Search Results

Search found 19606 results on 785 pages for 'the thing'.

Page 79/785 | < Previous Page | 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86  | Next Page >

  • How do I avoid repetition in Java ResourceBundle strings?

    - by Trejkaz
    We had a lot of strings which contained the same sub-string, from sentences about checking the log or how to contact support, to branding-like strings containing the company or product name. The repetition was causing a few issues for ourselves (primarily typos or copy/paste errors) but it also causes issues in that it increases the amount of text our translator has to translate. The solution I came up with went something like this: public class ExpandingResourceBundleControl extends ResourceBundle.Control { public static final ResourceBundle.Control EXPANDING = new ExpandingResourceBundleControl(); private ExpandingResourceBundleControl() { } @Override public ResourceBundle newBundle(String baseName, Locale locale, String format, ClassLoader loader, boolean reload) throws IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, IOException { ResourceBundle inner = super.newBundle(baseName, locale, format, loader, reload); return inner == null ? null : new ExpandingResourceBundle(inner, loader); } } ExpandingResourceBundle delegates to the real resource bundle but performs conversion of {{this.kind.of.thing}} to look up the key in the resources. Every time you want to get one of these, you have to go: ResourceBundle.getBundle("com/acme/app/Bundle", EXPANDING); And this works fine -- for a while. What eventually happens is that some new code (in our case autogenerated code which was spat out of Matisse) looks up the same resource bundle without specifying the custom control. This appears to be non-reproducible if you write a simple unit test which calls it with and then without, but it occurs when the application is run for real. Somehow the cache inside ResourceBundle ejects the good value and replaces it with the broken one. I am yet to figure out why and Sun's jar files were compiled without debug info so debugging it is a chore. My questions: Is there some way of globally setting the default ResourceBundle.Control that I might not be aware of? That would solve everything rather elegantly. Is there some other way of handling this kind of thing elegantly, perhaps without tampering with the ResourceBundle classes at all?

    Read the article

  • Need help in resolving a compiler error: error: invalid conversion from ‘int’ to ‘GIOCondition’

    - by michael
    I have a simple cpp file which uses GIO. I have stripped out everything to show my compile error: Here is the error I get: My.cpp:16: error: invalid conversion from ‘int’ to ‘GIOCondition’ make[2]: *** [My.o] Error 1 Here is the complete file: #include <glib.h> static gboolean read_socket (GIOChannel *gio, GIOCondition condition, gpointer data) { return false; } void createGIOChannel() { GIOChannel* gioChannel = g_io_channel_unix_new(0); // the following is the line causing the error: g_io_add_watch(gioChannel, G_IO_IN|G_IO_HUP, read_socket, NULL); } I have seen other example using gio, and I am doing the same thing in term of calling G_IO_IN|G_IO_HUP. And the documentation http://www.gtk.org/api/2.6/glib/glib-IO-Channels.html, said I only need to include , which I did. Can you please tell me how to resolve my error? One thing I can think of is I am doing this in a cpp file. But g_io_add_watch is a c function? Thank you for any help. I have spent hours on this but did not get anywhere.

    Read the article

  • Ninject InThreadScope Binding

    - by e36M3
    I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

    Read the article

  • Using .NET XmlSerializer with get properties and setter functions

    - by brone
    I'm trying to use XmlSerializer from C# to save out a class that has some values that are read by properties (the code being just a simple retrieval of field value) but set by setter functions (since there is a delegate called if the value changes). What I'm currently doing is this sort of thing. The intended use is to use the InT property to read the value, and use SetInT to set it. Setting it has side-effects, so a method is more appropriate than a property here. XmlSerializationOnly_InT exists solely for the benefit of the XmlSerializer (hence the name), and shouldn't be used by normal code. class X { public double InT { get { return _inT; } } public void SetInT(double newInT) { if (newInT != _inT) { _inT = newInT; Changed();//includes delegate call; potentially expensive } } private double _inT; // not called by normal code, as the property set is not just a simple // field set or two. [XmlElement(ElementName = "InT")] public double XmlSerializationOnly_InT { get { return InT; } set { SetInT(value); } } } This works, it's easy enough to do, and the XML file looks like you'd expect. It's manual labour though, and a bit ugly, so I'm only somewhat satisfied. What I'd really like is to be able to tell the XML serialization to read the value using the property, and set it using the setter function. Then I wouldn't need XmlSerializationOnly_InT at all. I seem to be following standard practise by distinguishing between property sets and setter functions in this way, so I'm sure I'm not the only person to have encountered this (though google suggests I might be). What have others done in this situation? Is there some easy way to persuade the XmlSerializer to handle this sort of thing better? If not, is there perhaps some other easy way to do it?

    Read the article

  • Version control - stubs and mocks

    - by Tesserex
    For the sake of this question, I don't care about the difference between stubs, mocks, dummies, fakes, etc. Let's say I'm working on a project with one other person. I'm working on component A and he is working on component B. They work together, so I stub out B for testing, and he stubs out A. We're working in a DVCS, let's say Git, because that's actually the case here. When it comes time to merge our components together, we need to get the "real" files from my A and his B, but throw away all the fake stuff. During development, it's likely (unless I need to learn how to properly stub things) that the fakes have the same file names and class names as the real thing. So my question is: what is the proper procedure for doing version control on the fakes, and how are the components correctly merged, making sure to grab the real thing and not the fake? I would guess that one way is just do the merge, expect it to say CONFLICT, and then manually delete all the fake code out of the half-merged files. But this sounds tedious and inefficient. Should the fake things not go under VC at all? Should they be ripped out just before merging? Sorry if the answer to this should be obvious or trivial, I'm just looking for a "suggested practice" here.

    Read the article

  • Most efficient way to store list structure in XML

    - by Mike
    Starting a new project and was planning on storing all of my web content in XML. I do not have access to a database so this seemed like the next best thing. One thing I'm struggling with is how to structure the XML for links (which will later be transformed using XSLT). It needs to be fairly flexible as well. Below is what I started with, but I'm starting to question it. <links> <link> <url>http://google.com</url> <description>Google</description> <link> <link> <url>http://yahoo.com</url> <description>Yahoo</description> <links> <url>http://yahoo.com/search</url> <description>Search</description> </link> <link> </links> That should get transformed into Google Yahoo Search Perhaps something like this might work better. <links> <link href="http://google.com">Google</link> <link href="http://yahoo.com">Yahoo <link href="http://yahoo.com/search">Search</link> </link> </links> Does anyone perhaps have a link that talks about structuring web content properly in XML? Thank you. :)

    Read the article

  • How Can I Find Out *HOW* My Site Was Hacked? How Do I Find Site Vulnerabilities?

    - by Imageree
    One of my custom developed ASP.NET sites was hacked today: "Hacked By Swan (Please Stop Wars !.. )" It is using ASP.NET and SQL Server 2005 and IIS 6.0 and Windows 2003 server. I am not using Ajax and I think I am using stored procedures everywhere I am connecting to the database so I dont think it is SQL injection. I have now removed the write permission on the folders. How can I find out what they did to hack the site and what to do to prevent it from happening again? The server is up to date with all Windows updates. What they have done is uploading 6 files (index.asp, index.html, index.htm,...) to the main directory for the website. What log files should I upload? I have log files for IIS from this folder: c:\winnt\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1. I am willing to show it to some of you but don't think it is good to post on the Internet. Anyone willing to take a look at it? I have already searched on Google but the only thing I find there are other sites that have been hacked - I haven't been able to see any discussion about it. I know this is not strictly related to programming but this is still an important thing for programmers and a lot of programmers have been hacked like this.

    Read the article

  • Javascript and webshop tracking/affiliate across websites, how to do?

    - by H4mm3rHead
    Hi, I have a small front end to a webshop. All customers that go through my website and buy an item from the webshop I get back 5% of the amount. I need to find a way af tracking the customers i forward from my webshop to the other webshop. And then get the webshop to reply to me when the purchase has been made. In my webshop i have made a small page: collect.aspx that requests and saves the values passed in the querystring, something like this pseudo code: string orderid = Request["orderid"]; string amount = Request["amount"]; ..save to database On the webshop i forward customers to i get to insert a javascript on the last page in the purchase flow. I have tried a lot of things but it seems that the only thing that works is to fool the browser into thinking im referring a javascript, like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://domain.com/mypage.aspx?orderid=4&amount=45/> I saw how other trackers did their bit, and this seems to be the general way of doing it. With this script however, i get all the orders, i only want to log those that belong tome, those who entered through my website. Here is my big problem, how to do this? I added a cookie when the user opens my page, and i want to check for this cookie again when the purchase page make the callback. It weems that i cant get the cookie from the browser when it makes the "" call. This is really buggin me now. Could anyone please tell me how this is generally done, this tracking. And what am i missing in regards to this cookie thing? All ideas on how to do this is very welcome.

    Read the article

  • Algorithm to find the percentage of how much two texts are identical

    - by qster
    What algorithm would you suggest to identify how much from 0 to 1 (float) two texts are identical? Note that I don't mean similar (ie, they say the same thing but in a different way), I mean exact same words, but one of the two texts could have extra words or words slightly different or extra new lines and stuff like that. A good example of the algorithm I want is the one google uses to identify duplicate content in websites (X search results very similar to the ones shown have been omitted, click here to see them). The reason I need it is because my website has the ability for users to post comments; similar but different pages currently have their own comments, so many users ended up copy&pasting their comments on all the similar pages. Now I want to merge them (all similar pages will "share" the comments, and if you post it on page A it will appear on similar page B), and I would like to programatically erase all those copy&pasted comments from the same user. I have quite a few million comments but speed shouldn't be an issue since this is a one time thing that will run in the background. The programming language doesn't really matter (as long as it can interface to a MySQL database), but I was thinking of doing it in C++.

    Read the article

  • Mysterious extra hashtable entry

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Good evening everyone, I'm back :) Let me explain my problem. I have a hashtable in wich I store the products a costumors buys (%orders). It uses the productcode as key and has a reference to an array with the other info as value. At the end of the program, I have to rewrite the inventory to the updated version (i.e. subtract the quantity of the bought items) This is how I do this: sub rewriteInventory{ open(FILE,'>inv.txt'); foreach $key(%inventory){ print FILE "$key\|$inventory{$key}[0]\|$inventory{$key}[1]\|$inventory{$key}[2]\n" } close(FILE); } where $inventory{$key}[x] is 0 - Title, 1 - price, 2 - quantity. The problem here is that when I look at inv.txt afterwards, I see things like this: CD-911|Lady Gaga - The Fame|15.99|21 ARRAY(0x145030c)||| BOOK-1453|The Da Vinci Code - Dan Brown|14.75|12 ARRAY(0x145bee4)||| Where do these "ARRAY(0x145030c)|||" entries come from? Or more important, how do I get rid of them? This is the last part of this school task, I had so much problems programming all this and this stupid little thing comes up now and I'm really fed up with this whole Perl thing. (this aside :p) I hope someone can help me :) Fuji

    Read the article

  • Windows console

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. Well, I have a simple question, at least I hope its simple. I was interested in win32 console for a while. Our teacher told us, that windows console is just for DOS and real mode emulation purposes. Well, I know it is not true, becouse DOS applications are runned by emulator which only uses console to display output. Another thing I learned is that console is built into Windows since NT. Well. But what I could not find is, how actually are console programs written to use console. I use Visual C++ for programming (well, for learning). So, the only thing I need to do for using console is select console project. I first thought that windows decides wheather it run app in console or tries to run app in window mode. So I created win32 program and tried printf(). Well, I could not compile it. I know that by definition printf() prints text or variables to stdout. I also found that stdout is the console interface for output. But, I could not find what actually stdout is. So, basicly what I want to ask is, where is the difference between console app and win32 app. I thought that windows starts console when it gets command from "console-family" functions. But obvisously it does not, so there must be some code that actually commands windows to create console interface. And the second question is, when the console is created, how does windows recognize which console terminal is used for what app? I mean, what actually is stdout? Is it a area in memory , or some windows routine that is called? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to use routing in a ASP MVC website to localize in two languages - But keeping exiting URLs

    - by Anders Pedersen
    We have a couple ASP MVC websites just using the standard VS templates default settings - Working as wanted. But now I want to localize these website ( They are now in Dutch and I will add the English language ) I would like to use routing and not Resource because: 1. Languages will differ in content, numbers of pages, etc. 2. The content is mostly text. I would like the URLs to look some thing like this - www.domain.com/en/Home/Index, www.domain.nl/nl/Home/Index. But the last one should also work with - www.domain.nl/Home/Index - Witch is the exciting URLs. I have implemented Phil Haacks areas ViewEngine from this blogpost - http://haacked.com/archive/2008/11/04/areas-in-aspnetmvc.aspx. But only putting the English website in the areas and keeping the Dutch in old structure. Witch are served as Phils default fallback. But the problem is here that I have to duplicate my controllers for both language's. So I tried the work method described in this tread - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1712167/asp-net-mvc-localization-route. It works OK with the ?en? and /nl/ but not with the old URLs. When using this code in the global.asax the URL without the culture isn't working. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { //routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{culture}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { culture = "nl-NL", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWitoutCulture", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I properly overlooking some thing simple but I can't get this to work for me. Or are there a better way of doing this?

    Read the article

  • Architectural conundrum

    - by Dejan
    The worst thing when working on a one man project is the lack of input that you usually get from your coworkers. And because of the lack of that you tend to make obvious mistakes. After going down that road for some time I would need some help from the community. I started a little home-brew project that should turn into a portal of some sorts. And the main thing that is bothering me is the persistence layer that i have concocted. It should be completely separated from the presentation layer for starters and a OR mapper is also somewhere. This is because I have multiple data stores that have to be used. So the base idea was that the individual "repositories" operate each on their individual database and that the business layer then aggregates the business objects which are then transformed in the presentation layer into view objects. The main problem I face is the following: Multiple classes for the same concept - There is a DAL representation of a user and BL representation of user and a view representation of a user. I can handle the transformation with a tool but is this really the right way. I mean they are all nicely separated, but the overhead is quite something. What do you think? Am I going too deep into the separation of concern rabbit hole or is this still normal?

    Read the article

  • Good Learning Method for Objective-C?

    - by Josh Kahane
    Hi I know this must be asked a millions times and can't be easy to answer as there is o definitive method, but any help would be appreciated, thanks. I have been playing around with all sorts of things in Xcode and with Objective-C, however I can't seem to find a good way of learning things in an efficient way. I have bought the book 'Programming in Objective-C 2.0' and its great but just lays down the basics it seems. I want to learn in the 2D game development direction, then of course 3D after nailing that, if thats the right thing to do? I am 17 currently in year 13, last year of school/A Levels and am almost definitely taking a gap year. Any good, well known reputable courses online or offline (real world)? This is my first programming language, and I am absolutely serious about learning this. One last question, is when learning things online, I have in the past started building a feature and learning a certain aspect in programming only to find out after adding more its slows down the app or its to inefficient. Is the key to use a certain method in a certain situation (being os many ways to do the same thing) or use any of those methods and refine it in your app to make it run smoothly? Sorry, its hard for me to know when I have little experience, thus far. Sorry for rambling on! I would appreciate any help, thank you!

    Read the article

  • Spring 2.5 managed servlets: howto?

    - by EugeneP
    Correct me if anything is wrong. As I understand, all Spring functionality, namely DI works when beans are got thru Spring Context, ie getBean() method. Otherwise, none can work, even if my method is marked @Transactional and I will create the owning class with a new operator, no transaction management will be provided. I use Tomcat 6 as a servlet container. So, my question is: how to make Servlet methods managed by Spring framework. The issue here is that I use a framework, and its servlets extend the functionality of basic java Servlets, so they have more methods. Still, web.xml is present in an app as usual. The thing is that I do not control the servlets creation flow, I can only override a few methods of each servlet, the flow is basically written down in some xml file, but I control this process using a graphical gui. So, basically, I only add some code to a few methods of each Servlet. How to make those methods managed by Spring framework? The basic thing I need to do is making these methods transactional (@Transactional).

    Read the article

  • Copy an entity in Google App Engine datastore in Python without knowing property names at 'compile'

    - by Gordon Worley
    In a Python Google App Engine app I'm writing, I have an entity stored in the datastore that I need to retrieve, make an exact copy of it (with the exception of the key), and then put this entity back in. How should I do this? In particular, are there any caveats or tricks I need to be aware of when doing this so that I get a copy of the sort I expect and not something else. ETA: Well, I tried it out and I did run into problems. I would like to make my copy in such a way that I don't have to know the names of the properties when I write the code. My thinking was to do this: #theThing = a particular entity we pull from the datastore with model Thing copyThing = Thing(user = user) for thingProperty in theThing.properties(): copyThing.__setattr__(thingProperty[0], thingProperty[1]) This executes without any errors... until I try to pull copyThing from the datastore, at which point I discover that all of the properties are set to None (with the exception of the user and key, obviously). So clearly this code is doing something, since it's replacing the defaults with None (all of the properties have a default value set), but not at all what I want. Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • ADO/SQL Server: What is the error code for "timeout expired"?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm trying to trap a "timeout expired" error from ADO. When a timeout happens, ADO returns: Number: 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h) SQLState: HYT00 NativeError: 0 The NativeError of zero makes sense, since the timeout is not a function of the database engine (i.e. SQL Server), but of ADO's internal timeout mechanism. The Number (i.e. the COM hresult) looks useful, but the definition of DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h says: Execution stopped because a resource limit was reached. No results were returned. This error could apply to things besides "timeout expired" (some potentially server-side), such as a governor that limits: CPU usage I/O reads/writes network bandwidth and stops a query. The final useful piece is SQLState, which is a database-independent error code system. Unfortunately the only reference for SQLState error codes i can find have no mention of HYT00. What to do? What do do? Note: i can't trust 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED) to mean "timeout expired", anymore than i could trust 0x80004005 (E_UNSPECIFIED_ERROR) to mean "Transaction was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim". My pseudo-question becomes: does anyone have documentation on what the SQLState "HYT000" means? And my real question still remains: How can i specifically trap an ADO timeout expired exception thrown by ADO? Gotta love the questions where the developer is trying to "do the right thing", but nobody knows how to do the right thing. Also gotta love how googling for DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED and this question is #9, with MSDN nowhere to be found. Update 3 From the OLEdb ICommand.Execute reference: DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED Execution has been aborted because a resource limit has been reached. For example, a query timed out. No results have been returned. "For example", meaning not an exhaustive list.

    Read the article

  • Are short tags *that* bad?

    - by Col. Shrapnel
    Everyone here on SO says it's bad, for 3 main reasons: XML is used everywhere You can't control where your script is going to be run short tags are going to be removed in PHP6 But let's see closer at them: Last one is easy - it's just not true. XML is not really a problem. If you want to use short tags, it won't be a problem for you to write a single tag using PHP echo, <?="<?XML...?>"?>. Anyway, why not to leave such a trifle thing for one's own judgment? PHP configuration access. Oh yes, the only thing that can be really considered as a reason. Of course in case you plan to spread your code wide. But if you don't? I think most of scripts being written not for the wide spread, but just for one place. If you can use short tags in that place - why to abandon them? Anyway, it's the only template we are talking about. If you don't like short tags, PHP native template is probably not for you, why not to try Smarty then? Well, the question is: is there any other real reasons to abandon short tags and make it strict recommendation? Or, as it was said, better to leave short tags alone?

    Read the article

  • Define DataSource bean on code

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I would like to make a "First Access Database Setup Process" in my spring application and the only thing I can imagine as a solution would be to initialize the DataSource bean programatically. My current bean is defined as: <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/catalog" /> <property name="username" value="condominium" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="validationQuery" value="SELECT 1" /> <property name="testOnBorrow" value="true" /> <property name="defaultAutoCommit" value="false" /> <property name="maxWait" value="5000" /> </bean> but the ideal thing was to load it by myself in whenever I need it and with the parameter I define. The scenario is that the user (administrator) comes to the application at the first time and I ask him the server, port and catalog to connect. I store it in a embeeded db and next time application start, a bean can check if the parameter are set on the embedded db and load it again. Is it possible?

    Read the article

  • System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization Namespace Fine in One Class but Not in Another

    - by jxpx777
    Hi. I'm getting this error The type or namespace name 'DataVisualization' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Windows.Forms' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Here is my using section of the class: using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Borders3D; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartTypes; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Data; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Formulas; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Utilities; namespace myNamespace { public class myClass { // Usual class stuff } } The thing is that I am using the same DataVisualization includes in another class. The only thing that I can think that is different is that the classes that are giving this missing namespace error are Solution Items rather than specific to a project. The projects reference them by link. Anyone have thoughts on what the problem is? I've installed the chart component, .Net 3.5 SP1, and the Chart Add-in for Visual Studio 2008. UPDATE: I moved the items from Solution Items to be regular members of my project and I'm still seeing the same behavior. UPDATE 2: Removing the items from the Solution Items and placing them under my project worked. Another project was still referencing the files which is why I didn't think it worked previously. I'm still curious, though, why I couldn't use the namespace when the classes were Solution Items but moving them underneath a project (with no modifications, mind you) instantly made them recognizable. :\

    Read the article

  • WCF service returns error 500 on /js request

    - by Cine
    I have a wcf service that randomly begins to fail when requesting the autogenerated javascript that wcf supports making. But I have no luck tracking down why. The js thing is part of the wcf featureset, so I dont know how it can suddenly begin to fail and be unable to work until IIS is recycled. The http log gives me: 2010-06-10 09:11:49 W3SVC2095255988 myip GET /path/myservice.svc/js _=1276161113900 80 - ip browser 500 0 0 So its an error 500, and that is about the only thing I can figure out. The event log contains no information. Requests to /path/myservice.svc works just fine. After recycling IIS it works again, and some days later it begins to fail until I recycle IIS. <service name="path.myservice" behaviorConfiguration="b"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="eb" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="path.Imyservice" /> </service> ... <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="eb"> <enableWebScript /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="b"> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> I dont see any problems in the web.config settings either. Any clues how I can track down what the problem is?

    Read the article

  • What's your most controversial programming opinion?

    - by Jon Skeet
    This is definitely subjective, but I'd like to try to avoid it becoming argumentative. I think it could be an interesting question if people treat it appropriately. The idea for this question came from the comment thread from my answer to the "What are five things you hate about your favorite language?" question. I contended that classes in C# should be sealed by default - I won't put my reasoning in the question, but I might write a fuller explanation as an answer to this question. I was surprised at the heat of the discussion in the comments (25 comments currently). So, what contentious opinions do you hold? I'd rather avoid the kind of thing which ends up being pretty religious with relatively little basis (e.g. brace placing) but examples might include things like "unit testing isn't actually terribly helpful" or "public fields are okay really". The important thing (to me, anyway) is that you've got reasons behind your opinions. Please present your opinion and reasoning - I would encourage people to vote for opinions which are well-argued and interesting, whether or not you happen to agree with them.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

    - by Michael Steele
    problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

    Read the article

  • Why does presentModalViewController not always work?

    - by E-Madd
    My application requires data from a server in order to run. The first thing it does is displays a view controller (LoadingViewController) that is responsible for checking if the data is saved to my PersistentStoreCoordinator. If the data isn't cached locally, it gets it from my server and caches it, and posts a notification that the LoadingViewController is listening for. When that notification comes through, LoadingViewController presents the application's MainViewController using the presentModalViewController with a flip animation. So far, so good... no errors. However, if the application loads and determines the data IS cached - the presentModalViewController does not work and the main application view never appears. No errors. I've even gone as far as adding a button to the Loading view that executes the same code when pressed and the damn thing works. I'm suspicious it has something to do with the timing of it all but I'm clueless as to what I can do to ensure the view is displayed with that flipping animation if the data is already cached locally. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • findViewById returns null in new Intent

    - by drozzy
    I am having a problem where in the started Intent, the findViewById returns null. Is there anything special I should know about starting a new intent? It goes something like this for me: //in the MainList class Intent stuffList = new Intent(this, StuffList.class); then in the new Stuff's constructor: public class StuffList extends ListActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); this.setContentView(R.layout.stuff_list); ... this.setListAdapter(new StuffAdapter(this, my_cursor)); and in the StuffAdapter I do my usual view and data retrieval. Note the line where findViewById returns null: class ViewWrapper{ View base; TextView label = null; ViewWrapper(View base){ this.base = base; } TextView getLabel(){ if(label == null){ label = (TextView)base.findViewById(R.id.my_label); // returns NULL } return label;} } class StuffAdapter extends CursorAdapter{ StuffAdapter(Context context, Cursor cursor){ super(context, cursor); } @Override public View newView(Context context, Cursor cursor, ViewGroup parent) { LayoutInflater inflater = getLayoutInflater(); View row = inflater.inflate(R.layout.stuff_list, parent, false); ViewWrapper wrapper = new ViewWrapper(row); row.setTag(wrapper); return(row); } @Override public void bindView(View row, Context context, Cursor cursor) { ViewWrapper wrapper = (ViewWrapper)row.getTag(); TextView label = wrapper.getLabel(); // also NULL //this throws exception of course label.setText(cursor.getString("title")); } } The curious thing is that in the class that calls intent (MainList class), I do Exactly the same thing (i list a bunch of objects), and it Works! however when I try to do it in an Intent - it can't seem to find the view by id.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86  | Next Page >