request, or the request was invalid. Erreur de traitement de la ressource http://www.w3.o... PLEASE HELP.

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  • ASP.net MVC 2 EditorFor Dictionary Bind

    - by user307540
    Hi! I try this, but don't work. bemutatkozas@Modify = null all the time. public class Iroda { public Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas { get; set; } } public ActionResult Index() { var dct = new Dictionary<int, string>(); dct.Add(1, "magyar"); dct.Add(2, "angol"); dct.Add(3, "olasz"); return View(new Iroda { bemutatkozas = dct }); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Modify(Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas) { return View(); } <% using (Html.BeginForm("Modify","Iroda")) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <%= Html.EditorFor(o=>o.bemutatkozas,"MultiLanguageEditor") %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<Dictionary<int, string>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach (var s in Model) { %> <%= Html.Hidden(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].key", s.Key) %> <%= Html.TextBox(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].value",s.Value) %> <% i++; %> <% }%> Whats the solution? Thx!

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  • Running a GWT application (including Applets) inside an IFRAME from an ASP.NET 3.5 app?

    - by Jay Stevens
    We are looking at integrating a full-blown GWT (Google Web Toolkit 2.0) application with an existing ASP.NET 3.5 application. My first gut reaction is that this is a horrible frankenstein idea. However, the customer has insisted that we use this application developed by a third-party. I have almost NO CONTROL over the development of the GWT app. My first thought is to actually attempt to embed this in an iFrame. Because GWT is running under Tomcat/Jakarta, it is hosted on a different server from the .NET app so the iFrame src will be to a URL on the other machine. I need to utilize our own ASP.NET authorization scheme to restrict access to the embedded GWT application. The GWT app also uses embedded java applets, which don't seem to be working right now inside the iframe. The GWT app makes calls to a backend server (using GWT-RPC?). Any major problems with this approach that anyone can see? Will GWT work on an iframe while hosted on a different machine? NOTE: SIMPLY ADDING A DIV WITH THE SAME NAME DOES NOT WORK FOR THIS!

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  • vs10 not deploying all required files - then not over-writing updated files

    - by justSteve
    I'm in the habit of deploying to alternating folders (/inetpub/wwwroot/mySite & /inetpub/wwwroot/mySite2) so if something unexpected happens with the deploy i can quickly swap back to a previous version just by changing the path in IIS So i was deploying an MVC2 webapp to a empty folder figuring that VS would send up all the files it needs. Not even close. Initially, it didn't even upload a couple required nHibernate.dlls. Later, after manually copying files referenced in the thrown exceptions, i just copied all the files from the previous compile and then re-published over the top expecting VS to over-write the changed files. Failed that too. No reports of errors by VS....just failed to over-write a number of pre-existing (but changed/updated) files. Hard to believe these kinds of errors (and lack of feedback that errors were encountered) in a state of the art tool like VS. Clearly, I'm doing something wrong. I'm using VisualSVN for source control and connect to my colocated server via a VPN-based mapped network drive (so I can use FileSystem to publish). (both of which can complicate file properties) VS08 had more choices for which files it would send up - i found i needed to use the 'All files in source' on an initial deployment, the 'Replace Matching'. If I choose 'delete all existing...' I'd be back to square 1 and have to deploy with the 'All files in source project folder'. But VS10 doesn't have the 'All files in source project folder. I ended up manually copying the files - which seems not right in the extreme. Are these known issues others have to deal with? What's best practice for deploying a web-app? thx

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  • VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

    - by Rob
    I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

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