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  • jQuery Accordion: IE animation issues

    - by Nathan Long
    Update I am making this a community wiki, for three reasons: I don't feel like I got a definitive answer, but I have long since stopped needing an answer, because I rolled my own accordion function this question gets tons of views, so clearly lots of people are still interested So if anybody wants to change/clarify this question and make it a definitive guide, be my guest. I'm working on a page using jQuery's accordion UI element. I modeled my HTML on that example, except that inside the <li> elements, I have some unordered lists of links. Like this: $(document).ready(function() { $(".ui-accordion-container").accordion( {active: "a.default", alwaysOpen: true, autoHeight: false} ); }); <ul class="ui-accordion-container"> <li> <!-- Start accordion section --> <a href='#' class="accordion-label">A Group of Links</a> <ul class="linklist"> <li><a href="http://example.com">Example Link</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com">Example Link</a></li> </ul> <!--and of course there's another group --> Problem: IE Animation stinks Although IE7 animates the documentation's example accordion menu just fine, it has problems with mine. Specifically, one accordion menu on the page moves jerkily and has flashes of content. I know that it's not a CSS issue because the same thing happens if I don't include my CSS files. The other accordion menu on the page opens the first section you click and, after that, won't open any of them. Both of these problems are IE-specific, and both go away if I use the option animated: false. But I'd like to keep the default slide animation, since it helps the user understand what the menu is doing. Is there another way?

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  • How to test a struts 2.1.x developer?

    - by Jason Pyeron
    We employ test to filter out those who can't. The tests are designed to be very low effort for those who can and too much effort for those who can't. Here is an example for java web application developer on an Oracle project: We only work with contractors who can use the tools we use, to determine if you can use the tools we have devised some very simple tests. Instructions If you are prepared and knowledgeable this will take you about 2-5 minutes. Suggested knowledge and tools: * subversion 1.6 see http://subversion.tigris.org/ or http://cygwin.com/setup.exe * java 1.6 see http://java.sun.com/javase/downloads/index.jsp * oracle >=10g see http://www.oracle.com/technology/software/products/jdev/index.html * j2ee server see http://tomcat.apache.org/download-55.cgi or http://www.jboss.org/jbossas/downloads/ Steps 1. check out svn://statics32.pdinc.us/home/subversion/guest 2. deploy the war file found at trunk/test.war 3. browse to the web application you installed from the war file and answer the one SQL question: How many rows are in the table 'testdata' where column 'value' ends with either an 'A' or an 'a'? The login credentials are in trunk/doc/oracle.txt 4. make a RESULTS HASH by submitting your answer to the form. 5. create a file in tmp/YourUserName.txt and put the RESULTS HASH in it, not the answer. 6. check in your file (don't forget to add the file first). 7. message me with the revision number of your check in. As such I am looking for ideas on how to test for someone to be a struts 2.1 w/ annotations.

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  • Zend_ACL isAllowed causes issues with dojo

    - by churris43
    Hi all, I got an issue setting up Zend_Acl, I got it pretty well setup and running but I realised that in some forms where I'm using zend_dojo, dojo doesn't actualy gets loaded. Without going to I have setup my access list, as soon as I call the line isAllowed with the name of the resource taken from the request object, dojo is not loaded (I think) This is the code that breaks dojo: class MyPluginAcl extends Zend_Controller_Plugin_Abstract { public function __construct(Zend_Acl $acl) { $this->_acl = $acl; } public function preDispatch(Zend_Controller_Request_Abstract $request) { ..... $role = "guest" $resource = $request->getControllerName(); var_dump($resource) //Returns string(10)'myresource' $action = $request->getActionName(); if (!$this->_acl->isAllowed($role, $resource,$action)){ //Code to redirect somewhere } ...... } The thing that doesn't make sense are the following: If I do a var_dump($resource) I get a string(10)'myresource', still doesn't work If I set the $resource to be $resource = new Zend_Acl_Resource($request->getControllerName()); still doesn't work , but If I set $resource to have a string value, this whole thing works (eg. $resources = "myresource; it works. Any ideas ... Thanks

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  • php user authentication libraries / frameworks ... what are the options?

    - by es11
    I am using PHP and the codeigniter framework for a project I am working on, and require a user login/authentication system. For now I'd rather not use SSL (might be overkill and the fact that I am using shared hosting discourages this). I have considered using openID but decided that since my target audience is generally not technical, it might scare users away (not to mention that it requires mirroring of login information etc.). I know that I could write a hash based authentication (such as sha1) since there is no sensitive data being passed (I'd compare the level of sensitivity to that of stackoverflow). That being said, before making a custom solution, it would be nice to know if there are any good libraries or packages out there that you have used to provide semi-secure authentication? I am new to codeigniter, but something that integrates well with it would be preferable. Any ideas? (i'm open to criticism on my approach and open to suggestions as to why I might be crazy not to just use ssl). Thanks in advance. Update: I've looked into some of the suggestions. I am curious to try out zend-auth since it seems well supported and well built. Does anyone have experience with using zend-auth in codeigniter (is it too bulky?) and do you have a good reference on integrating it with CI? I do not need any complex authentication schemes..just a simple login/logout/password-management authorization system. Also, dx_auth seems interesting as well, however I am worried that it is too buggy. Has anybody else had success with this? I realized that I would also like to manage guest users (i.e. users that do not login/register) in a similar way to stackoverflow..so any suggestions that have this functionality would be great

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  • SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

    - by StickyMcGinty
    We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

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  • how to get the source code as register user.

    - by nir143
    hi. i downloaded a sourcecode of a site,but i downloaded it i saw it identify my program as a guest,i search at google and figure out that i can send a cookie when i "ask" the source code. that what i have managed to do and it still dont identify me as register user: CookieContainer cj = new CookieContainer(); string all = ""; HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(Url); req.CookieContainer = cj; HttpWebResponse res = (HttpWebResponse)req.GetResponse(); CookieCollection cs=cj.GetCookies(req.RequestUri); CookieContainer cc = new CookieContainer(); cc.Add(cs); req.CookieContainer = cc; StreamReader read = new StreamReader(res.GetResponseStream()); all = read.ReadToEnd(); read.Close(); return all; what is wrong here? tyvm for help:) (if that help,i can have a simple details of a register user of the site).

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  • magento payment process.. how it works in general

    - by spirytus
    hi everyone, got a question and I hope this is right place to ask :).. don’t quite understand how payment works in magento. client goes to checkout and lets say wants to pay as a guest, so provides address etc. and finally gets to payment methods. Then I want clients to pay thru credit card. Already have module installed for gateway (bank?) of my choice. At that point I would expect users to be redirected to 3rd party page (bank hosted) where they giving all the details, only after being returned to my magento site with appropriate message. In magento however it seems like they need to provide cc numbers and details on magento checkout page. I don’t understand if I (or the payment module I installed) need to transfer then all the credit card details to bank? I would have to have checkout page on ssl connection and static ip right? The thing is I want to avoid touching CC numbers at any point and would love to have it done by a bank page. I like the idea of magento interface all the way without redirecting to another page though, the only problem is not sure if would be able to set it all up properly. If anyone could explain to me possible options, what is the common way to do it and how the whole process works that would be very much appreciated. I did my research and looked all over google and various forums still need someones help though. Please let me know if some parts of my question are not quite clear, will try to better explain if necessary.

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  • Facebook JS API: users_getInfo() inside ifUserConnected() deadlock.

    - by serg555
    I am trying to put Facebook connect button on the site and once connected display connected username. But for some reason following code goes into some infinite loop during first connection, and then works fine unless I delete this app from my facebook profile which causes freezing again. Here is a code on FB connect button click: FB.Connect.requireSession(); Here is code directly on the page: <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB.init("123", "/xd_receiver.htm"); FB.ensureInit(function() { FB.Connect.ifUserConnected(function() { FB.Facebook.apiClient.users_getInfo(new Array(FB.Connect.get_loggedInUser()),new Array("name"), function(user, exec) { console.log("logged in:"+user[0].name); }); }, function(){ console.log("guest"); }); }); </script> If I remove FB.Facebook.apiClient.users_getInfo() it works fine, but I need to get username somehow. Any tips? Thanks.

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  • asp code for upload data

    - by vicky
    hello everyone i have this code for uploading an excel file and save the data into database.I m not able to write the code for database entry. someone please help <% if (Request("FileName") <> "") Then Dim objUpload, lngLoop Response.Write(server.MapPath(".")) If Request.TotalBytes > 0 Then Set objUpload = New vbsUpload For lngLoop = 0 to objUpload.Files.Count - 1 'If accessing this page annonymously, 'the internet guest account must have 'write permission to the path below. objUpload.Files.Item(lngLoop).Save "D:\PrismUpdated\prism_latest\Prism\uploadxl\" Response.Write "File Uploaded" Next Dim FSYSObj, folderObj, process_folder process_folder = server.MapPath(".") & "\uploadxl" set FSYSObj = server.CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") set folderObj = FSYSObj.GetFolder(process_folder) set filCollection = folderObj.Files Dim SQLStr SQLStr = "INSERT ALL INTO TABLENAME " for each file in filCollection file_name = file.name path = folderObj & "\" & file_name Set objExcel_chk = CreateObject("Excel.Application") Set ws1 = objExcel_chk.Workbooks.Open(path).Sheets(1) row_cnt = 1 'for row_cnt = 6 to 7 ' if ws1.Cells(row_cnt,col_cnt).Value <> "" then ' col = col_cnt ' end if 'next While (ws1.Cells(row_cnt, 1).Value <> "") for col_cnt = 1 to 10 SQLStr = SQLStr & "VALUES('" & ws1.Cells(row_cnt, 1).Value & "')" next row_cnt = row_cnt + 1 WEnd 'objExcel_chk.Quit objExcel_chk.Workbooks.Close() set ws1 = nothing objExcel_chk.Quit Response.Write(SQLStr) 'set filobj = FSYSObj.GetFile (sub_fol_path & "\" & file_name) 'filobj.Delete next End if End If plz tell me how to save the following excel data to the oracle databse.any help would be appreciated

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  • Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';'

    - by sufoid
    Hallo I have this script: <? require("lib2/config.inc.php"); require("lib2/tpl.class.php"); require("lib2/db.class.php"); require("lib2/um.class.php"); $tpl = new template("templates", "tpl"); $db = new db($db['location'], $db['username'], $db['passwort'], $db['database']); $um = new usermanagment(); /** User login **/ $checklogin = $um->check_login(); $userdata = $um->getuserdata(); if(!$checklogin && !$guest) { header("LOCATION: ./index2.php"); } eval("\$header .= \" ".$tpl->get("header")."\";"); eval("\$footer .= \" ".$tpl->get("footer")."\";"); $time = time(); $db->Query("UPDATE userdaten SET lastaction = '$time' WHERE userid = '".$userdata['userid']."'"); ?> And get this error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';' in /home/httpd/html/login/global.php(22) : eval()'d code on line 96 Any ideas?

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  • CanCan polymorphic resource access problem

    - by Call 'naive' True
    Hi everybody, i don't quite understand how to restrict access to links in this particular case with CanCan. I always get "Edit" link displayed. So i believe the problem is in my incorrect definition of cancan methods(load_ and authorize_). I have CommentsController like that: class CommentsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user! load_resource :instance_name => :commentable authorize_resource :article def index @commentable = find_commentable #loading our generic object end ...... private def find_commentable params.each { |name, value| if name =~ /(.+)_id$/ return $1.classify.constantize.includes(:comments => :karma).find(value) end } end end and i have in comments/index.html.erb following code that render file from other controller: <%= render :file => "#{get_commentable_partial_name(@commentable)}/show.html.erb", :collection => @commentable %> you can think about "#{get_commentable_partial_name(@commentable)}" like just "articles" in this case. Content of "articles/show.html.erb": <% if can? :update, @commentable %> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_article_path(@commentable) %> | <% end %> my ability.rb: class Ability include CanCan::Ability def initialize(user) user ||= User.new # guest user if user.role? :admin can :manage, :all elsif user.role? :author can :read, [Article, Comment, Profile] can :update, Article, :user_id => user.id end end end relations with models is: class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :commentable, :polymorphic => true, :dependent => :destroy ... end class Article < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments, :as => :commentable, :dependent => :destroy ... end i have tried debug this issue like that user = User.first article = Article.first ability = Ability.new(user) ability.can?(:update, article) and i always get "= true" in ability check Note: user.role == author and article.user_id != user.id if you need more information please write thank's for your time && sorry for my english

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  • get_post_meta return empty string

    - by Jean-philippe Emond
    I guest it is a little issues but I running a SQL to get some post id. $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.post_id FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); (count: 302) After that, I get all id and I run get_post_meta like that: foreach($result as $id){ $activity = get_post_meta($id); var_dump($activity); foreach($activity as $key=>$value){ if(is_array($value) && $key=="age"){ var_dump($value); } } } (var_dump result: string "") samething if I run with: $activity = get_post_meta($id,'activity',true); Where we need to get a result. What is wrong? Thank you for your help!!! [Bonus Question] If the "activity" meta_key as an array Value. and I get directly like: $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.meta_value FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); How I parse it? Thanks again!

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  • Stable/repeatable random sort (MySQL, Rails)

    - by Matt Rogish
    I'd like to paginate through a randomly sorted list of ActiveRecord models (rows from MySQL database). However, this randomization needs to persist on a per-session basis, so that other people that visit the website also receive a random, paginate-able list of records. Let's say there are enough entities (tens of thousands) that storing the randomly sorted ID values in either the session or a cookie is too large, so I must temporarily persist it in some other way (MySQL, file, etc.). Initially I thought I could create a function based on the session ID and the page ID (returning the object IDs for that page) however since the object ID values in MySQL are not sequential (there are gaps), that seemed to fall apart as I was poking at it. The nice thing is that it would require no/minimal storage but the downsides are that it is likely pretty complex to implement and probably CPU intensive. My feeling is I should create an intersection table, something like: random_sorts( sort_id, created_at, user_id NULL if guest) random_sort_items( sort_id, item_id, position ) And then simply store the 'sort_id' in the session. Then, I can paginate the random_sorts WHERE sort_id = n ORDER BY position LIMIT... as usual. Of course, I'd have to put some sort of a reaper in there to remove them after some period of inactivity (based on random_sorts.created_at). Unfortunately, I'd have to invalidate the sort as new objects were created (and/or old objects being removed, although deletion is very rare). And, as load increases the size/performance of this table (even properly indexed) drops. It seems like this ought to be a solved problem but I can't find any rails plugins that do this... Any ideas? Thanks!!

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  • No database connection when trying to use IIS locally with asp.net MVC 1.0

    - by mark4asp
    Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection. When I try to use IIS locally instead of Cassini I get this error. The ASP.NET MVC 1.0 site is running on WinXP. The database is local and has SQL Server and Windows Authentification mode enabled. The website runs OK using Cassini, with the same connection string. It fails when I try to use IIS instead of Cassini. These permissions are set on the Virtual directory which IIS points to. ASP.NET Machine Account [Full Control] Internet Guest Account [Full Control] System [Full Control] This virtual directory is the same are the directory holding my project files. I am using Linq and the database connection string is stored in the App.config file of my data project. I get the same error whether I set the connection string to use Windows or Sql server authentification. My sql server has both [MyMachineName\ASPNET] and SqlServerUser Logins and a User on the database. CREATE LOGIN [MyMachineName\ASPNET] FROM WINDOWS WITH DEFAULT_DATABASE=[master], DEFAULT_LANGUAGE=[us_english] Use My_database CREATE USER [MyMachineName\ASPNET] FOR LOGIN [MyMachineName\ASPNET] WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA=[dbo] CREATE LOGIN [MwMvcLg] WITH PASSWORD=N'blahblah', DEFAULT_DATABASE=[master], DEFAULT_LANGUAGE=[British], CHECK_EXPIRATION=OFF, CHECK_POLICY=ON Use My_database CREATE USER [MwMvcLg] FOR LOGIN [MwMvcLg] WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA=[dbo] How come I have no problem running this website on IIS6 remotely. Why does IIS5.1, running locally, need these extra logins? PS: My overwhelming preference is to use Sql Server authentification - as this is how it runs when deployed.

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  • [Rails3] How to do multiple many to many relationships between the same two tables.

    - by Kurt
    Hi. I have a model of a club where I want to model the two entities Meeting and Member. There are actually two many-to-many relationships between these entities though, as for any meeting a Member can either be a Speaker or a Guest. Now I am an OO thinker, so would normally just create the two classes and each one would just have two arrays of the other inside, but rails is making me think a bit more data centric here, so I realise I need to break these M2M relationships up with join tables Speakers and Guests which I have done, but now I am having trouble describing the relationships in the models. The two join table models both have "belongs_to :meeting" and "belongs_to :member" and I think that should be sufficient. I am not however sure about the Meeting and Member models though. Each one has "has_many :guests" and "has_many: speakers" but I am not sure if I also want to go: has_many :members, :through = :guests has_many :members, :through = :speakers But I suspect that this is like declaring two "members" that will clash. I also thought about: has_many :guests, :through = :guests has_many :speakers, :through = :speakers Does that make sense? How would ActiveRecord know that they are in fact Members? I have found heaps of examples of polymorphic m2m relationships and m2m relationships where 1 table references itself, but no good examples to help me mode this situation where two separate tables have two different m2m relationships. Anyone got any tips?

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  • Protecting routes with authentication in an AngularJS app

    - by Chris White
    Some of my AngularJS routes are to pages which require the user to be authenticated with my API. In those cases, I'd like the user to be redirected to the login page so they can authenticate. For example, if a guest accesses /account/settings, they should be redirected to the login form. From brainstorming I came up with listening for the $locationChangeStart event and if it's a location which requires authentication then redirect the user to the login form. I can do that simple enough in my applications run() event: .run(['$rootScope', function($rootScope) { $rootScope.$on('$locationChangeStart', function(event) { // Decide if this location required an authenticated user and redirect appropriately }); }]); The next step is keeping a list of all my applications routes that require authentication, so I tried adding them as parameters to my $routeProvider: $routeProvider.when('/account/settings', {templateUrl: '/partials/account/settings.html', controller: 'AccountSettingCtrl', requiresAuthentication: true}); But I don't see any way to get the requiresAuthentication key from within the $locationChangeStart event. Am I overthinking this? I tried to find a way for Angular to do this natively but couldn't find anything.

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  • VMware Player loses internet connectivity

    - by Martha
    Periodically, the internet simply stops working in my virtual machine, and the only way I can get it working again is to restart the host computer. Since I use the virtual machine specifically for testing web pages, this is, shall we say, a bother. Details: I have Windows XP Pro running in VMware Player (v. 3.0.0 build-203739) on a Windows 7 host. It's set to NAT (shared IP address) because the firewall won't allow a bridged connection. Every couple of days or so, first the internet slows down to a crawl, then eventually it stops working altogether. Both VMWare and the virtual OS report that they are connected, everything looks just peachy, I can reach the internet from the host, but on the VM, all web pages time out and/or report that the server could not be found. (Browser-independent; tried with IE, FF, Chrome, Safari, and Opera.) When this happens, the only way I've found to restore the internet connectivity is to restart the host machine. Restarting the VM doesn't help, nor does refreshing network connections on either the host or the guest. (Although I'm not entirely sure I've found the proper way to refresh a network connection in Windows 7...) I have not noticed any predictability about when the problem occurs, i.e. it's not immediately after I do anything special. It seems to occur mostly after putting the host to sleep once or twice, but it has happened even if the host has been in continuous use. It also seems independent of when I start using the VM - sometimes, I wake up the VM and the internet is really slow in it, then eventually stops working altogether; other times, I wake up the VM, use it perfectly happily for a while, then suddenly the internet is gone. Does anyone know why this is occurring? Failing that, is there a workaround that's less drastic than restarting the host? (Windows 7 startup times are blazingly fast compared to previous versions of Windows, but it's still a hassle to close all my programs and reopen them again.) Edit: while badges overall are nice, the Tumbleweed badge isn't helping me to solve my problem. Hasn't anyone encountered anything even remotely similar?

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  • Problem virtualizing Ubuntu 10.04 32 bit on VirtualBox 3.1 on Windows Vista 64 bit

    - by Adam Siddhi
    Software & Hardware Setup Host System : Windows Vista Home Premium SP1 64 bit Guest : Ubuntu 10.04 (ubuntu-10.04-desktop-i386.iso) 32 bit VM : VirtualBox 3.1.8 Hardware : Intel Core 2 Duo T6400 4GB SDRAM What Happened I followed the tutorial called Installing Ubuntu inside Windows using VirtualBox located here: www.psychocats.net/ubuntu/virtualbox At first I downloaded ubuntu-10.04-desktop-amd64.iso because I figured that it would be a perfect fit with my Vista 64 OS. I was wrong because it turns out the my Intel Core 2 Duo T6400 CPU does not have Intel® Virtualization Technology. So I had to go with the ubuntu-10.04-desktop-i386.iso which is 32 bit. This got me to the point where I could actually create the Ubuntu VM. So I set up the VM in VirtualBox (according to the tutorial I was following) to prepare for the Ubuntu 10.04 virtualization. Please go to my Picassa web album to see the screen shots of my VM settings and Ubuntu boot process so you can see what I experienced (they appear in the order that I experienced them in). www.picasaweb.google.com/rubysiddhi/ProblemVirtualizingUbuntu100432BitOnVirtualBox31OnWindowsVista64# The first 17 images show the VM settings. The last 8 show my attempt at virtualizing Ubuntu 10.04. You can see booting up but ultimately failing. The Specifics The one error message I got was: (process:210): GLib-WARNING **: getpwuid_r(): failed due to unknown user id (0) It appeared on a black screen that sort of looked like a Windows console screen but with out the c:\ or the ability to type. Then this error message got more complex when tons of text appeared in the screen. Pictures 23 - 25 in the album show this text. I should also mention that I found this post in the Ubuntu forums by zonination who seemed to have similar problems to mine even though they had a different set up. The main issue I think zonination and me may be having is the fact that we can not change the color mode to 32 bit while it is booting. I think the 16 bit color mode maybe making Ubuntu fail. Not certain though. Well I hope I explained my problem thoroughly and clearly. Thanks for the tutorial. It got me started but, now I hope to finish this process so I can start developing in Ubuntu. OH by the way if you want to actually see what happened play by play (with some classical in the background) check out the video I made over here: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XMbbm5E_0Xw Thanks! Regards, Adam

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  • Attach radeon driver to specific PCI devices?

    - by genpfault
    I have two Radeon cards in this machine, a 6570 and a 6950: lspci | grep VGA: 01:00.0 VGA compatible controller: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] nee ATI Turks [Radeon HD 6570] 02:00.0 VGA compatible controller: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] nee ATI Cayman PRO [Radeon HD 6950] I'm trying to get VGA passthrough to work with KVM on Debian Wheezy, passing through the 6950 as a secondary video card to a Windows 7 guest. This works fine if I blacklist the radeon kernel module via /etc/modprobe.d/. If I remove the blacklist to run X11 (or even just a KMS console) on the 6570 the radeon module seems to attach to both cards: dmesg | egrep "01:00.0|02:00.0|radeon": pci 0000:01:00.0: [1002:6759] type 0 class 0x000300 pci 0000:01:00.0: reg 10: [mem 0xe0000000-0xefffffff 64bit pref] pci 0000:01:00.0: reg 18: [mem 0xf7e20000-0xf7e3ffff 64bit] pci 0000:01:00.0: reg 20: [io 0xe000-0xe0ff] pci 0000:01:00.0: reg 30: [mem 0xf7e00000-0xf7e1ffff pref] pci 0000:01:00.0: supports D1 D2 pci 0000:02:00.0: [1002:6719] type 0 class 0x000300 pci 0000:02:00.0: reg 10: [mem 0xd0000000-0xdfffffff 64bit pref] pci 0000:02:00.0: reg 18: [mem 0xf7d20000-0xf7d3ffff 64bit] pci 0000:02:00.0: reg 20: [io 0xd000-0xd0ff] pci 0000:02:00.0: reg 30: [mem 0xf7d00000-0xf7d1ffff pref] pci 0000:02:00.0: supports D1 D2 vgaarb: device added: PCI:0000:01:00.0,decodes=io+mem,owns=io+mem,locks=none vgaarb: device added: PCI:0000:02:00.0,decodes=io+mem,owns=none,locks=none vgaarb: bridge control possible 0000:02:00.0 vgaarb: bridge control possible 0000:01:00.0 pci 0000:01:00.0: Boot video device [drm] radeon kernel modesetting enabled. radeon 0000:01:00.0: setting latency timer to 64 radeon 0000:01:00.0: VRAM: 1024M 0x0000000000000000 - 0x000000003FFFFFFF (1024M used) radeon 0000:01:00.0: GTT: 512M 0x0000000040000000 - 0x000000005FFFFFFF [drm] radeon: 1024M of VRAM memory ready [drm] radeon: 512M of GTT memory ready. radeon 0000:01:00.0: irq 46 for MSI/MSI-X radeon 0000:01:00.0: radeon: using MSI. [drm] radeon: irq initialized. radeon 0000:01:00.0: WB enabled [drm] radeon: ib pool ready. [drm] radeon: power management initialized fbcon: radeondrmfb (fb0) is primary device fb0: radeondrmfb frame buffer device [drm] Initialized radeon 2.12.0 20080528 for 0000:01:00.0 on minor 0 radeon 0000:02:00.0: enabling device (0000 -> 0003) radeon 0000:02:00.0: setting latency timer to 64 radeon 0000:02:00.0: VRAM: 2048M 0x0000000000000000 - 0x000000007FFFFFFF (2048M used) radeon 0000:02:00.0: GTT: 512M 0x0000000080000000 - 0x000000009FFFFFFF [drm] radeon: 2048M of VRAM memory ready [drm] radeon: 512M of GTT memory ready. radeon 0000:02:00.0: irq 49 for MSI/MSI-X radeon 0000:02:00.0: radeon: using MSI. [drm] radeon: irq initialized. radeon 0000:02:00.0: WB enabled [drm] radeon: ib pool ready. [drm] radeon: power management initialized fb1: radeondrmfb frame buffer device [drm] Initialized radeon 2.12.0 20080528 for 0000:02:00.0 on minor 1 [drm] radeon: finishing device. radeon 0000:02:00.0: ffff88041a941800 unpin not necessary [drm] radeon: ttm finalized pci-stub 0000:02:00.0: claimed by stub pci-stub 0000:02:00.0: irq 49 for MSI/MSI-X This causes the Win7 VM to bluescreen on boot. How can I configure things so that the radeon module only attaches to the 6570 and not the 6950?

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  • How to shutdown VMware Fusion virtual machine on host shutdown

    - by Nikksno
    I have a Mac mini running Mavericks server. I installed the Atmail server + webmail vm [a linux centos distribution] in VMware Fusion Professional 6 with the VMware Tools addon. It works flawlessly. I've set it to start on boot and that works very reliably. However I've been looking for a way to also safely and gracefully shut it down whenever OS X shuts down for whatever reason. The Mac is connected to a UPS and configured to perform an automatic shutdown in case the battery starts running low so that's no additional problem. Now the first thing I did was to go into Fusion's prefs and select "Power off the vm" when closing it. However I noticed that for some arcane reason closing the vm window would actually forcibly power off the vm: so then I found this post that showed me how to change the default power options and I managed to have the vm cleanly shutdown when closing its window or quitting Fusion altogether. At this point I was hoping to have solved the problem but as it turns out upon invoking system shutdown OS X doesn't wait for the vm to shutdown and terminates Fusion before it has a chance to do so. At this point I started looking for a way to automate the process of shutting down the guest os via some advanced setting but had no luck in doing so. That's when I found a command to shut the vm down: vmrun and it worked. The only thing left was to find out a way to execute this script on os x shutdown and giving it a little time to power off completely. However this turned out to be a nightmare: I spent hours looking through several ways to do this with Startup Items, rc.shutdown, cron, launchd, etc... but none of them worked the way I had configured them. I have to say that I found very limited information on using launchd for a shutdown script execution and I know it's the latest thing in the OS X world so I'm hoping someone out there among you will be able to help me out with this. I still think this is an extremely basic feature to ask for and I was really surprised to find this little documentation on so many different aspects of this problem. Is Fusion too basic of an application for this? I really hope someone can help. Thank you very much in advance.

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  • Is dual-booting an OS more or less secure than running a virtual machine?

    - by Mark
    I run two operating systems on two separate disk partitions on the same physical machine (a modern MacBook Pro). In order to isolate them from each other, I've taken the following steps: Configured /etc/fstab with ro,noauto (read-only, no auto-mount) Fully encrypted each partition with a separate encryption key (committed to memory) Let's assume that a virus infects my first partition unbeknownst to me. I log out of the first partition (which encrypts the volume), and then turn off the machine to clear the RAM. I then un-encrypt and boot into the second partition. Can I be reasonably confident that the virus has not / cannot infect both partitions, or am I playing with fire here? I realize that MBPs don't ship with a TPM, so a boot-loader infection going unnoticed is still a theoretical possibility. However, this risk seems about equal to the risk of the VMWare/VirtualBox Hypervisor being exploited when running a guest OS, especially since the MBP line uses UEFI instead of BIOS. This leads to my question: is the dual-partitioning approach outlined above more or less secure than using a Virtual Machine for isolation of services? Would that change if my computer had a TPM installed? Background: Note that I am of course taking all the usual additional precautions, such as checking for OS software updates daily, not logging in as an Admin user unless absolutely necessary, running real-time antivirus programs on both partitions, running a host-based firewall, monitoring outgoing network connections, etc. My question is really a public check to see if I'm overlooking anything here and try to figure out if my dual-boot scheme actually is more secure than the Virtual Machine route. Most importantly, I'm just looking to learn more about security issues. EDIT #1: As pointed out in the comments, the scenario is a bit on the paranoid side for my particular use-case. But think about people who may be in corporate or government settings and are considering using a Virtual Machine to run services or applications that are considered "high risk". Are they better off using a VM or a dual-boot scenario as I outlined? An answer that effectively weighs any pros/cons to that trade-off is what I'm really looking for in an answer to this post. EDIT #2: This question was partially fueled by debate about whether a Virtual Machine actually protects a host OS at all. Personally, I think it does, but consider this quote from Theo de Raadt on the OpenBSD mailing list: x86 virtualization is about basically placing another nearly full kernel, full of new bugs, on top of a nasty x86 architecture which barely has correct page protection. Then running your operating system on the other side of this brand new pile of shit. You are absolutely deluded, if not stupid, if you think that a worldwide collection of software engineers who can't write operating systems or applications without security holes, can then turn around and suddenly write virtualization layers without security holes. -http://kerneltrap.org/OpenBSD/Virtualization_Security By quoting Theo's argument, I'm not endorsing it. I'm simply pointing out that there are multiple perspectives here, so I'm trying to find out more about the issue.

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  • WinXP - Having trouble sharing internet with 3G USB modem via ICS

    - by Carlos Nunez
    all! I've been banging my head against a wall with this issue for a few days now and am hoping someone can help out. I recently signed up for T-Mobile's webConnect 3G/4G service to replace the faltering (and slow) DSL connection in my apartment. The goal was to put the SIM in one of my old phones and use its built-in WLAN tethering feature to share Internet out to rest of my computers. I quickly found out that webConnect-provisioned SIMs do not work with regular smartphones, so I was forced to either buy a 4G-compatible router or tether one of my old laptops to my wireless router and share out that way. I chose the latter, and it's sharpening my inner masochistic self by the day. Here's the setup: GSM USB modem (via hub), ICS host - 10/100 Mbps Ethernet NIC, ICS "guest" - WAN port of my SMC WGBR14N wireless router in bridged mode (i.e. wireless access point). Ideally, this would make my laptop the DHCP server and internet gateway with the WAP giving everyone wireless coverage. I can browse internet on the host laptop fine. However, when clients try to connect, they get a DHCP-assigned IP from the laptop and are able to use the Internet for a few minutes before completely dying. After that happens, they are able to re-associate with the WAP and get IP addresses, but are unable to use Internet or resolve IP addresses until the laptop and router are restarted. If they do get access, it's very, very slow. After running Wireshark on the host machine, it turns out that this is because every TCP connection keeps getting RST. DNS seems to work. I would normally think the firewall is the culprit here, but when it drops packets, it drops them completely. The fact that TCP connections are being ACK'ed by the destination rules that out. Of course, none of the event Log isn't saying anything about what's going on. I also tried disabling power management on the NIC, since that's caused problems in the past; that didn't help either. I finally disabled receive-side scaling as per a Microsoft KB (that applied to Windows Server 2003, SP2) to no avail. I'm thinking of trying it with a different NIC (will be tough; don't have a spare Ethernet NIC around for the laptop), but I'm getting the impression that this simply doesn't work. Can anyone please advise? I apologise for the length of this post; all contributions are much appreciated! -Carlos.

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  • samba 3.5 "force user" doesn't seem to be sticking

    - by myCubeIsMyCell
    After installing a new OS with newer version of samba, I'm having trouble accessing my shares. I can browse to the specific share, but only to the top level. As best I can tell from the logs, it seems the "force user" in the samba config isn't sticking beyond the initial connection. Details below. I installed a new version of CentOS on my storage server. My old CentOS (4?)install had samba version 3.0.33, new CentOS is using 3.5.10. No domain/AD involved ... just home workgroup. no real security... just some shares hidden & some defined as read-only. here's my config: [global] workgroup = WORKGROUP server string = Samba Server Version %v netbios name = luna security = share # logs split per machine log file = /var/log/samba/log.%m log level = 2 # max 50KB per log file, then rotate max log size = 50 winbind use default domain = Yes [strge] comment = please path = /storage browseable = yes read only = no force user = windowsguest force group = users guest ok = yes So... the problem I'm running into is that the 'force user' only seems to hold for the initial connection & I see all the top level folders fine. When I drill into a folder I get access denied - which appears to be due to my windows user info being sent (trys to authenticate xuser - a non-existant user to samba, so maps to nobody & fails). Here's the smb error msg: [2012/11/29 14:30:27.326195, 2] auth/auth.c:314(check_ntlm_password) check_ntlm_password: Authentication for user [xuser] -> [xuser] FAILED with error NT_STATUS_NO_SUCH_USER [2012/11/29 14:30:27.326251, 2] auth/auth.c:314(check_ntlm_password) check_ntlm_password: Authentication for user [nobody] -> [nobody] FAILED with error NT_STATUS_NO_SUCH_USER Most of the top level directories are 755, some 777. Either way, can not access them. If I do a chown -R windowsguest.users ... no change... but if I do a chmod -R to 777 or 755 they become browsable... but still can't create files (even for 777 ones). Not sure what role it plays if any... but had to recreate the user windowsguest under the new os install, uid & gid match old user. Seems the main issue as far as I can tell is that samba isn't maintaining the 'force user' - but I could be wildly off base. Client OS is win7 pro x64. Thanks for any suggestions or advice!

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  • HP MSR 30-10a Router - Route Traffic over Default Route

    - by SteadH
    We have a brand new HP MSR 30-10a Router. We have a fairly simple routing situation - we have two IP blocks, one which has a route out. We need things on the first block to go through the router, and out. I have an old Cisco 2801 router doing the job right now. For our example - IP Block 1: 50.203.110.232/29, Router interface on this block is 50.203.110.237, route out is 50.203.110.233. IP Block 2: 50.202.219.1/27, Router interface on this block at 50.202.219.20. I have a static route created for: 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 50.203.110.233 The router seems to understand this. When on the CLI via serial cable, I can ping 8.8.8.8 and hear responses from Google DNS. Woo hoo! The issue arrives when any client sits on the IP Block 2 side. I configured my client with a static IP of 50.202.219.15/27, default gateway 50.202.219.20. I can ping myself. I can ping the near side of the router (50.202.219.20), and I can ping the far side of the router (50.203.110.237. I cannot ping anything else in IP block 1, nor can I ping 8.8.8.8. Here is my configuration file: <HP>display current-configuration # version 5.20.106, Release 2507, Standard # sysname HP # domain default enable system # dar p2p signature-file flash:/p2p_default.mtd # port-security enable # undo ip http enable # password-recovery enable # vlan 1 # domain system access-limit disable state active idle-cut disable self-service-url disable # user-group system group-attribute allow-guest # local-user admin password cipher $c$3$40gC1cxf/wIJNa1ufFPJsjKAof+QP5aV authorization-attribute level 3 service-type telnet # cwmp undo cwmp enable # interface Aux0 async mode flow link-protocol ppp # interface Cellular0/0 async mode protocol link-protocol ppp # interface Ethernet0/0 port link-mode route ip address 50.203.110.237 255.255.255.248 # interface Ethernet0/1 port link-mode route ip address 50.202.219.20 255.255.255.224 # interface NULL0 # ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 50.203.110.233 permanent # load xml-configuration # load tr069-configuration # user-interface tty 12 user-interface aux 0 user-interface vty 0 4 authentication-mode scheme # My guess right now is there is some sort of "permission" needed to use the default route. The manuals haven't turned up a lot in this area that don't make the situation much more complicated (but maybe it needs to be more complicated?) Background: we use HP switches, and I love the CLI. I bought HP thinking the command line interface would be similar, or at least speak the same language. Whoops! I'd be happy to provide more information or perform any additional tests. Thanks in advance! Update 1: The manual mentions routing rules. I hadn't previously added these (since our Cisco 2801 seems to route anything by default). I added: ip ip-prefix 1 permit 0.0.0.0 0 less-equal 32 alas, still no dice.

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  • Easy Install Resets Hardware Settings

    - by bob5972
    I think there's a problem with the Easy Install setup. I selected "Installer disc image," and it came up and said that it would use "Easy Install," I think I hit next, and then I went back changed my mind, and selected "I will install the operating system later." After finishing the wizard, I think it still went and ran Easy Install, because it auto-installed VMware tools and I never got to select anything for my windows setup. Then, when it was finished, all the hardware changes I had made were lost. The RAM was changed from 2 GB back to the default of 1 GB, my CD ROM drive was set back to "Use a Physical Drive" and "Connect at Power On", and the Floppy Drive was also set to "Connect at Power On", after I disabled them. I was trying to install Windows 7, and I wasn't sure if I could change the RAM settings after installation without needing to reactivate it, so I deleted the VM and tried to start over. This time, the "Installer disc image" had my Win7 image pre-selected, so I clicked "I will install it myself later," set my hardware again, and tried to boot off my CD. Again,it did an Easy Install, and reset my RAM and my drive settings. So I deleted it again and the third time it still had the Win7 image pre-selected, but this time I unplugged all the drives and let it try to boot off the empty harddrive and fail, and made sure it kept all my hardware settings. Then, I powered it off, put my Win7 image in the guest CD ROM, and powered it on. This time it finally let me run the installer and pick my language, and type a user name. This time when I powered it off it kept my hardware settings. I can duplicate the error by doing exactly the steps above. Creating a new VM, selecting my "Installer Image," hitting next, going back, selecting "I will Install it myself," and then finish the wizard, and customizing my hardware right before the end, setting the CD Rom drive to the same installer media, and setting "Connect on Power On." (If I start it without the CD ROM in the first time, it doesn't do it). When I power on, I'm not prompted for any install information (like language and user name), and when it runs the first timemy hardware choices are reset (like the RAM back to 1 GB). If it helps, I'm running VMware Workstation 7.0.1 build-227600 on Gentoo Linux

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