Search Results

Search found 22569 results on 903 pages for 'win32 process'.

Page 783/903 | < Previous Page | 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790  | Next Page >

  • Can I commit changes to actual database while debugging C# in Visual Studio?

    - by nathant23
    I am creating a C# application using Visual Studio that uses an SQLExpress database. When I hit f5 to debug the application and make changes to the database I believe what is happening is there is a copy of the database in the bin/debug folder that changes are being made to. However, when I stop the debugging and then hit f5 the next time a new copy of the database is being put in the bin/debug folder so that all the changes made the last time are gone. My question is: Is there a way that when I am debugging the application I can have it make changes to the actual database and those changes are actually saved or will it only make changes to the copy in the bin/debug folder (if that is what is actually happening)? I've seen similar questions, but I couldn't find an answer that said if it's possible to make those changes persistent in the actual .mdf file. The reason I ask is because as I build this application I am continuously adding pieces and testing to make sure they all work together. When I put in test data I am using actual data that I would like to stay in the database. This would just help me not have to reenter the data later. Thanks in advance for any help or information that could help me better understand the process.

    Read the article

  • Using pointers to adjust global objects in objective-c

    - by Rob
    Ok, so I am working with two sets of data that are extremely similar, and at the same time, these data sets are both global NSMutableArrays within the object. data_set_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; data_set_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Two new NSMutableArrays are loaded, which need to be added to the old, existing data. These Arrays are also global. xml_dataset_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; xml_dataset_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; To reduce code duplication (and because these data sets are so similar) I wrote a void method within the class to handle the data combination process for both Arrays: -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str Now, I have a decent understanding of object oriented programming, so I was thinking that if I were to invoke the method with the global Arrays in the data like so... [self constructData:data_set_one fromDownloadArray:xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:@"id"]; Then the global NSMutableArrays (data_set_one) would reflect the changes that happen to "array" within the method. Sadly, this is not the case, data_set_one doesn't reflect the changes (ex: new objects within the Array) outside of the method. Here is a code snippet of the problem // data_set_one is empty // xml_dataset_one has a few objects [constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data_set_one fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:(NSString *)@"id"]; // data_set_one should now be xml_dataset_one, but when echoed to screen, it appears to remain empty And here is the gist of the code for the method, any help is appreciated. -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str { if ([data count] == 0) { data = down; // set data equal to downloaded data } else if ([down count] == 0) { // download yields no results, do nothing } else { // combine the two arrays here } } This project is not ARC enabled. Thanks for the help guys! Rob

    Read the article

  • Design question for windows application, best approach?

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I am in the process of designing an application that will allow you to find pictures (screen shots) made from certain programs. I will provide the locations of a few of the program in the application itself to get the user started. I was wondering how I should go about adding new locations as the time goes on, my first thought was simply hard coding it into the application but this will mean the user has to reinstall it to make the changes take affect. My second idea was to use an XML file to contain all the locations as well as other data, such as the name of the application. This also means the user can add their own locations if they wish as well as sharing them over the internet. The second option seemed the best approach but then I had to think how would it be managed on the users computer. Ideally I'd like just a single .exe without the reliance on any external files such as the XML but this would bring me back to point one. Would it be best to simply use the ClickOnce deployment to create an entry in the start menu and create a folder containing the .exe and the file names? Thanks for the feedback, I don't want to start implementing the application until the design is nailed.

    Read the article

  • How to inherit the current path when invoking Maven's exec-maven-plugin?

    - by wishihadabettername
    I have an <exec-maven-plugin> which calls an external command (in this case, svnversion). The command is in the path for the current user. However, when a separate shell is spawned by the plugin, the path is not initialized. I don't want to hardcode or define a variable for each external command (there would be too much to maintain, especially that there are both Windows and *nix users). My pom.xml contains the following: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1</version> <executions> <execution> <id>svnversion-exec</id> <phase>process-resources</phase> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svnversion</executable> <arguments> <argument><![CDATA[ >version.txt ]]></argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> Currently I get the following output: [INFO] [exec:exec {execution: svnversion-exec}] 'svnversion' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. [ERROR] BUILD ERROR: Result of cmd.exe /X /C "svnversion >version.txt" execution is: '1'. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • strange memory error when deleting object from Core Data

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements from the xml file. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSMutableArray* mutableFetchResults = [CoreDataHelper getObjectsFromContext:@"Condition" :@"road" :NO :managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the preceeding as it did the first time. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects again. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. See this image for the debugger window as it appears when walking through the deletion FOR loop on the second iteration. Conditions is the fetched array of 7 objects with the objects below. Condition should be an individual condition. link text As you can see 'condition' does not match any of the objects in the 'conditions' array. I'm sure this is why I'm getting the memory access errors. Just not sure why this fetch (or the FOR) is returning a wrong reference. All the code that successfully performes this function on the first iteration is used in the second but with very different results. Thanks in advance for the help!

    Read the article

  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

    Read the article

  • Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

    - by Evgeny
    I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

    Read the article

  • How to implement message queuing and handling in AWS with NServiceBus

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am creating a new ASP MVC order application in the Amazon (AWS) cloud with the persistence layer at my local datacenter. I will be using the CQRS pattern. The goal of the project is high availability using Queue(s) to store and forward writes (commands/events) that can be picked up and handled asynchronously at my local datacenter. Then, ff the WAN or my local datacenter fails, my cloud MVC app can still take orders and just queue them up until processing can resume. My first thought was to use AWS SQS for the queuing and create my own queue consumer/dispatcher/handler in my own c# application to process the incoming messages/events. MVC (@ Amazon) -- Event/POCO -- SQS -- QueueReader (@ my datacenter) -- DB Then I found NServiceBus. NSB seems to handle lots of details very nicely: message handling, retries, error handling, etc. I hate to reinvent the wheel, and NServiceBus seems like a full featured and mature product that would be perfect for me. But on further research, it does NOT look like NServiceBus is really meant to be used over the WAN in physically separated environments (Cloud to my Datacenter). Google and SO don't really paint a good picture of using NServiceBus across the WAN like I need. How can I use NServiceBus across the WAN? Or is there a better solution to handle queuing and message handling between Amazon an my local datacenter?

    Read the article

  • What is the best practice for including third party jar files in a Java program?

    - by ZoFreX
    I have a program that needs several third-party libraries, and at the moment it is packaged like so: zerobot.jar (my file) libs/pircbot.jar libs/mysql-connector-java-5.1.10-bin.jar libs/c3p0-0.9.1.2.jar As far as I know the "best" way to handle third-party libs is to put them on the classpath in the manifest of my jar file, which will work cross-platform, won't slow down launch (which bundling them might) and doesn't run into legal issues (which repackaging might). The problem is for users who supply the third party libraries themselves (example use case, upgrading them to fix a bug). Two of the libraries have the version number in the file, which adds hassle. My current solution is that my program has a bootstrapping process which makes a new classloader and instantiates the program proper using it. This custom classloader adds all .jar files in lib/ to its classpath. My current way works fine, but I now have two custom classloaders in my application and a recent change to the code has caused issues that are difficult to debug, so if there is a better way I'd like to remove this complexity. It also seems like over-engineering for what I'm sure is a very common situation. So my question is, how should I be doing this?

    Read the article

  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

    Read the article

  • PHP Preg_replace after a specific amount of characters with a conditional

    - by Marc Ripley
    I've been working on this for a bit, but my regex is weak. I need to check to see if a number is a whole number (single digit) and append a ".001" to it if so. The problem is, it's in the middle of a line with values separated by commas. MATERIALS,1,1,9999;1 4PL1 PB_Mel,,1,6,0.173,0.173,0.375,0,0.375,0,0,0,0,2,0,1,1 Needs to be MATERIALS,1,1,9999;1 4PL1 PB_Mel,,1.001,6,0.173,0.173,0.375,0,0.375,0,0,0,0,2,0,1,1 The line must start with "MATERIALS". There are more than one MATERIALS lines. The value will always be after 5 commas. I was trying something like this to even replace the number, but I don't think the approach is quite right: $stripped = preg_replace('/(MATERIALS)(,.*?){4}(,\d+?),/', '\2,', $stripped); I tried going through a preg_match_all for if process, to at least get the conditional working, but I still have to replace the lines. for($i=0;$i<sizeof($materialsLines[0]);$i++) { $section = explode(",",$materialsLines[0][$i]); if (strlen($section[5]) == 1) { $section[5] .= ".001"; } $materialsLines[0][$i] = implode(",",$section); }

    Read the article

  • Why is calling close() after fopen() not closing?

    - by Richard Morgan
    I ran across the following code in one of our in-house dlls and I am trying to understand the behavior it was showing: long GetFD(long* fd, const char* fileName, const char* mode) { string fileMode; if (strlen(mode) == 0 || tolower(mode[0]) == 'w' || tolower(mode[0]) == 'o') fileMode = string("w"); else if (tolower(mode[0]) == 'a') fileMode = string("a"); else if (tolower(mode[0]) == 'r') fileMode = string("r"); else return -1; FILE* ofp; ofp = fopen(fileName, fileMode.c_str()); if (! ofp) return -1; *fd = (long)_fileno(ofp); if (*fd < 0) return -1; return 0; } long CloseFD(long fd) { close((int)fd); return 0; } After repeated calling of GetFD with the appropriate CloseFD, the whole dll would no longer be able to do any file IO. I wrote a tester program and found that I could GetFD 509 times, but the 510th time would error. Using Process Explorer, the number of Handles did not increase. So it seems that the dll is reaching the limit for the number of open files; setting _setmaxstdio(2048) does increase the amount of times we can call GetFD. Obviously, the close() is working quite right. After a bit of searching, I replaced the fopen() call with: long GetFD(long* fd, const char* fileName, const char* mode) { *fd = (long)open(fileName, 2); if (*fd < 0) return -1; return 0; } Now, repeatedly calling GetFD/CloseFD works. What is going on here?

    Read the article

  • Servlet doPost() Method setup?

    - by Mark R
    I am interested in creating a web app that uses JSP, Servlets and XML. At the moment I have the following: JSP - Form input. Servlet - Retrieving Form data and sending that data to a java object. Java object (1) - Converts data into XML file....instantiates java object (2). Java object (2) - Sends that file to a database. On the returning side the database will send back another XML file that I will then process using XSLT to display back to the user. Can I place that XSLT code in the orignial Servlets doPost() method? So my doPost()` method would: Retrieve user inputted data from the form on my JSP page. Instantiate a java object to convert that data to XML, in-turn that object will instantiates another object to send the XML file to a database. Converts the resulting XML file sent from the database and displays it for the user. Can one servlet doPost() method handle all of this? If not, how would I set up my application and classes to handle this work flow? Thank you in advance

    Read the article

  • Treating differential operator as algebraic entity

    - by chappar
    I know that this question is offtopic and don't belong here. But i didn't know somewhere else to ask. So here is the question. I was reading e:the story of a number by Eli Maor, where he treats differential operator as just like any algebraic entity. For example if we have a differential equation like y’’ + 5y’ - 6y = 0. This can be treaed as (D^2 + 5D – 6)y = 0. So, either y = 0 (trivial solution) or (D^2 + 5D – 6) = 0. Factoring out above equation we get (D-1)(D+6)= 0 with solutions as D = 1 and D = -6. Since D does not have any meaning on its own, multiplying by y on both the sides we get Dy = y and Dy = -6y for which the solutions are Ae^x and Be^-6x. Combining these 2 solutions we get Ae^x + Be^-6x. Now my doubt is this approach break when we have an equation like D^2y = 0. Which means y = 0 (again trivial) or D^2 = 0 which means D = 0. Now Dy = y*0 = 0. That means y = C ( a constant). The actual answer should be Cx. I know that it is stupidity to treat D^2 = 0 as D = 0, it led me to doubt the entire process of treating differential equation as algebraic equation. Can someone throw light on this? Or any other site where i might get answer?

    Read the article

  • MySQL Paritioning performance

    - by Imran Pathan
    Measured performance on key partitioned tables and normal tables separately. But we couldn't find any performance improvement with partitioning. Queries are pruned. Using MySQL 5.1.47 on RHEL 4. Table details: UserUsage - Will have entries for user mobile number and data usage for each date. Mobile number and Date as PRI KEY. UserProfile - Queries prev table and stores summary for each mobile number. Mobile number PRI KEY. CREATE TABLE `UserUsage` ( `Msisdn` decimal(20,0) NOT NULL, `Date` date NOT NULL, . . PRIMARY KEY USING BTREE (`Msisdn`,`Date`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 PARTITION BY KEY(Msisdn) PARTITIONS 50; CREATE TABLE `UserProfile` ( `Msisdn` decimal(20,0) NOT NULL, . . PRIMARY KEY (`Msisdn`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 PARTITION BY KEY(Msisdn) PARTITIONS 50; Second table is updated by query select and order by date in first table in a perl program, query is select * from UserUsage where Msisdn=number order by Date desc limit 7 [Process data in perl] update UserProfile values(....) where Msisdn=number explain partition for select, shows row being scanned in a particular partition only. Is something wrong with partition design or queries as partitioning is taking almost same or more time compared to normal tables?

    Read the article

  • Integrate OpenId into an existing site

    - by Andrea
    I have a working web application which already has a login and registration system. I'm looking for some advice on how to do it. Until now, users have a username, an email, a password and some optional fields. The registrartion is the usual process with email confirmation. Now I'd like to allow users to use OpenId. So I have added an openid field to the table. There are two different login forms, and users which are already registered can add their openid info and use either login form. The problem is with new users who come on the site for the first time and try to login with OpenId. I create a new user for them, and I don't need a password, but still I need at least a username, which is used on the site (I'm not sure if the email is needed). So my problems are: 1) How do I manage validation? Some fields are required for some users, (e.g. a password) but not for some others. I mean, I can do this, but it immediately gets messy. 2) Should I ask for a username and email on the first OpenId login? On the one hand I'd say yes, but I fear this vanishes the advantages of using OpenId, that is, not having to provide details. 3) I could get the details via SReg or AttributeExchange, but most providers have a bad support for those. For instance my Gmail OpenId account does not tell the email (!). Is there some place to learn more about the current support for these extensions?

    Read the article

  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

    Read the article

  • where does a novice begin with error logging in asp.net c# ?

    - by korben
    i'm a novice teaching myself asp.net in c# via trial and error learn by doing, unfortunately this means lots of errors! i have a custom errors page now that is basically a 404 so that site visitors don't get that ugly application error message .NET throws, but i WOULD like to be able to see what's going wrong myself as people use the site. so i'm looking to build or learn from a fairly basic error logging c# class, that will send the same information given in a browser when hitting a .NET error, send this into a TXT file and email me the error at the same time would be great i don't know where to even begin, can someone give me some pointers? an open source class that does this already that i could plugin and play with would work as well. otherwise some links or guidance on where to start reading would be great too. i sort of have a mental block on understand msdn info-dump pages though, i'm hoping to find some articles on real people talking about implementing the same thing themselves or something like that please note i'm not looking to use some extensive or complicated third party service for this, i'm hoping to learn from the process of implementing a concise customized one

    Read the article

  • How to use data receive event in Socket class?

    - by affan
    I have wrote a simple client that use TcpClient in dotnet to communicate. In order to wait for data messages from server i use a Read() thread that use blocking Read() call on socket. When i receive something i have to generate various events. These event occur in the worker thread and thus you cannot update a UI from it directly. Invoke() can be use but for end developer its difficult as my SDK would be use by users who may not use UI at all or use Presentation Framework. Presentation framework have different way of handling this. Invoke() on our test app as Microstation Addin take a lot of time at the moment. Microstation is single threaded application and call invoke on its thread is not good as it is always busy doing drawing and other stuff message take too long to process. I want my events to generate in same thread as UI so user donot have to go through the Dispatcher or Invoke. Now i want to know how can i be notified by socket when data arrive? Is there a build in callback for that. I like winsock style receive event without use of separate read thread. I also do not want to use window timer to for polling for data. I found IOControlCode.AsyncIO flag in IOControl() function which help says Enable notification for when data is waiting to be received. This value is equal to the Winsock 2 FIOASYNC constant. I could not found any example on how to use it to get notification. If i am write in MFC/Winsock we have to create a window of size(0,0) which was just used for listening for the data receive event or other socket events. But i don't know how to do that in dotnet application.

    Read the article

  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

    Read the article

  • Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

    - by Sébastien Nussbaumer
    I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

    Read the article

  • How to access child div elements under a given condition with javascript?

    - by hlovdal
    My main question is to calculate the last alert message, but any other information is also welcome. I am trying to learn javascript (to use with greasemonkey later), but I am struggling a bit to grasp the DOM and how to process it. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function my_test() { var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("div"); // prints "found [object HTMLCollection] with length 8" alert("found " + elements + " with length " + elements.length); // prints "0:[object HTMLDivElement]" alert("0:" + elements[0]); // how to calculate the following? alert("for intereting one is AAAA and three is CCCC"); } </script> </head> <body> <div class="interesing"> <div class="one">AAAA</div> <div class="two">BBBB</div> <div class="three">CCCC</div> </div> <div class="boring"> <div class="one">1111</div> <div class="two">2222</div> <div class="three">3333</div> </div> <input type="button" onclick="my_test()" value="my test" </body> </html> So elements is now an array of elements and I can access each of them individually. But where can I find what methods/properties these elements have?

    Read the article

  • Modify SQL result set before returning from stored procedure

    - by m0sa
    I have a simple table in my SQL Server 2008 DB: Tasks_Table -id -task_complete -task_active -column_1 -.. -column_N The table stores instructions for uncompleted tasks that have to be executed by a service. I want to be able to scale my system in future. Until now only 1 service on 1 computer read from the table. I have a stored procedure, that selects all uncompleted and inactive tasks. As the service begins to process tasks it updates the task_active flag in all the returned rows. To enable scaleing of the system I want to enable deployment of the service on more machines. Because I want to prevent a task being returned to more than 1 service I have to update the stored procedure that returns uncompleted and inactive tasks. I figured that i have to lock the table (only 1 reader at a time - I know I have to use an apropriate ISOLATION LEVEL), and updates the task_active flag in each row of the result set before returning the result set. So my question is how to modify the SELECT result set iin the stored procedure before returning it?

    Read the article

  • NetBeans Platform - how to refresh the property sheet view of a node?

    - by I82Much
    Hi all, I am using the PropertySheetView component to visualize and edit the properties of a node. This view should always reflect the most recent properties of the object; if there is a change to the object in another process, I want to somehow refresh the view and see the updated properties. The best way I was able to do this is something like the following (making use of EventBus library to publish and subscribe to changes in objects): public DomainObjectWrapperNode(DomainObject obj) { super (Children.LEAF, Lookups.singleton(obj)); EventBus.subscribe(DomainObject.class, this); } public void onEvent(DomainObject event) { // Do a check to determine if the updated object is the one wrapped by this node; // if so fire a property sets change firePropertySetsChange(null, this.getPropertySets()); } This works, but my place in the scrollpane is lost when the sheet refreshes; it resets the view to the top of the list and I have to scroll back down to where I was before the refresh action. So my question is, is there a better way to refresh the property sheet view of a node, specifically so my place in the property list is not lost upon refresh?

    Read the article

  • Updating an application OTA

    - by Bostjan
    I'm developing an application that will be available from a website (market probably as well). The problem I'm having at the moment is how to handle the updates to the app. I know how to check the version against the current one and I know if I need to update it. Question is...how? Is there a way I can download an APK from the website and start the install process? The user will have to confirm of course, but I just want to be able to start it for him. At the moment I'm doing this: private void doUpgrade() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setTitle(getString(R.string.upgrade)); builder.setIcon(R.drawable.help); builder.setMessage(getString(R.string.needUpgrade)); builder.setPositiveButton(getString(R.string.ok), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); try { HttpResponse re = Registration.doPost("http://www.android-town.com/appRelease/AndroidTown.apk",data); int statusCode = re.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); closeApp(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } } }); builder.setNegativeButton(getString(R.string.cancel), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub dialog.cancel(); closeApp(); } }); builder.show(); } But it doesn't really do anything...should I open a webView with the URL? A new runnable thread? Any other way? Please help :) Cheers

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790  | Next Page >