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  • SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

    - by Adam
    Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

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  • Git as mercurial client? Why no git-hg?

    - by aapeli
    This is a question that's been bothering me for a while. I've done my homework and checked stackoverflow and found at least these two topics about my question: Git for Mercurial like git-svn and Git interoperability with a Mercurial repository I've done some serious googling to solve this issue, but so far with no luck. I've also read the Git Internals book, and the Mercurial Definitive Behind the Scenes to try to figure this out. I'm still a bit puzzled why I haven't been able to find any suitable git-hg type of a tool. From my perspective hg-svn is one of the main features, why I've chosen to use git over mercurial also at work. It allows me to use a workflow I like, and nobody else needs to bother, if they don't care. I just don't see the point in using the intermediate hg repo to convert back and forth, as suggested in one of the chains. So anyway, from what I've read hg and git seem very similar in conceptual design. There are differences under the hood, but none of those should prevent creating a git client for hg. As it seems to me, remote tracking branches and octopus merges make git even more powerful than hg is. So, the real question, is there any real reason why git-hg does not exist (or at least is very hard to find)? Is there some animosity from git users (and developers) towards their hg counterparts that has caused the lack of the git-hg tool? Do any of you have any plans to develop something like this, and go public with it? I could volunteer (although with very feeble C-skills) to participate to get this done. I just don't possess the full knowledge to start this up myself. Could this be the tool to end all DVCS wars for good?

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  • Memory leak, again!

    - by Dave
    A couple of weeks ago I was having trouble with memory leaks associated with a ContextMenuStrip. That problem was fixed. See that question here Now I'm having similar issues with ToolStrip controls. As in the previous problem, I'm creating a large number of UserControls and adding them to a FlowLayoutPanel. Each control creates a ToolStrip for itself in its constructor. When a control is removed from the FlowLayoutPanel (the only reference to the control), it seems memory for the ToolStrip is not being released. However when I comment out the code that creates the ToolStrip the memory leak doesn't happen. Is this the same sort of issue as the previous one - I need to set the ToolStrip to null? I don't see how that could be since this time the control is creating the strip itself, and all the button events etc are handled inside it. So shouldn't everything be GC'd when the control is no longer referenced? EDIT: As to the comments, the thing I don't understand is originally I was "making" my own toolstrip out of a panel and some labels. The labels were used as buttons. No memory leaks occurred this way. The only thing I've changed is using a proper ToolStrip with proper buttons in place of the panel, but all the event handlers are wired the same way. So why is it now leaking memory?

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  • SparkDataContainer Scroller not scrolling to bottom of container

    - by AZSL
    I am using a scroller component within a custom skin for a SkinnableDataContainer. I am running into an issue in that the thumbbar of the scroller stops at about the 50% point, however this is actually the end of the scrollable area. In actuality, the thumbbar should be at the bottom of the scroll track. Here's the code for the scroller: <s:SparkSkin xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" bottom="150" > <!-- Properties of the parent ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ --> <s:states> <s:State name="normal" /> <s:State name="disabled" /> </s:states> <!-- Metadata ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ --> <fx:Metadata> [HostComponent("spark.components.SkinnableDataContainer")] </fx:Metadata> <!-- UI components ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ --> <s:Rect left="0" right="0" bottom="0" top="0" radiusX="4" radiusY="4" > <s:fill> <s:SolidColor id="fillColor" color="0xEFEFEF"/> </s:fill> </s:Rect> <s:Group width="905" height="395" id="mainGroup"> <s:Scroller left="10" right="10" top="4" bottom="10" > <s:DataGroup id="dataGroup" /> </s:Scroller> <s:Rect left="0" right="0" top="0" bottom="0"> <s:stroke> <s:SolidColorStroke weight="1" color="0xD8D8D8"/> </s:stroke> </s:Rect> </s:Group>

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  • Zend_Form using subforms getValues() problem

    - by wiseguydigital
    Hi all, I am building a form in Zend Framework 1.9 using subforms as well as Zend_JQuery being enabled on those forms. The form itself is fine and all the error checking etc is working as normal. But the issue I am having is that when I'm trying to retrieve the values in my controller, I'm receiving just the form entry for the last subform e.g. My master form class (abbreviated for speed): Master_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { ZendX_JQuery::enableForm($this); $this->setAction('actioninhere') ... ->setAttrib('id', 'mainForm') $sub_one = new Form_One(); $sub_one->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_one, 'form-one'); $sub_two = new Form_Two(); $sub_two->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_two, 'form-two'); } } So that all works as it should in the display and when I submit without filling in the required values, the correct errors are returned. However, in my controller I have this: class My_Controller extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function createAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); $form = new Master_Form(); if ($request->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($request->getPost()) { // This is where I am having the problems print_r($form->getValues()); } } } } When I submit this and it gets past isValid(), the $form-getValues() is only returning the elements from the second subform, not the entire form.

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  • Javascript force GC collection? / Forcefully free object?

    - by plash
    I have a js function for playing any given sound using the Audio interface (creating a new instance for every call). This works quite well, until about the 32nd call (sometimes less). This issue is directly related to the release of the Audio instance. I know this because I've allowed time for the GC in Chromium to run and it will allow me to play another 32 or so sounds again. Here's an example of what I'm doing: <html><head> <script language="javascript"> function playSound(url) { snd = new Audio(url); snd.play(); delete snd; snd = null; } </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" onclick="playSound('blah.mp3');">Play sound</a> </body></html> I also have this, which works well for pages that have less than 32 playSound calls: var AudioPlayer = { cache: {}, play: function(url) { if (!AudioPlayer.cache[url]) AudioPlayer.cache[url] = new Audio(url); AudioPlayer.cache[url].play(); } }; But this will not work for what I want to do (dynamically replace a div with other content (from separate files), which have even more sounds on them - 1. memory usage would easily skyrocket, 2. many sounds will never play). I need a way to release the sound immediately. Is it possible to do this? I have found no free/close/unload method for the Audio interface. The pages will be viewed locally, so the constant loading of sounds is not a big factor at all (and most sounds are rather short).

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  • In IIS6, how to provide authenticated access to static files on remote server

    - by frankadelic
    We have a library of ZIP files that we would like to make available for download at an ASP.NET site. The files are sitting on a NAS device that is accessible from out web farm. Here is our initial strategy: Map an IIS virtual directory to the shared drive at path /zipfiles Users can download the zip files when given the URL However, if users share links to the files, anyone can download them. We would instead like to make use of the ASP.NET forms authentication in our site to validate users' requests before initiating the file transfer. A few problems: A request for a zip file is handled by IIS, not ASP.NET. So it is not subject to forms authentication. In addition, we don't want ASP.NET to handle the request, because it uses up an ASP.NET thread and is not scalable for download of large files. So, configuring the asp.net dll to handle *.zip requests is not an option. Any ideas on this? One idea we've tossed around is this: Initial request for download will be for an ashx handler. This handler will, after authentication, generate a download token which is saved to a database. Then, the user is redirected to the file with token appended in QueryString (e.g. /files/xyz.zip?token=123456789). An ISAPI plugin will be used to check the token. Also, the token will expire after x amount of time. Any thoughts on this? I have not implemented an ISAPI plugin so I'm not sure if this will even work. I would like to avoid custom coding since security is an issue and I'd prefer to use a time-tested solution.

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  • use proxy in python to fetch a webpage

    - by carmao
    I am trying to write a function in Python to use a public anonymous proxy and fetch a webpage, but I got a rather strange error. The code (I have Python 2.4): import urllib2 def get_source_html_proxy(url, pip, timeout): # timeout in seconds (maximum number of seconds willing for the code to wait in # case there is a proxy that is not working, then it gives up) proxy_handler = urllib2.ProxyHandler({'http': pip}) opener = urllib2.build_opener(proxy_handler) opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] urllib2.install_opener(opener) req=urllib2.Request(url) sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) timp=0 # a counter that is going to measure the time until the result (webpage) is # returned while 1: data = sock.read(1024) timp=timp+1 if len(data) < 1024: break timpLimita=50000000 * timeout if timp==timpLimita: # 5 millions is about 1 second break if timp==timpLimita: print IPul + ": Connection is working, but the webpage is fetched in more than 50 seconds. This proxy returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) else: print "This proxy " + IPul + "= good proxy. " + "It returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) # Now, I call the function to test it for one single proxy (IP:port) that does not support user and password (a public high anonymity proxy) #(I put a proxy that I know is working - slow, but is working) rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) print rez The error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 43, in ? rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 18, in get_source_html_proxy sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 130, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 358, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 376, in _open '_open', req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 337, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 573, in lambda r, proxy=url, type=type, meth=self.proxy_open: \ File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 580, in proxy_open if '@' in host: TypeError: iterable argument required I do not know why the character "@" is an issue (I have no such in my code. Should I have?) Thanks in advance for your valuable help.

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  • NSOperation for animation loop causes strange scrolling behaviour

    - by Tricky
    Hi, I've created an animation loop which I run as an operation in order to keep the rest of my interface responsive. Whilst almost there, there is still one remaining issue. My UIScrollViews don't seem to be reliably picking up when a user touch ends. What this means is, for example, if a user drags down on a scroll view, when they lift their fingers the scrollview doesn't bounce back into place and the scrollbar remains visible. As if the finger hasn't left the screen. It takes another tap on the scrollview for it to snap to its correct position and the scrollbar to fade away... Here's the loop I created in a subclassed NSOperation: (void)main { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; _displayLink = [[CADisplayLink displayLinkWithTarget: self selector: @selector(animationLoop:)] retain]; [_displayLink setFrameInterval: 1.0f]; [_displayLink addToRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode: NSRunLoopCommonModes]; while (![self isCancelled]) { NSAutoreleasePool *loopPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; [runLoop runMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode beforeDate:[NSDate distantFuture]]; [loopPool drain]; } [_displayLink invalidate]; [pool release]; } DOes anyone have any idea what might be going on here, and even better how to fix it... Thanks!

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  • Mixing RewriteRule and ProxyPass in Apache

    - by Taylor L
    I was working on debugging an issue today related to mixing mod_proxy and mod_rewrite together and I ended up having to use balancer://mycluster in the RewriteRule in order to stop receiving a 404 error from Apache. I have two questions: 1) Is there any other way to get the rewritten URL to go through the balancer without adding balancer://mycluster into the RewriteRule? 2) Is there a way to define all the parameters I defined in ProxyPass (stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off) in either the <Proxy> or RewriteRule? I'm concerned the requests that match the new RewriteRule won't load balance in the same fashion as those that go through ProxyPass (like /app1/something.do)? Below are the relevant sections of the httpd.conf. I am using Apache 2.2. <Proxy balancer://mycluster> Order deny,allow Allow from all BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node1 BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node2 </Proxy> ProxyPass /app1 balancer://mycluster/app1 stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off ProxyPassReverse /app1 ajp://my.domain.com:8009/app1 ... RewriteRule ^/static/cms/image/(.*)\.(.*) balancer://mycluster/app1/$1.$2 [P,L]

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  • Sql Exception: Error converting data type numeric to numeric

    - by Lucifer
    Hello We have a very strange issue with a database that has been moved from staging to production. The first time the database was moved it was by detaching, copying and reattaching, the second time we tried restoring from a backup of the staging. Both SQL Servers are the same version of MS SQL 2008, running on 64 bit hardware. The code accessing the database is the same build, built using the .net 2.0 framework. Here is the error message and some of the stack trace: Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Error converting data type numeric to numeric. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): Error converting data type numeric to numeric.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +1953274 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4849707 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +2392 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) +204 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) +954 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) +162 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.InternalExecuteNonQuery(DbAsyncResult result, String methodName, Boolean sendToPipe) +175 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() +137 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4200; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4016

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  • SSIS - How do I use a resultset as input in a SQL task and get data types right?

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to merge records from an Oracle database table to my local SQL table. I have a variable for the package that is an Object, called OWell. I have a data flow task that gets the Oracle data as a SQL statment (select well_id, well_name from OWell order by Well_ID), and then a conversion task to convert well_id from a DT_STR of length 15 to a DT_WSTR; and convert well_name from a DT_STR of length 15 to DT_WSTR of length 50. That is then stored in the recordset OWell. The reason for the conversions is the table that I want to add records to has an identity field: SSIS shows well_id as a DT_WSTR of length 15, well_name a DT_WSTR of length 50. I then have a SQL task that connects to the local database and attempts to add records that are not there yet. I've tried various things: using the OWell as a result set and referring to it in my SQL statement. Currently, I have the ResultSet set to None, and the following SQL statment: Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL_ID, OWELL_NAME from OWell where OWELL_ID not in (select WELL.WELL_ID from WELL) For Parameter Mapping, I have Paramater 0, called OWell_ID, from my variable User::OWell. Parameter 1, called OWell_Name is from the same variable. Both are set to VARCHAR, although I've also tried NVARCHAR. I do not have a Result set. I am getting the following error: Error: 0xC002F210 at Insert records to FLEDG, Execute SQL Task: Executing the query "Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL..." failed with the following error: "An error occurred while extracting the result into a variable of type (DBTYPE_STR)". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. I don't think it's a data type issue, but rather that I somehow am not using the resultset properly. How, exactly, am I supposed to refer to that recordset in my SQL task, so that I can use the two recordset fields and add records that are missing?

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  • Is a "factory" method the right pattern?

    - by jdt141
    Hey all - So I'm working to improve an existing implementation. I have a number of polymorphic classes that are all composed into a higher level container class. The problem I'm dealing with at the moment is that the higher level container class, well, sucks. It looks something like this, which I really don't have a problem with (as the polymorphic classes in the container should be public). My real issue is the constructor... /* * class1 and class 2 derive from the same superclass */ class Container { public: boost::shared_ptr<ComposedClass1> class1; boost::shared_ptr<ComposedClass2> class2; private: ... } /* * Constructor - builds the objects that we need in this container. */ Container::Container(some params) { class1.reset(new ComposedClass1(...)); class2.reset(new ComposedClass2(...)); } What I really need is to make this container class more re-usable. By hard-coding up the member objects and instantiating them, it basically isn't and can only be used once. A factory is one way to build what I need (potentially by supplying a list of objects and their specific types to be created?) Other ways to get around this problem? Seems like someone should have solved it before... Thanks!

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  • how to prevent divs from overlapping when using no-wrap across table cells

    - by pedalpete
    I'm trying to create an events calendar which has a somewhat 'gantt' chart like bar representing the times of an event, along with the time listed. I've uploaded a page showing the problem As you can see, the problem is that in the 3rd cell, the event div is being overlapped by the previous event div which goes outside the boundary of the cell. The event from the 2nd cell SHOULD expand beyond the cell border, but what I'm trying to get to happen is that WHEN the event from the 2nd cell expands into the 3rd cell, the event on the 3rd cell starts a new line. I believe the problem exists because of the nowrap on the time, but I want the time and in some cases the bar to cross the cell boundary when the time goes from one day to another. All that works now, but I'm having a problem with events overlapping when an event goes from one day to another. I've tried all sorts of :even cells having a different padding, etc. but all these solutions seem to bring up more problems. Is there a way get the no-wrap to force a new long when it crosses into the next cell? or any other solution to this issue?

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  • Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

    - by ahsteele
    I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish Error

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

    - by smayers81
    This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

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  • tips for fixing bad coding/dev habits ?

    - by dfafa
    i want to become a better coder....so i have decided to sign up for computing science program...maybe a formal education can assist me. i started working on smaller projects to learn but currently i have really bad coding/dev habits which is hindering my productivity as the codebase increases.... i have highlighted them and perhaps someone could make suggestions (or redirect to resources) or a more efficient method. most stuff that i made in the past were web apps. i usually develop with putty + nano...i just love the minimalist feel i use winscp and develop directly on my private web server...too lazy to do it on localhost and upload it later. i dont use subversion control...which one do i need ? sometimes ctrl +z doesn't work well. when i run out of ideas for naming variable, i use swear words instead. i swear a lot when i get stuck....how to deal with anger issue ? my codes look ugly with comments everywhere. would rather use procedural coding finds "thinking" in OO difficult and time consuming i "write first think later". refactors code only if i am getting paid for it. dislikes configuring linux distro, Apache, MySQL, scaling, designing graphics and layouts. does not like writing tests likes working alone. does not like sharing codes. has an econ degree dislikes reading other people's code would rather write it on my own it seems my only true desire is to translate my ideas to a working prototype as fast as possible....it seems like i am very uninterested in the other details...could it be that i am not cut out to be a coder after all ? is going back to study comp sci a bad idea ?

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  • How to authenticate my own provider( only for testing purposes)

    - by user308806
    Dear all Now, I wrote a new provider (ESMJCE provider), and I also write a simple application to test it, but I have some exceptions like that java.lang.SecurityException: JCE cannot authenticate the provider ESMJCE at javax.crypto.Cipher.getInstance(DashoA13*..) at javax.crypto.Cipher.getInstance(DashoA13*..) at testprovider.main(testprovider.java:27) Caused by: java.util.jar.JarException: Cannot parse file:/C:/Program%20Files/Java/jre1.6.0_02/lib/ext/abc.jar at javax.crypto.SunJCE_c.a(DashoA13*..) at javax.crypto.SunJCE_b.b(DashoA13*..) at javax.crypto.SunJCE_b.a(DashoA13*..) ... 3 more And here is my source code import java.security.Provider; import java.security.Security; import javax.crypto.Cipher; import esm.jce.provider.ESMProvider; public class testprovider { / @param args / public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ESMProvider esmprovider = new esm.jce.provider.ESMProvider(); Security.insertProviderAt(esmprovider,2); Provider[] temp = Security.getProviders(); for (int i= 0; i<temp.length; i++){ System.out.println("Providers: " temp[i].getName()); } try{ Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("DES", "ESMJCE"); System.out.println("Cipher: " cipher); int blockSize= cipher.getBlockSize(); System.out.println("blockSize= " + blockSize); }catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } } } Please help me solve this issue Thanks

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  • Is MVVM killing silverlight development?

    - by DeanMc
    This is a question I have had rattling around in my head for some time. I had a chat with a guy the other night who told me he would not be using the navigational framework because he could not figure out how it works with MVVM. As much as I tried to explain that patterns should be taken with a pinch of salt he would not listen. My point is this, patterns are great when they solve some problem. Sometimes only part of the pattern solves a particular problem while the other parts of it cause different problems. The goal of any developer is to build a solid application using a combination of patterns know how and foresight. I feel MVVM is becoming the one pattern to rule them all. As it is not directly supported by .Net some fancy business is needed to make it work. I feel that people are missing the point of the pattern, which is loosely coupled, testable code and instead jumping through hoops and missing out on great experiences trying to follow MVVM to the letter. MVVM is great but I wish it came with a warning or disclaimer for newbies as my fear is people will shy away from silverlight development for fear of being smacked with the mvvm stick. EDIT: Can I just add as an edit, I use and agree with MVVM as a pattern I know when it is and isn't feasible in my projects. My issue is with the encompassing nature it is taking, as if it HAS to be used as part of development. It is being used as an integral feature and not a pattern, which it is.

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  • ListBox Items Not Visible after DataBinding

    - by SidC
    Good Evening All, I am writing a page that allows users to search a parts table, select quantities and a listbox is to be populated with gridview values. Here's a snippet of my aspx page: <asp:ListBox runat="server" ID="lbItems" Width="155px"> <asp:ListItem></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem></asp:ListItem> </asp:ListBox> Here's the relevant contents of codebehind: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Define DataTable Columns as incoming gridview fields Dim dtSelParts As DataTable = New DataTable Dim dr As DataRow = dtSelParts.NewRow() dtSelParts.Columns.Add("PartNumber") dtSelParts.Columns.Add("NSN") dtSelParts.Columns.Add("PartName") dtSelParts.Columns.Add("Qty") 'Select those gridview rows that have txtQty <> 0 For Each row As GridViewRow In MySearch.Rows Dim textboxText As String = _ CType(row.FindControl("txtQty"), TextBox).Text If textboxText <> "0" Then 'Create the row dr = dtSelParts.NewRow() 'Fill the row with data dr("PartNumber") = MySearch.DataKeys(row.RowIndex)("PartNumber") dr("NSN") = MySearch.DataKeys(row.RowIndex)("NSN") dr("PartName") = MySearch.DataKeys(row.RowIndex)("PartName") 'Add the row to the table dtSelParts.Rows.Add(dr) End If Next 'Need to send items to Listbox control lbItems lbItems.DataSource = New DataView(dtSelParts) lbItems.DataValueField = "PartNumber" lbItems.DataValueField = "NSN" lbItems.DataValueField = "PartName" lbItems.DataBind() End Sub The page runs fine in that my search functiobnality is intact, and I can input quantity values into my gridview's textbox. When I click Add to Quote the Listbox receives focus, but no list items are visible. I've created several list items in the aspx page, however I don't know how to populate the contents of my datatable in the listbox. Can someone help a newbie with this, seemingly, easy issue? Thanks, Sid

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  • acts_as_xapian jobs table

    - by Grnbeagle
    Hi, Can someone explain to me the inner workings of acts_as_xapian_jobs table? I ran into an issue with the acts_as_xapian plugin recently, where I kept getting the following error when it creates an object with xapian indexed fields: Mysql::Error: Duplicate entry 'String-2147483647' for key 2: INSERT INTO `acts_as_xapian_jobs` (`action`, `model`, `model_id`) VALUES ('update', 'String', 23730251831560) It turns out the model_id exceeded the max int value of 2147483647. The workaround was to update model_id to use bigint. Why would the model_id be so huge? By looking at content of acts_as_xapian_jobs, it seems it creates a row for every field that is being indexed.. Understanding how a job gets created in the table would help a great deal. Here's a sampling of the table: mysql> select * from acts_as_xapian_jobs limit 5\G *************************** 1. row *************************** id: 19 model: String model_id: 23804037900560 action: update *************************** 2. row *************************** id: 49 model: String model_id: 23804037191200 action: update *************************** 3. row *************************** id: 79 model: String model_id: 23804037932180 action: update *************************** 4. row *************************** id: 109 model: String model_id: 23804037101700 action: update *************************** 5. row *************************** id: 139 model: String model_id: 23804037722160 action: update Thanks in advance, Amie

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  • Running an existing LINQ query against a dynamic object (DataTable like)

    - by TomTom
    Hello, I am working on a generic OData provider to go against a custom data provider that we have here. Thsi is fully dynamic in that I query the data provider for the table it knows. I have a basic storage structure in place so far based on the OData sample code. My problem is: OData supports queries and expects me to hand in an IQueryable implementation. On the lowe rside, I dont have any query support. Not a joke - the provider returns tables and the WHERE clause is not supported. Performance is not an issue here - the tables are small. It is ok to sort them in the OData provider. My main problem is this. I submit a SQL statement to get out the data of a table. The result is some sort of ADO.NET data reader here. I need to expose an IQueryable implementation for this data to potentially allow later filtering. Any ide ahow to best touch that? .NET 3.5 only (no 4.0 planned for some time). I was seriously thinking of creating dynamic DTO classes for every table (emitting bytecode) so I can use standard LINQ. Right now I am using a dictionary per entry (not too efficient) but I see no real way to filter / sort based on them.

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  • constructor function's object literal returns toString() method but no other method

    - by JohnMerlino
    I'm very confused with javascript methods defined in objects and the "this" keyword. In the below example, the toString() method is invoked when Mammal object instantiated: function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.toString = function(){ return '[Mammal "'+this.name+'"]'; } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal); Despite the fact that the toString() method is not invoked on the object someAnimal like this: alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal.toString()); It still returns 'someAnimal is [Mammal "Mr. Biggles"]' . That doesn't make sense to me because the toString() function is not being called anywhere. Then to add even more confusion, if I change the toString() method to a method I make up such as random(): function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.random = function(){ return Math.floor(Math.random() * 15); } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert(someAnimal); It completely ignores the random method (despite the fact that it is defined the same way was the toString() method was) and returns: [object object] Another issue I'm having trouble understanding with inheritance is the value of "this". For example, in the below example function person(w,h){ width.width = w; width.height = h; } function man(w,h,s) { person.call(this, w, h); this.sex = s; } "this" keyword is being send to the person object clearly. However, does "this" refer to the subclass (man) or the super class (person) when the person object receives it? Thanks for clearing up any of the confusion I have with inheritance and object literals in javascript.

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  • Deep copy objects from different namespaces

    - by Wasim
    Hi all, I have the following situation: I have class User with the follwing properies : public class User { string user name ; List <Contact> contacts ; List <BookMark> book marks; . . . } I have the same class in a different namespace , with some different properties . BWT , it's the same situation of it's classes (Contact) and (BookMark). I need to make a deep copy of the same properties from the two classes . Actually , I arrive to this situation by having an Entity Framework edmx file . I created the first database (SQL server 2008) from this model . And copied he same edmx file to another project and created the database with SQL CE db. Now I get the first data model objects by WCF service and need to persist them in the local database in my application . The objects are the same but there are some changs because of the modeling issue with a different databse. Do you have any workarround about this assue. Thanks in advance ...

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