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  • Making a visual bar timer for iPhone

    - by Ohmnastrum
    I've looked up all results for progress bars and changing the width of an image but it only refers to scaling, and the progress bars aren't customizable so that they fit other functions or design schemes... unless I missed that part. I'm trying to make a bar timer that crops off of the right over a period of time. I tried using an NStimer so that it would subtract from a value each time its function is called. the Timerbar function gets called as a result of another timer invalidating and it works. What doesn't work is that the width isn't changing just the position. further more I keep getting values like Inf and 0 for power and pwrBarWidth I was sure that the changes would occur when Mult was plugged into the equation. it seems like casting mult as an int is causing problems but i'm not sure exactly how. int pwrBarMaxWidth = 137; int pwrBarWidth 0; int limit = 1; float mult; float power = 0; -(void) Timerbar:(NSTimer *)barTimer { if(!waitForPlayer) { [barTimer invalidate]; } if(mult > 0.0) { mult -= 0.001 * [colorChoices count]; if(mult < 0.0) { mult = 0.0; } } power = (mult * 10) / pwrBarMaxWidth; pwrBarWidth = (int)power % limit; // causes the bar to repeat after it reaches a certain point //At this point however the variable Power is always "inf" and PwrBarWidth is always 0. [powerBar setBounds:CGRectMake(powerBar.frame.origin.x, powerBar.frame.origin.y,pwrBarWidth,20)]; //supposed to change the crop of the bar } Any reason why I'm getting inf as a value for power, 0 as a value for pwrBarWidth, and the bar itself isn't cropping? if this question is a bit vague i'll provide more information as needed.

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  • How does this Bookmarklet allow you to stay signed into this site?

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I have come across Evernote's bookmarklet and was wondering how this worked. You can just drag it to your bookmark and go to any webpage, click that bookmarklet and it will first ask you to login in. All this I have done already and know how it works. The bit that I don't understand is that when you log in they authenticate you and allow you to submit stuff (in this case, a site url etc). When you are done the bookmarklet which placed a small overlay on the page you are viewing disappears. When you go to a new tab and use the bookmarklet again you are still logged in! How? I can see they are using an iFrame when their bookmarklet loads the overlay onto the page - but do they set cookies or something? If so, is this secure? Anyone can change the values? Or are they using some sort of private/public key system Btw, I would like to replicate this Bookmarklet using PHP/Javascript(JQuery maybe). I would appreciate if anyone can help me understand how they do this or point me to relevant tutorials. Thanks all for any help.

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  • How can I overlay a watermark on an already resampled image in PHP (using GD) ?

    - by Rick
    Here's my current code: define('IMG_WIDTH', (isset ($_GET['width'])) ? (int) $_GET['width'] : 99); define('IMG_HEIGHT', (isset ($_GET['height'])) ? (int) $_GET['height'] : 75); $image = imagecreatefromjpeg($_GET['image']); $origWidth = imagesx($image); $origHeight = imagesy($image); $croppedThumb = imagecreatetruecolor(IMG_WIDTH, IMG_HEIGHT); if ($origWidth > $origHeight) { $leftOffset = ($origWidth - $origHeight) / 2; imagecopyresampled($croppedThumb, $image, 0, 0, $leftOffset, 0, IMG_WIDTH, IMG_HEIGHT, $origHeight, $origHeight); } else { $topOffset = ($origHeight - $origWidth) / 2; imagecopyresampled($croppedThumb, $image, 0, 0, 0, $topOffset, IMG_WIDTH, IMG_HEIGHT, $origWidth, $origWidth); } It basically takes an image and re-sizes it to create a thumbnail. It works quite nicely. What I would like to do now is add a watermark to the bottom right corner. I've seen the imagecopymerge function used for this... However, that doesn't seem to allow me to supply a resampled image as the source. How can I take my already modified image and add a watermark? :/ I've thought of saving the image to /tmp and then unlink()'ing it once I've added the watermark but that seems like a bit of a mess...

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  • My kernel only works in block (0,0)

    - by ZeroDivide
    I am trying to write a simple matrixMultiplication application that multiplies two square matrices using CUDA. I am having a problem where my kernel is only computing correctly in block (0,0) of the grid. This is my invocation code: dim3 dimBlock(4,4,1); dim3 dimGrid(4,4,1); //Launch the kernel; MatrixMulKernel<<<dimGrid,dimBlock>>>(Md,Nd,Pd,Width); This is my Kernel function __global__ void MatrixMulKernel(int* Md, int* Nd, int* Pd, int Width) { const int tx = threadIdx.x; const int ty = threadIdx.y; const int bx = blockIdx.x; const int by = blockIdx.y; const int row = (by * blockDim.y + ty); const int col = (bx * blockDim.x + tx); //Pvalue stores the Pd element that is computed by the thread int Pvalue = 0; for (int k = 0; k < Width; k++) { Pvalue += Md[row * Width + k] * Nd[k * Width + col]; } __syncthreads(); //Write the matrix to device memory each thread writes one element Pd[row * Width + col] = Pvalue; } I think the problem may have something to do with memory but I'm a bit lost. What should I do to make this code work across several blocks?

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  • PHP - advice for java HashMap alternative in php?

    - by teutara
    I know it is super noob and will be answered in no time, but I could not figure.. sorry for any inconvenience.. Here is the thing: ID colA colB Length 1 seq1 seq11 1 2 seq1 seq11 11 3 seq3 seq33 21 4 seq3 seq33 14 I have a db with this kind of a table, has more than 10M rows. I want to loop though colA first, get the relevant colB value, and check if there are any other occurrences of the same value. For example in colB (seq11) there are 2 occurrences of colA(seq1), this time I have to combine those and output the sum of the length. Similar to this: ID colA colB Length 1 seq1 seq11 12 2 seq3 seq33 35 I am a bit java guy, but because my colleague has written everything in php and this will be just an adding, i need a php solution. With java i would have used hashmap, so that I would have the colA data once and just increment the value of "Length Column".. I know it is not a proper question, but.. Thank you in advance.. $$$$$$$$$$ EDIT $$$$$$$$$$ I tried this query in order to group by occurences: SELECT COUNT(*) SeqName FROM SeqTable GROUP BY SeqName HAVING COUNT(*)>0;

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  • Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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  • DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

    - by ciscoheat
    Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

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  • How to run a javascript function before postback of asp.net button?

    - by Curtis White
    I'm using Javascript to create a DIV element and open up a new page by using onclientclick. This works great. Now, I need to write to it from the server side and this element must be created before it is posted back. How do I get the javascript to execute before the postback? Currently, I have to press the button twice because the element doesn't exist to write too on the first click. To be clear, I need this to execute before the "OnClick" of the button. Update: It looks like the Javascript function is called before the postback but the element is not updated until I run the second postback. Hmm Update: Unfortunately it is a bit more complicated then this. I'm creating a div tag in javascript to open a new window. Inside the div tag, I'm using a databinding syntax <%=Preview% so that I can get access to this element on the server side. From the server side, I'm injecting the code. I'm thinking this may be a chicken-egg problem but not sure. UPDATE! It is not the Javascript not running first. It is the databinding mechanism which is reading the blank variable before I'm able to set it. Hmm

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  • Code Analysis Warning CA1004 with generic method

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following generic method: // Load an object from the disk public static T DeserializeObject<T>(String filename) where T : class { XmlSerializer xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); try { TextReader textReader = new StreamReader(filename); var result = (T)xmlSerializer.Deserialize(textReader); textReader.Close(); return result; } catch (FileNotFoundException) { } return null; } When I compile I get the following warning: CA1004 : Microsoft.Design : Consider a design where 'MiscHelpers.DeserializeObject(string)' doesn't require explicit type parameter 'T' in any call to it. I have considered this and I don't know a way to do what it requests with out limiting the types that can be deserialized. I freely admit that I might be missing an easy way to fix this. But if I am not, then is my only recourse to suppress this warning? I have a clean project with no warnings or messages. I would like to keep it that way. I guess I am asking "why this is a warning?" At best this seems like it should be a message. And even that seems a bit much. Either it can or it can't be fixed. If it can't then you are just stuck with the warning with no recourse but suppressing it. Am I wrong?

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  • Alert and if changes behaviour dom copying

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance!

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  • Importing a div's content from a Static HTML file using PHP or jQuery or Ajax?

    - by Vikram
    Hello friends a newbie question... The Issue is like this: I have a static HTML file and I want to import just a portion of that file into another page. How can I do that. Example Code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Some title here</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="styles.css" /> </head> <body> <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <div id="box-2"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="script.js"></script> </body> </html> Now what I want is to read this HTML file and import just this bit: <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> Is there a way of doing it? Kindly help. Even a PHP, jQuery, Ajax or any other solution will also do. Please help me.

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  • Applying drop shadows to divs

    - by CJD
    Hi everyone, I need a bit of help applying a drop shadow image to a range of DIV elements. The elements in question already have a background image so I am wrapping another DIV around them. Things get complicated further because I'm also using the 960gs CSS framework. This is my current HTML for a content box type display: <div class="grid_12 boxout-shadow-920"> <div class="boxout"> <p>planetCJD.co.uk is the personal site and blog of CJD. The site is still a work-in-progress but please do have a look around and let me know what you think! </p> </div> </div> Boxout CSS: .boxout { background:url("../images/overlay.png") repeat-x scroll 0 0 #EEEEEE; -moz-border-radius:4px 4px 4px 4px; border:1px solid #DDDDDD; margin-bottom:15px; padding:5px; } boxout-shadow-920 CSS: .boxout-shadow-920 { background:url("../images/box-shadow-920.png") no-repeat scroll 50% 101% transparent; } Now this works to a degree. The boxshadow image shows at the bottom of the content box which is what I would like. However as I'm using a fixed percentage of 101%, if the content box height is too small, not much of the drop shadow image gets shown, and if the content box is too big, whitespace starts to appear between the box and the shadow image. So anyway, what I'm looking for is a cross-browser CSS based solution for doing this properly. I'm sure there is an easy answer to this - any help is appreciated!

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  • Determing if an unordered vector<T> has all unique elements

    - by Hooked
    Profiling my cpu-bound code has suggested I that spend a long time checking to see if a container contains completely unique elements. Assuming that I have some large container of unsorted elements (with < and = defined), I have two ideas on how this might be done: The first using a set: template <class T> bool is_unique(vector<T> X) { set<T> Y(X.begin(), X.end()); return X.size() == Y.size(); } The second looping over the elements: template <class T> bool is_unique2(vector<T> X) { typename vector<T>::iterator i,j; for(i=X.begin();i!=X.end();++i) { for(j=i+1;j!=X.end();++j) { if(*i == *j) return 0; } } return 1; } I've tested them the best I can, and from what I can gather from reading the documentation about STL, the answer is (as usual), it depends. I think that in the first case, if all the elements are unique it is very quick, but if there is a large degeneracy the operation seems to take O(N^2) time. For the nested iterator approach the opposite seems to be true, it is lighting fast if X[0]==X[1] but takes (understandably) O(N^2) time if all the elements are unique. Is there a better way to do this, perhaps a STL algorithm built for this very purpose? If not, are there any suggestions eek out a bit more efficiency?

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  • What is the fastest (possibly unsafe) way to read a byte[]?

    - by Aidiakapi
    I'm working on a server project in C#, and after a TCP message is received, it is parsed, and stored in a byte[] of exact size. (Not a buffer of fixed length, but a byte[] of an absolute length in which all data is stored.) Now for reading this byte[] I'll be creating some wrapper functions (also for compatibility), these are the signatures of all functions I need: public byte ReadByte(); public sbyte ReadSByte(); public short ReadShort(); public ushort ReadUShort(); public int ReadInt(); public uint ReadUInt(); public float ReadFloat(); public double ReadDouble(); public string ReadChars(int length); public string ReadString(); The string is a \0 terminated string, and is probably encoded in ASCII or UTF-8, but I cannot tell that for sure, since I'm not writing the client. The data exists of: byte[] _data; int _offset; Now I can write all those functions manually, like this: public byte ReadByte() { return _data[_offset++]; } public sbyte ReadSByte() { byte r = _data[_offset++]; if (r >= 128) return (sbyte)(r - 256); else return (sbyte)r; } public short ReadShort() { byte b1 = _data[_offset++]; byte b2 = _data[_offset++]; if (b1 >= 128) return (short)(b1 * 256 + b2 - 65536); else return (short)(b1 * 256 + b2); } public short ReadUShort() { byte b1 = _data[_offset++]; return (short)(b1 * 256 + _data[_offset++]); } But I wonder if there's a faster way, not excluding the use of unsafe code, since this seems a little bit too much work for simple processing.

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  • SCons and dependencies for python function generating source

    - by elmo
    I have an input file data, a python function parse and a template. What I am trying to do is use parse function to get dictionary out of data and use that to replace fields in template. Now to make this a bit more generic (I perform the same action in few places) I have defined a custom function to do so. Below is definition of custom builder and values is a dictionary with { 'name': (data_file, parse_function) } (you don't really need to read through this, I simply put it here for completeness). def TOOL_ADD_FILL_TEMPLATE(env): def FillTemplate(env, output, template, values): out = output[0] subs = {} for name, (node, process) in values.iteritems(): def Process(env, target, source): with open( env.GetBuildPath(target[0]), 'w') as out: out.write( process( source[0] ) ) builder = env.Builder( action = Process ) subs[name] = builder( env, env.GetBuildPath(output[0])+'_'+name+'_processed.cpp', node )[0] def Fill(env, target, source): values = dict( (name, n.get_contents()) for name, n in subs.iteritems() ) contents = template[0].get_contents().format( **values ) open( env.GetBuildPath(target[0]), 'w').write( contents ) builder = env.Builder( action = Fill ) builder( env, output[0], template + subs.values() ) return output env.Append(BUILDERS = {'FillTemplate': FillTemplate}) It works fine when it comes to checking if data or template changed. If it did it rebuilds the output. It even works if I edit process function directly. However if my process function looks like this: def process( node ): return subprocess(node) and I edit subprocess the change goes unnoticed. Is there any way to get correct builds without making process functions being always invoked?

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  • SQL developer here -- Nesting with select * finicky in Oracle 10g?

    - by John Sullivan
    I am writing a simple diagnostic query I will execute in my Oracle 10g scratchpad. I am trying to do this as part of a step to build the query. In the SQL Scratchpad for Oracle 10g Enterprise Manager Console, this statement runs fine. SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ' If I try to wrap that up in Select * from () tb2 I get an error, "ORA-00918: Column Ambiguously Defined". I didn't think that could ever happen with this kind of statement so I am a bit confused. select * from (SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ') tb2 You should always be able to select * from the result set of another select * statement using this structure as far as I'm aware... right? Is Oracle/10g/the scratchpad trying to force me to accept a certain syntactic structure to prevent excessive nesting? Is this a bug in scratchpad or something about how oracle works?

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  • Variable won't store in session

    - by Mittens
    So I'm trying to store the "rank" of a user when they log in to a control panel which displays different options depending on the given rank. I used the same method as I did for storing and displaying the username, which is displayed on the top of each page and works just fine. I can't for the life of me figure out why it won't work for the rank value, but I do know that it is not saving it in the session. Here is the bit that's not working; $username = ($_POST['username']); $password = hash('sha512', $_POST['password']); $dbhost = 'mysql:host=¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦;dbname=¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦'; $dbuser = '¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦'; $dbpassword = '¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦'; try { $db = new PDO($dbhost, $dbuser, $dbpassword); $statement = $db->prepare("select password from users where email = :name"); $statement->execute(array(':name' => $username)); $result = $statement->fetch(); $pass = $result[password]; $rank = $result[rank];} catch(PDOException $e) {echo $e->getMessage();} if ($password == $pass) { session_start(); $_SESSION['username'] = $username; $_SESSION['rank'] = $rank; header('Location: http://¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦.ca/manage.php'); } else{ include'../../includes/head.inc'; echo '<h1>Incorrect username or password.</h1>'; include'../../includes/footer.inc'; } I'm also new to the whole PDO thing, hence why my method of authenticating the password is pretty sketchy.

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  • Best way to not update empty posts

    - by user1533106
    Hello, Im using codeigniter, and the page in case just update infos about an user. If the user go to the page and edit values and that posts come as "" or empty (samething) then no update it let the query pass it, i got a logic but its a bit ugly and ill take alot of time. $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; if($nome != ""){ $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; }else{ $nome = ""; } if($sobrenome != ""){ $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; }else{ $sobrenome = ""; } $data = array($nome, $sobrenome); The problem is, i got alot of fields :( If anyone know a smart way or a better way, please i want know

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  • Making a Delete and Reply button in Jquery

    - by Branko Ostojic
    this is my second post on the website. Of all other sites i tried, this one gave the most accurate and useful information! I'm in a bit of a trouble with buttons, i have a task to make an inbox and to add a "reply" and "delete" button into every instance of the message. I was indeed wandering if there is a better way to do that than forcing the HTML code into the script, because every message is dynamically generated. Any help and/or suggestions would be very appreciated!(The objects are called from a JSON file). $(document).ready(function(){ $.getJSON('public/js/data.json', function(json){ $.each(json.data, function(i, data){ var output = ''; if(data.from.id != '234' && data.from.name != 'Alan Ford'){ $("#inbox").append( output += '<div class="post">'+ '<div class="h1">'+data.from.name+' - '+data.subject+'</div>'+ //this gives the name of the person who sent the message and the subject '<div class="content">'+data.message_formatted+'</div>'+ //The content of the message //buttons should be squeezed left of the date //this gives the date of the message sent '<div class="time">'+data.date_sent_formatted.formatted+'</div>'+ '</div>' ); }}); }); }); var date_sent=convertToDateTime(); function delete_message(id){ console.log('Delete message with id: '+id); } function reply_message(id, sender){ console.log('Message id: '+id); console.log('Reply to: '+sender); } The complete code in the JSFiddle . Just copy/pasted!

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  • Theme-aware XAML resources in a WP7 project

    - by SandRock
    I'm making a Windows Phone 7 application and I'm a bit confused with dark/light themes. With a panorama, you very often set a background image. The issue is it's very hard to make a picture which is right for both dark and light themes. How are we supposed to proceed? Is there a way to force a dark/light theme for a panorama? This will avoid making theme-specific panorama background pictures. Then how do I do? I found xaml files in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SDKs\Windows Phone\v7.0\Design. If this is a right way to proceed, how can I import them for my panorama? Or if there's no way (or if it's wrong) to force a dark/light theme: how to write conditional XAML to set correct resources? Now I have the following XAML which is fine with the dark theme: <ImageBrush x:Key="PageBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PageBackground.png" Stretch="None" /> <ImageBrush x:Key="PanoramaBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PanoramaBackground.png" Stretch="None" /> But when I use a light theme, black controls and black texts are hard to read with my dark background pictures. So I made different pictures that I can use this way: <ImageBrush x:Key="PageBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PageBackgroundLight.png" Stretch="None" /> <ImageBrush x:Key="PanoramaBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PanoramaBackgroundLight.png" Stretch="None" /> Now my issue is to make XAML conditionnal to declare the right thing depending on the current theme. I found no relevant way on the Internet. I would prefer not to use code or code-behind for that because I believe XAML is able to do this (I just don't know how).

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  • R Random Data Sets within loops

    - by jugossery
    Here is what I want to do: I have a time series data frame with let us say 100 time-series of length 600 - each in one column of the data frame. I want to pick up 4 of the time-series randomly and then assign them random weights that sum up to one (ie 0.1, 0.5, 0.3, 0.1). Using those I want to compute the mean of the sum of the 4 weighted time series variables (e.g. convex combination). I want to do this let us say 100k times and store each result in the form ts1.name, ts2.name, ts3.name, ts4.name, weight1, weight2, weight3, weight4, mean so that I get a 9*100k df. I tried some things already but R is very bad with loops and I know vector oriented solutions are better because of R design. Thanks Here is what I did and I know it is horrible The df is in the form v1,v2,v2.....v100 1,5,6,.......9 2,4,6,.......10 3,5,8,.......6 2,2,8,.......2 etc e=NULL for (x in 1:100000) { s=sample(1:100,4)#pick 4 variables randomly a=sample(seq(0,1,0.01),1) b=sample(seq(0,1-a,0.01),1) c=sample(seq(0,(1-a-b),0.01),1) d=1-a-b-c e=c(a,b,c,d)#4 random weights average=mean(timeseries.df[,s]%*%t(e)) e=rbind(e,s,average)#in the end i get the 9*100k df } The procedure runs way to slow. EDIT: Thanks for the help i had,i am not used to think R and i am not very used to translate every problem into a matrix algebra equation which is what you need in R. Then the problem becomes a little bit complex if i want to calculate the standard deviation. i need the covariance matrix and i am not sure i can if/how i can pick random elements for each sample from the original timeseries.df covariance matrix then compute the sample variance (t(sampleweights)%*%sample_cov.mat%*%sampleweights) to get in the end the ts.weighted_standard_dev matrix Last question what is the best way to proceed if i want to bootstrap the original df x times and then apply the same computations to test the robustness of my datas thanks

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  • Replacing characters in a non well-formed XML body

    - by ryanprayogo
    In a (Java) code that I'm working on, I sometimes deal with a non well-formed XML (represented as a Java String), such as: <root> <foo> bar & baz < quux </foo> </root> Since this XML will eventually need to be unmarshalled (using JAXB), obviously this XML as is will throw exception upon unmarshalling. What's the best way to replace the & and the < to its character entities? For &, it's as easy as: xml.replaceAll("&", "&amp;") However, for the < symbol, it's a bit tricky since obviously I don't want to replace the < that's used for the XML tag opening 'bracket'. Other than scanning the string and manually replacing < in the XML body with &lt;, what other option can you suggest?

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  • deployd authentification using jquery ajax

    - by user2507987
    I have installed deployd in my debian 7.0.0 64 bit, I have also succesfully installed mongodb in it, I have create some collection and user collection in deployd dashboard, then using user guide how to connect and query the table in deployd, I choose jquery ajax to log in to deployd from my localhost site and after login success I try to get/post some data, but somehow deployd return access denied. I have create collection name it people, and then at the GET, POST, PUT Event I have write this code : cancelUnless(me, "You are not logged in", 401); then using this ajax code, I try to login and POST new people data: $(document).ready(function(){ /* Create query for username and password for login */ var request = new Object; request.username = 'myusername'; request.password = 'mypassword'; submitaddress = "http://myipaddress:myport/users/login"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress, data: request, cache: false, success: function(data){ var returndata = eval(data); /* After Login success try to post people data */ if (returndata){ var request2 = new Object; request2.name = 'People Name'; submitaddress2 = "http://myipaddress:myport/people"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress2, data: request2, cache: false, success: function(){ } }) } } } }); }) The login process success, it's return session id and my user id, but after login success and I try to POST people data it's return "You are not logged in", can anyone help me, what is the correct way to login to deployd using jquery from other website(cross domain)?

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  • Frame sizing of tableview within nested child controllers/subviews

    - by jwoww
    I'm a bit confused by the proper frame sizing of a table view to fit within my screen. Here's my setup of view controllers within view controllers: UITabBarController UINavigationController as one of the tab bar viewcontrollers; title bar hidden ViewController - a container view controller because I need the option to place some controls beneath the UITableView, sometimes (but not in the current scenario) UITableViewController Now, my question is what the proper frame dimensions of the UITableview should be. Here's what I've got in the ViewController viewDidLoad method. I used subtracted 49.0 (the size of the tab bar) from 480.0. However, this leaves a black bar at the bottom. 20.0 appears to do it (coincidentally?) the size of the status bar, but I don't understand why that would be. Wouldn't the true pixel dimensions of the tableview be 480-49? // MessageTableViewController is my subclass of UITableViewController MessagesTableViewController *vcMessagesTable = [[MessagesTableViewController alloc] init]; CGRect tableViewFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320.0, 480.0 - 49.0); [[vcMessagesTable view] setFrame:tableViewFrame]; self.tableViewController = vcMessagesTable; [self addChildViewController:vcMessagesTable]; [[self view] addSubview:vcMessagesTable.view]; Here's how it looks:

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  • javascript/html/php: Is it possible to insert a value into a form with Ajax?

    - by user1260310
    I have a form where users enter some text manually. Then I'd like to let the users choose a tag from a database through AJAX, not unlike how tag suggestions appear in the SO question form. While the div where the ajax call places the tag is inside the form, it does not seem to register and the tag is not picked up by the form. Am I missing something in my code, is this impossible or, if impossible there a better way to do this? Thanks for any suggestions. Here is code: html <form method="post" action="enterdata.php"> <input type="text" name="text">Enter text here. <div id="inserttags"></div><a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="getTags()";>Get tags</a> <form type="button" name="submit" value="Enter Text and Tag"> </form> javascript getTags() { various Ajax goes here, then //following line inserts value into div of html document.getElementById("inserttags").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; // a bit more ajax, then following pulls tag from db xmlhttp.open("GET","findtags.php",true); xmlhttp.send(); } //end function php //gettags.php //first pull tag from db. Then: echo 'input type="text" name="tag" value= "html">Enter tag'; //above output gets inserted in div and is visible on page. Though the above output is visible on page, the form does not seem to pick it up when you click "Enter Text and Tag" to submit the form.

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