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  • Can a C# method chain be "too long"?

    - by ccornet
    Not in terms of readability, naturally, since you can always arrange the separate methods into separate lines. Rather, is it dangerous, for any reason, to chain an excessively large number of methods together? I use method chaining primarily to save space on declaring individual one-use variables, and traditionally using return methods instead of methods that modify the caller. Except for string methods, those I kinda chain mercilessly. In any case, I worry sometimes about the impact of using exceptionally long method chains all in one line. Let's say I need to update the value of one item based on someone's username. Unfortunately, the shortest method to retrieve the correct user looks something like the following. SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); SPList list2 = web.Lists["Wars"]; SPListItem item2 = list2.GetItemById(3); SPListItem item3 = item2.GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army"); SPUser user2 = item2.GetSPUser("Commander"); SPUser user3 = user2.GetAssociate("Spouse"); string username2 = user3.Name; item1["Contact"] = username2; Everything with a 2 or 3 lasts for only one call, so I might condense it as the following (which also lets me get rid of a would-be-superfluous 1): SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); item["Contact"] = web.Lists["Armies"] .GetItemById(3) .GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army") .GetSPUser("Commander") .GetAssociate("Spouse") .Name; Admittedly, it looks a lot longer when it is all in one line and when you have int.Parse(ddlArmy.SelectedValue.CutBefore(";#", false)) instead of 3. Nevertheless, this is one of the average lengths of these chains, and I can easily foresee some of exceptionally longer counts. Excluding readability, is there anything I should be worried about for these 10+ method chains? Or is there no harm in using really really long method chains?

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  • Database and logic layer for ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Ismail
    I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern as it allows to apply filter in logic layer rather than in data access layer. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right? So questions basically are - Is MySQL to Linq possible? If yes where can I get more details on it? Pros and cons of using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will it be easy to access data using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will I be able to implement repository patter which allows applying filter in logic layer rather than data access layer (when I use EntityFramework with MySQL) Does it fetches hell lot of data from database and then apply filter on it? If it sounds too many questions from my side in that case, if you can just let me know what you will do (with a considerable reason) in this situation as an experienced person in this area, that should answer my question.

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  • Retrieve a TextBox element dinamically created and Focus it

    - by user335444
    Hi, I have a collection (VariableValueCollection) of custom type VariableValueViewModel objects binded with a ListView. WPF Follow: <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding VariableValueCollection}" Name="itemList"> <ListView.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:VariableValueViewModel}"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="180"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBox TabIndex="{Binding Path=Index, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, Mode=TwoWay}" Grid.Column="0" Name="tbValue" Focusable="True" LostFocus="tbValue_LostFocus" GotFocus="tbValue_GotFocus" KeyDown="tbValue_KeyDown"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="Value" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" Mode="TwoWay"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <ExceptionValidationRule></ExceptionValidationRule> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ListView.Resources> </ListView> My Goal is to add a new row when I press "enter" on last row, and Focus the new row. To do that, I check that row is the last row and add a new row in that case. But I don't know how to focus the new TextBox... Here the KeyPressed method: private void tbValue_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == System.Windows.Input.Key.Enter) { DependencyObject obj = itemList.ContainerFromElement((sender as TextBox)); int index = itemList.ItemContainerGenerator.IndexFromContainer(obj); if( index == (VariableValueCollection.Count - 1) ) { // Create a VariableValueViewModel object and add to collection. In binding, that create a new list item with a new TextBox ViewModel.AddNewRow(); // How to set cursor and focus last row created? } } } Thank's in advance...

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  • Passing IDisposable objects through constructor chains

    - by Matt Enright
    I've got a small hierarchy of objects that in general gets constructed from data in a Stream, but for some particular subclasses, can be synthesized from a simpler argument list. In chaining the constructors from the subclasses, I'm running into an issue with ensuring the disposal of the synthesized stream that the base class constructor needs. Its not escaped me that the use of IDisposable objects this way is possibly just dirty pool (plz advise?) for reasons I've not considered, but, this issue aside, it seems fairly straightforward (and good encapsulation). Codes: abstract class Node { protected Node (Stream raw) { // calculate/generate some base class properties } } class FilesystemNode : Node { public FilesystemNode (FileStream fs) : base (fs) { // all good here; disposing of fs not our responsibility } } class CompositeNode : Node { public CompositeNode (IEnumerable some_stuff) : base (GenerateRaw (some_stuff)) { // rogue stream from GenerateRaw now loose in the wild! } static Stream GenerateRaw (IEnumerable some_stuff) { var content = new MemoryStream (); // molest elements of some_stuff into proper format, write to stream content.Seek (0, SeekOrigin.Begin); return content; } } I realize that not disposing of a MemoryStream is not exactly a world-stopping case of bad CLR citizenship, but it still gives me the heebie-jeebies (not to mention that I may not always be using a MemoryStream for other subtypes). It's not in scope, so I can't explicitly Dispose () it later in the constructor, and adding a using statement in GenerateRaw () is self-defeating since I need the stream returned. Is there a better way to do this? Preemptive strikes: yes, the properties calculated in the Node constructor should be part of the base class, and should not be calculated by (or accessible in) the subclasses I won't require that a stream be passed into CompositeNode (its format should be irrelevant to the caller) The previous iteration had the value calculation in the base class as a separate protected method, which I then just called at the end of each subtype constructor, moved the body of GenerateRaw () into a using statement in the body of the CompositeNode constructor. But the repetition of requiring that call for each constructor and not being able to guarantee that it be run for every subtype ever (a Node is not a Node, semantically, without these properties initialized) gave me heebie-jeebies far worse than the (potential) resource leak here does.

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  • How to define a "complicated" ComputedColumn in SQL Server?

    - by Slauma
    SQL Server Beginner question: I'm trying to introduce a computed column in SQL Server (2008). In the table designer of SQL Server Management Studio I can do this, but the designer only offers me one single edit cell to define the expression for this column. Since my computed column will be rather complicated (depending on several database fields and with some case differentiations) I'd like to have a more comfortable and maintainable way to enter the column definition (including line breaks for formatting and so on). I've seen there is an option to define functions in SQL Server (scalar value or table value functions). Is it perhaps better to define such a function and use this function as the column specification? And what kind of function (scalar value, table value)? To make a simplified example: I have two database columns: DateTime1 (smalldatetime, NULL) DateTime2 (smalldatetime, NULL) Now I want to define a computed column "Status" which can have four possible values. In Dummy language: if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 0 else if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NOT NULL) set Status = 1 else if (DateTime1 IS NOT NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 2 else set Status = 3 Ideally I would like to have a function GetStatus() which can access the different column values of the table row which I want to compute the value of "Status" for, and then only define the computed column specification as GetStatus() without parameters. Is that possible at all? Or what is the best way to work with "complicated" computed column definitions? Thank you for tips in advance!

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  • What is a good way to assign order #s to ordered rows in a table in Sybase

    - by DVK
    I have a table T (structure below) which initially contains all-NULL values in an integer order column: col1 varchar(30), col2 varchar(30), order int NULL I also have a way to order the "colN" columns, e.g. SELECT * FROM T ORDER BY some_expression_involving_col1_and_col2 What's the best way to assign - IN SQL - numeric order values 1-N to the order table, so that the order values match the order of rows returned by the above ORDER BY? In other words, I would like a single query (Sybase SQL syntax so no Oracle's rowcount) which assigns order values so that SELECT * FROM T ORDER BY order returns 100% same order of rows as the query above. The query does NOT necessarily need to update the table T in place, I'm OK with creating a copy of the table T2 if that'll make the query simpler. NOTE1: A solution must be real query or a set of queries, not involving a loop or a cursor. NOTE2: Assume that the data is uniquely orderable according to the order by above - no need to worry about situation when 2 rows can be assigned the same order at random. NOTE3: I would prefer a generic solution, but if you wish a specific example of ordering expression, let's say: SELECT * FROM T ORDER BY CASE WHEN col1="" THEN "AAAAAA" ELSE col1 END, ISNULL(col2, "ZZZ")

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  • Putting BigDecimal data into HSQLDB test database using DbUnit

    - by Denise
    Hi everyone, I'm using Hibernate JPA in my backend. I am writing a unit test using JUnit and DBUnit to insert a set of data into an in-memory HSQL database. My dataset contains: <order_line order_line_id="1" quantity="2" discount_price="0.3"/> Which maps to an OrderLine Java object where the discount_price column is defined as: @Column(name = "discount_price", precision = 12, scale = 2) private BigDecimal discountPrice; However, when I run my test case and assert that the discount price returned equals 0.3, the assertion fails and says that the stored value is 0. If I change the discount_price in the dataset to be 0.9, it rounds up to 1. I've checked to make sure HSQLDB isn't doing the rounding and it definitely isn't because I can insert an order line object using Java code with a value like 5.3 and it works fine. To me, it seems like DBUtils is for some reason rounding the number I've defined. Is there a way I can force this to not happen? Can anyone explain why it might be doing this? Thanks!

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  • Django sitemap intermittent www

    - by Jen Z
    The automatic sitemap for my Django site fluctuates between including the www on urls and leaving it out (I'm aiming to have it in all the time). This has ramifications in google not indexing my pages properly so I'm trying to narrow down what would be causing this issue. I have set PREPEND_WWW = True and my site record in the sites framework is set to include the www e.g. it's set to www.example.com as opposed to example.com. I'm using memcached but pages should expire from the cache after 48 hours so I wouldn't have thought that would be causing the issue? You can see the problem in effect at http://www.livingspaceltd.co.uk/sitemap.xml (refresh the page a few times). My sitemaps setup is fairly prosaic so I'm doubtful that that is the issue, but in case it's something obvious I'm missing here's the code: ***urls.py*** sitemaps = { 'subpages': Subpages_Sitemap, 'standalone_pages': Standalone_Sitemap, 'categories': Categories_Sitemap, } urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^sitemap\.xml$', 'django.contrib.sitemaps.views.sitemap', {'sitemaps': sitemaps}), ... ***sitemaps.py*** # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django_ls.livingspace.models import Page, Category, Standalone_Page, Subpage from django.contrib.sitemaps import Sitemap class Subpages_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "monthly" priority = 0.4 def items(self): return Subpage.objects.filter(restricted_to__isnull=True) class Standalone_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 1 def items(self): return Standalone_Page.objects.all() class Categories_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 0.7 def items(self): return Category.objects.all()

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  • Applications result affected by another running application.

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • should the builder reset its build environment after delivering the product

    - by Sudhi
    I am implementing a builder where in the deliverable is retrieved by calling Builder::getProduct() . The director asks various parts to build Builder::buildPartA() , Builder::buildPartB() etc. in order to completely build the product. My question is, once the product is delivered by the Builder by calling Builder::getProduct(), should it reset its environment (Builder::partA = NULL;, Builder::partB = NULL;) so that it is ready to build another product? (with same or different configuration?) I ask this as I am using PHP wherein the objects are by default passed by reference (nope, I don't want to clone them, as one of their field is a Resource) . However, even if you think from a language agnostic point of view, should the Builder reset its build environment ? If your answer is 'it depends on the case' what use cases would justify reseting the environment (and other way round) ? For the sake of providing code sample here's my Builder::gerProcessor() which shows what I mean by reseting the environment /** * @see IBuilder::getProessor() */ public function getProcessor() { if($this->_processor == NULL) { throw new LogicException('Processor not yet built!'); } else { $retval = $this->_processor; $this->_product = NULL, $this->_processor = NULL; } return $retval; }

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  • inserting a form to session raises picklingerror - django

    - by shanyu
    I receive an exception when I add a form to the session: PicklingError: Can't pickle <class 'django.utils.functional.__proxy__'>: attribute lookup django.utils.functional.__proxy__ failed The form includes a few simple fields and has some javascript attached to a widget. It might be that Django forms cannot be pickled at all, but the exception seems to point to unicode lazy translation. To test further, I have also tried to insert only the form errors (an errordict) to the session and received the same error. I appreciate some help here, thanks in advance. EDIT: Here's why I insert a form into the session: I have an app that has a form. This form is rendered by a template tag in another app. When posted, if the form is valid, no problem, I do stuff and redirect to "next". However if it is not valid, I want to go back to the posting page to show errors. Recall that the comments app in this case redirects to an intermediate "hey, please fix the errors" page. I am trying to avoid this, and hence redirect back to the posting page with the form and its errors in the session that the template tag will render.

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • How do I locate a particular word in a text file using C#

    - by cmrhema
    Hi, I am sending mails (in asp.net ,c#), having a template in text file (.txt) like below User Name :<User Name> Address : <Address>. I used to replace the words within the angle brackets in the text file using the below code StreamReader sr; sr = File.OpenText(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); copy = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); //close the reader copy = copy.Replace(word.ToUpper(),"#" + word.ToUpper()); //remove the word specified UC //save new copy into existing text file FileInfo newText = new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); StreamWriter newCopy = newText.CreateText(); newCopy.WriteLine(copy); newCopy.Write(newCopy.NewLine); newCopy.Close(); Now I have a new problem, the user will be adding new words within an angle, say for eg, they will be adding <Salary>. In that case i have to read out and find the word <Salary>. In other words, I have to find all the words, that are located with the angle brackets (<). How do I do that. Kindly do let me know. Thanks.

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  • How do you make a static sprite be a child of another sprite in cocos2D while using SpaceManager

    - by JJBigThoughts
    I have two static (STATIC_MASS) SpaceManager sprites. One is a child of the other - by which I mean that one sort of builds up the other one, but although the child's images shows up in the right place, the child doesn't seem to exists in the chipmunk physics engine, like I would expect. In my case, I have a backboard (rectangular sprite) and a hoop (a circular sprite). Since I might want to move the backboard, I'd like to attach the hoop to backboard so that the hoop automatically moves right along with the backboard. Here, we see a rotating backboard with attached hoop. It looks OK on the screen, but other objects only bounce off the backboard but pass right through the hoop (in a bad sense of the term). What doesn't my child sprite seem to exist in the physics engine? // Add Backboard cpShape *shapeRect = [smgr addRectAt:cpvWinCenter mass:STATIC_MASS width:200 height:10 rotation:0.0f ];// We're upgrading this cpCCSprite * cccrsRect = [cpCCSprite spriteWithShape:shapeRect file:@"rect_200x10.png"]; [self addChild:cccrsRect]; // Spin the static backboard: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2691589/how-do-you-make-a-sprite-rotate-in-cocos2d-while-using-spacemanager // Make static object update moves in chipmunk // Since Backboard is static, and since we're going to move it, it needs to know about spacemanager so its position gets updated inside chipmunk. // Setting this would make the smgr recalculate all static shapes positions every step // cccrsRect.integrationDt = smgr.constantDt; // cccrsRect.spaceManager = smgr; // Alternative method: smgr.rehashStaticEveryStep = YES; smgr.rehashStaticEveryStep = YES; // Spin the backboard [cccrsRect runAction:[CCRepeatForever actionWithAction: [CCSequence actions: [CCRotateTo actionWithDuration:2 angle:180], [CCRotateTo actionWithDuration:2 angle:360], nil] ]]; // Add the hoop cpShape *shapeHoop = [smgr addCircleAt:ccp(100,-45) mass:STATIC_MASS radius: 50 ]; cpCCSprite * cccrsHoop = [cpCCSprite spriteWithShape:shapeHoop file:@"hoop_100x100.png"]; [cccrsRect addChild:cccrsHoop]; This is only half working for me. Note: SpaceManager is a toolkit for working with cocos2D-iphone

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  • Is there a language with native pass-by-reference/pass-by-name semantics, which could be used in mod

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! This is a reopened question. I look for a language and supporting platform for it, where the language could have pass-by-reference or pass-by-name semantics by default. I know the history a little, that there were Algol, Fortran and there still is C++ which could make it possible; but, basically, what I look for is something more modern and where the mentioned value pass methodology is preferred and by default (implicitly assumed). I ask this question, because, to my mind, some of the advantages of pass-by-ref/name seem kind of obvious. For example when it is used in a standalone agent, where copyiong of values is not necessary (to some extent) and performance wouldn't be downgraded much in that case. So, I could employ it in e.g. rich client app or some game-style or standalone service-kind application. The main advantage to me is the clear separation between identity of a symbol, and its current value. I mean when there is no reduntant copying, you know that you're working with the exact symbol/path you have queried/received. And intristing boxing of values will not interfere with the actual logic of program. I know that there is C# ref keyword, but it's something not so intristic, though acceptable. Equally, I realize that pass-by-reference semantics could be simulated in virtually any language (Java as an instant example) and so on.. not sure about pass by name :) What would you recommend - create a something like DSL for such needs wherever it be appropriate; or use some languages that I already know? Maybe, there is something that I'm missing? Thank you!

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  • Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

    - by damix911
    I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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  • BeginInvoke on ObservableCollection not immediate.

    - by Padu Merloti
    In my code I subscribe to an event that happens on a different thread. Every time this event happens, I receive an string that is posted to the observable collection: Dispatcher currentDispatcher = Dispatcher.CurrentDispatcher; var SerialLog = new ObservableCollection<string>(); private void hitStation_RawCommandSent(object sender, StringEventArgs e) { string command = e.Value.Replace("\r\n", ""); Action dispatchAction = () => SerialLog.Add(command); currentDispatcher.BeginInvoke(dispatchAction, DispatcherPriority.Render); } The code below is in my view model (could be in the code behind, it doesn't matter in this case). When I call "hitstation.PrepareHit", the event above gets called a couple times, then I wait and call "hitStation.HitBall", and the event above gets called a couple more times. private void HitBall() { try { try { Mouse.OverrideCursor = Cursors.Wait; //prepare hit hitStation.PrepareHit(hitSpeed); Thread.Wait(1000); PlayWarning(); //hit hitStation.HitBall(hitSpeed); } catch (TimeoutException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Timeout hitting ball: " + ex.Message); } } finally { Mouse.OverrideCursor = null; } } The problem I'm having is that the ListBox that is bound to my SerialLog gets updated only when the HitBall method finishes. I was expecting seeing a bunch of updates from the PrepareHit, a pause and then a bunch more updates from the HitBall. I've tried a couple of DispatcherPriority arguments, but they don't seem to have any effect.

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  • IE event callback object JavaScript

    - by Randy Hall
    I may be WAY off on my terminology, so please feel free to correct me. Perhaps this is why I cannot seem to find anything relevant. No libraries, please. I have an event handler, which invokes a callback function. Fancy, right? In IE<9 the this object in the handler is the window. I don't know why, or how to access the correct object. if (document.addEventListener){ element.addEventListener(event, callback, false); } else { element.attachEvent('on' +event, callback); } This part DOES WORK. This part doesn't: function callback(event){ console.log(this); } this in IE is returning [object Window], whereas it returns the element that called the callback function in every other browser. This is cut down significantly from my full script, but this should be everything that's relevant. EDIT This link provided by @metadings How to reference the caller object ("this") using attachEvent is very close. However, there are still two issues. 1) I need to get both the event object and the DOM element calling this function. 2) This event is handled delegation style: there may be child DOM elements firing the event, meaning event.target is not necessarily (and in my case, not typically) the element with the listener.

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  • ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

    - by zoopzoop
    I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

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  • Routing in Php and decorator pattern

    - by Joey Salac Hipolito
    I do not know if I am using the term 'routing' correctly, but here is the situation: I created an .htaccess file to 'process' (dunno if my term is right) the url of my application, like this : RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)$ index.php?url=$1 [QSA,L] Now I have this : http://appname/controller/method/parameter http://appname/$url[0]/$url[1]/$url[2] What I did is: setup a default controller, in case it is not specified in the url setup a Controller wrapper I did it like this $target = new $url[0]() $controller = new Controller($target) The problem with that one is that I can't use the methods in the object I passed in the constructor of the Controller: I resolved it like this : class Controller { protected $target; protected $view; public function __construct($target, $view) { $this->target = $target; $this->view = $view; } public function __call($method, $arguments) { if (method_exists($this->target, $method)) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->target, $method), $arguments); } } } This is working fine, the problem occurs in the index where I did the routing, here it is if(isset($url[2])){ if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]($url[2]) } } else { if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]() } } where $controller = new Controller($target) The problem is that the method doesn't exist, although I can use it directly without checking if method exist, how can I resolve this?

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  • Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

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  • Bespoke Development or Leverage SharePoint With Web Parts etc?

    - by Asim
    Hi all, We are currently in the process of drawing up a solution for an existing client, creating a number of eServices. The client currently have MOSS 2007. The proposed solution is to use MOSS as the launching pad for the eServices… The requirement involves drawing up several online forms which provide registration facilities as well as facilitating a workflow of some sort. I have been told that the proposed solution requires complex web forms. Most are complex forms with parent child details that have multiple windows. The proposed solution is to do some bespoke development, developing ASP .NET forms. These forms would be deployed under the _layouts folder of the current MOSS portal, inheriting the master page design on the current site. I have been told that this approach make development and deployment more simple, as well has having ‘complete integration’ with MOSS. My questions are: Is this the best way to leverage SharePoint – it seems like the proposed solution is not leveraging MOSS at all..! I thought perhaps utilizing Web Parts would be better, but I have been told that this is more complex and developing more smarter intuitive UI is more difficult. Is this really the case? If not, what should be the recommended approach? We will be utilizing Ultimus as the workflow engine. However, I have been recommended K2 Workflows. Anyone used both/have any opinions on either? Many thanks in advance! Kind Regards,

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  • How can I superimpose modified loess lines on a ggplot2 qplot?

    - by briandk
    Background Right now, I'm creating a multiple-predictor linear model and generating diagnostic plots to assess regression assumptions. (It's for a multiple regression analysis stats class that I'm loving at the moment :-) My textbook (Cohen, Cohen, West, and Aiken 2003) recommends plotting each predictor against the residuals to make sure that: The residuals don't systematically covary with the predictor The residuals are homoscedastic with respect to each predictor in the model On point (2), my textbook has this to say: Some statistical packages allow the analyst to plot lowess fit lines at the mean of the residuals (0-line), 1 standard deviation above the mean, and 1 standard deviation below the mean of the residuals....In the present case {their example}, the two lines {mean + 1sd and mean - 1sd} remain roughly parallel to the lowess {0} line, consistent with the interpretation that the variance of the residuals does not change as a function of X. (p. 131) How can I modify loess lines? I know how to generate a scatterplot with a "0-line,": # First, I'll make a simple linear model and get its diagnostic stats library(ggplot2) data(cars) mod <- fortify(lm(speed ~ dist, data = cars)) attach(mod) str(mod) # Now I want to make sure the residuals are homoscedastic qplot (x = dist, y = .resid, data = mod) + geom_smooth(se = FALSE) # "se = FALSE" Removes the standard error bands But does anyone know how I can use ggplot2 and qplot to generate plots where the 0-line, "mean + 1sd" AND "mean - 1sd" lines would be superimposed? Is that a weird/complex question to be asking?

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  • How do I join three tables with SQLalchemy and keeping all of the columns in one of the tables?

    - by jimka
    So, I have three tables: The class defenitions: engine = create_engine('sqlite://test.db', echo=False) SQLSession = sessionmaker(bind=engine) Base = declarative_base() class Channel(Base): __tablename__ = 'channel' id = Column(Integer, primary_key = True) title = Column(String) description = Column(String) link = Column(String) pubDate = Column(DateTime) class User(Base): __tablename__ = 'user' id = Column(Integer, primary_key = True) username = Column(String) password = Column(String) sessionId = Column(String) class Subscription(Base): __tablename__ = 'subscription' userId = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('user.id'), primary_key=True) channelId = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('channel.id'), primary_key=True) And the SQL commands that are executed to create them: CREATE TABLE subscription ( "userId" INTEGER NOT NULL, "channelId" INTEGER NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ("userId", "channelId"), FOREIGN KEY("userId") REFERENCES user (id), FOREIGN KEY("channelId") REFERENCES channel (id) ); CREATE TABLE user ( id INTEGER NOT NULL, username VARCHAR, password VARCHAR, "sessionId" VARCHAR, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); CREATE TABLE channel ( id INTEGER NOT NULL, title VARCHAR, description VARCHAR, link VARCHAR, "pubDate" TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); NOTE: I know user.username should be unique, need to fix that, and I'm not sure why SQLalchemy creates some row names with the double-quotes. And I'm trying to come up with a way to retrieve all of the channels, as well as an indication on what channels one particular user (identified by user.sessionId together with user.id) has a subscription on. For example, say we have four channels: channel1, channel2, channel3, channel4; a user: user1; who has a subscription on channel1 and channel4. The query for user1 would return something like: channel.id | channel.title | subscribed --------------------------------------- 1 channel1 True 2 channel2 False 3 channel3 False 4 channel4 True This is a best-case result, but since I have absolutely no clue as how to accomplish the subscribed column, I've been instead trying to get the particular users id in the rows where the user has a subscription and where a subscription is missing, just leave it blank. The database engine that I'm using together with SQLalchemy atm. is sqlite3 I've been scratching my head over this for two days now, I've no problem joining together all three by way of the subscription table but then all of the channels where the user does not have a subscription gets omitted. I hope I've managed to describe my problem sufficiently, thanks in advance.

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  • Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

    - by romkyns
    I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

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