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  • activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

    - by Ameya Savale
    I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

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  • Class unloading in java

    - by java_geek
    When a classloader is garbage collected, are the classes loaded by it unloaded? When the JVM is running is verbose mode, all the loaded classes are o/p. Similarly will the JVM log when it unloads a class? I wrote a custom class loader to test this, but could not see any verbose log for unloading of the classes. CustomClassLoader loader = new CustomClassLoader(new URL[]{}, CustomClassLoader.class.getClassLoader()); loader.addURL("D:\workspace\ClassLoaderTest\implementation.jar"); Class c = null; try { c = Class.forName("Horse",false,loader); if (c != null) { try { Animal animal = (Animal)c.newInstance(); animal.eat(); } catch(Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } loader = null; byte[] b = new byte[58*1024*1024]; System.gc(); ClassLoadingMXBean clBean = ManagementFactory.getClassLoadingMXBean(); System.out.println("Number of classes currently loaded " + clBean.getLoadedClassCount()); System.out.println("Number of classes loaded totally " + clBean.getTotalLoadedClassCount()); System.out.println("Number of classes unloaded " + clBean.getUnloadedClassCount()); Even the ClassLoadingMXBean gives number of unloaded classes as 0. How can i know that a class is unloaded when the class loader is GCed?

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  • Debugging a Google Web Toolkit application that has an error when deployed on Google App Engine

    - by gerdemb
    I have a Google Web Toolkit application that I am deploying to Google App Engine. In the deployed application, I am getting a JavaScript error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'f' of null. This sounds like the JavaScript equivalent of a Java NullPointerException. The problem is that the GWT JavaScript is obfuscated, so it's impossible to debug in the browser and I can't reproduce the same problem in hosted mode where I could use the Java debugger. I think the reason I'm only seeing the error on the deployed application is that the database I'm using on the GAE server is triggering something differently than the test database I'm using during testing and development. So, any ideas about the best way to proceed? I've thought of the following things: Deploy a non-obsfucated version of my application. Despite a lot of Googling, I can't figure out how to do this using the automatic deploy script provided with the Google Eclipse Plugin. Does anyone know? Download and copy my GAE data to the local server Somehow point my development code to use the GAE server for data instead of the local test database. This seems like the best idea... Can anyone suggest how to proceed here? Finally, is there a way to catch these JavaScript errors on the production server and log them somewhere? Without logging, I won't have anyway to know if my users are having errors that don't occur on the server. The GWT.log() function is automatically stripped out of the production code...

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  • The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context [...] for 60 seconds

    - by BlueRaja The Green Unicorn
    I am getting this error on code that used to work. I have not changed the code. Here is the full error: The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x3322d98 to COM context 0x3322f08 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. And here is the code that caused it: var openFileDialog1 = new System.Windows.Forms.OpenFileDialog(); openFileDialog1.DefaultExt = "mdb"; openFileDialog1.Filter = "Management Database (manage.mdb)|manage.mdb"; //Stalls indefinitely on the following line, then gives the CLR error //one minute later. The dialog never opens. if(openFileDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { .... } Yes, I am sure the dialog is not open in the background, and no, I don't have any explicit COM code or unmanaged marshalling or multithreading. I have no idea why the OpenFileDialog won't open - any ideas?

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  • Asp.net Web Site Administration Tool with SqlCeMembership

    - by Riderman de Sousa Barbosa
    I am developing an application in MVC 3. I installed this provider via Nuget . Basically, it allows to use any part of memberships, rules and profiles with a .sdf (compact) database. I need the "Web Site Administration Tool" use this provider. But I can not use it. Already checked the web.config and everything is ok. When I open the "Web Site Administration Tool" on the Security I click test (any provider) and the error happens. The following images. Error when clicking test "Could not establish a connection to the database. If you have not yet created the SQL Server database, exit the Web Site Administration tool, use the aspnet_regsql command-line utility to create and configure the database, and then return to this tool to set the provider." Here part of my web.config <authentication mode="Forms" /> <membership> <providers> <add connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" writeExceptionsToEventLog="false" name="SqlCeMembershipProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeMembershipProvider, ErikEJ.SqlCeMembership" /> </providers> </membership> <profile enabled="false"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="SqlCeProfileProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeProfileProvider" connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> </profile> <roleManager> <providers> <add connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" writeExceptionsToEventLog="false" name="SqlCeRoleProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeRoleProvider, ErikEJ.SqlCeMembership" /> </providers> </roleManager> <connectionStrings> <add name="SqlCeServices" connectionString="data source=|DataDirectory|\SqlCeAspnetdb.sdf" /> </connectionStrings>

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  • Want to display a 3D model on the iPhone: how to get started?

    - by JeremyReimer
    I want to display and rotate a single 3D model, preferably textured, on the iPhone. Doesn't have to zoom in and out, or have a background, or anything. I have the following: an iPhone a MacBook the iPhone SDK Blender My knowledge base: I can make 3D models in various 3D programs (I'm most comfortable with 3D Studio Max, which I once took a course on, but I've used others) General knowledge of procedural programming from years ago (QuickBasic - I'm old!) Beginner's knowledge of object-oriented programming from going through simple Java and C# tutorials (Head Start C# book and my wife's intro to OOP course that used Java) I have managed to display a 3D textured model and spin it using a tutorial in C# I got off the net (I didn't just copy and paste, I understand basically how it works) and the XNA game development library, using Visual Studio on Windows. What I do not know: Much about Objective C Anything about OpenGL or OpenGL ES, which the iPhone apparently uses Anything about XCode My main problem is that I don't know where to start! All the iPhone books I found seem to be about creating GUI applications, not OpenGL apps. I found an OpenGL book but I don't know how much, if any, applies to iPhone development. And I find the Objective C syntax somewhat confusing, with the weird nested method naming, things like "id" that don't make sense, and the scary thought that I have to do manual memory management. Where is the best place to start? I couldn't find any tutorials for this sort of thing, but maybe my Google-Fu is weak. Or maybe I should start with learning Objective C? I know of books like Aaron Hillgrass', but I've also read that they are outdated and much of the sample code doesn't work on the iPhone SDK, plus it seems geared towards the Model-View-Controller paradigm which doesn't seem that suited for 3D apps. Basically I'm confused about what my first steps should be.

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  • Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

    - by swmi
    Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

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  • Tools to document/visualize call graph?

    - by Dave Griffiths
    Hi, having recently joined a project with a vast amount of code to get to grips with, I would like to start documenting and visualizing some of the flows through the call graph to give me a better understanding of how everything fits together. This is what I would like to see in my ideal tool: every node is a function/method nodes are connected if one function can call another optional square box in between detailing conditions under which call is made (or a label icon you can hover over like a tooltip) also icon on edge describing parameters hover over node and description is displayed optional icons for node to display pseudo code scenario/domain view - display subset of complete diagram for particular use-case slide view mode - for each frame, the currently executing function is highlighted plenty of options over what to display to reduce on-screen clutter the interactive use of such a tool is key, I'm not looking for a Graphviz type solution because there would be too much clutter. The ability to form a view of a subset of the entire graph would be very handy (maybe with the unimportant clutter greyed out). Don't need automatic generation from source code, happy to enter it manually. Almost like a mind-map. Does that make sense? If you are not aware of such a tool, do you also think it would be useful? (Just in case I decide to go and scratch that itch one day!)

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  • Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

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  • Drawbacks with using Class Methods in Objective C.

    - by RickiG
    Hi I was wondering if there are any memory/performance drawbacks, or just drawbacks in general, with using Class Methods like: + (void)myClassMethod:(NSString *)param { // much to be done... } or + (NSArray*)myClassMethod:(NSString *)param { // much to be done... return [NSArray autorelease]; } It is convenient placing a lot of functionality in Class Methods, especially in an environment where I have to deal with memory management(iPhone), but there is usually a catch when something is convenient? An example could be a thought up Web Service that consisted of a lot of classes with very simple functionality. i.e. TomorrowsXMLResults; TodaysXMLResults; YesterdaysXMLResults; MondaysXMLResults; TuesdaysXMLResults; . . . n I collect a ton of these in my Web Service Class and just instantiate the web service class and let methods on this class call Class Methods on the 'Results' Classes. The classes are simple but they handle large amount of Xml, instantiate lots of objects etc. I guess I am asking if Class Methods lives or are treated different on the stack and in memory than messages to instantiated objects? Or are they just instantiated and pulled down again behind the scenes and thus, just a way of saving a few lines of code?

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  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

    - by ray247
    Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

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  • Multiple websites, Single sign-on design

    - by Yannis
    Hi all, I have a question. A client I have been doing some work recently has a range of websites with different login mechanisms. He is looking to slowly migrate to a single sign-on mechanism for his websites (all written in asp.net mvc). I am looking at my options here, so here is a list of requirements: 1) It has to be secure (duh) 2) It needs to support extra user properties over and above the usual name, address stuff (such as money or credits for a user) 3) It has to provide a centralized user management web console for his convenience (I understand that this will be a small project on top of whatever design solution I choose to go for) 4) It has to integrate with the existing websites without re-engineering the whole product (I understand that this depends on the current product implementation). 5) It has to deal with emailing the user when he registers (in order for him to activate his account) 6) It has to deal with activating the user when he clicks the activate me link in the email (I understand that 5 and 6 require some form of email templating system to support different emails per application) I was thinking of creating a library working together with forms authentication that exposes whatever methods are required (e.g. login, logout, activate, etc. and a small restful service to implement activation from email, registration processing etc. Taking into account that loads of things have been left out to make this question brief and to the point, does this sound like a good design? But this looks like a very common problem so arent there any existing projects that I could use? Thanks for reading.

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  • MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

    - by giveme5minutes
    I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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  • JSmooth question on bundling a JRE

    - by chama
    I'm trying to bundle a JRE with my jar file so that I can run my application on any windows computer, regardless of if it has Java or not. The jsmooth manual says: For the option to work correctly, you have to put a JRE in a directory near the EXE (generally in a subdirectory called "jre" or whatever). Once the exe is generated, it will FIRST try to locate the JRE at the location mentioned. If it can't be found there, then it will fallback in the normal jre look-up mode (search for a jre or a jdk in the Windows registry or in commonly-used environment variables). There is no JVM-version check when using a bundled JRE, as the packager is supposed to bundle a suitable JVM for the application. Does this mean that the jre subfolder should be included in the jar, be its own separate jar, or put in the folder that comes along with the exe? If it is supposed to be in a folder with the exe, how can I specify the relative path to the jre subfolder? My directories are as follows: setup/ -jre/ -myprogram.exe I tried using ..\jre, .\jre, ..\setup\jre in the GUI screen, but none of them worked. Any ideas or leads would be greatly appreciated. Thanks so much! EDIT: when I tried jre (and ..\jre I think), I got the following error message from windows when I tried running it "MyProgram.exe has stopped running." When I look at the problem details, it says APPCRASH and the fault module name is jvm.dll

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  • How can I change the visibility of elements inside a DataTemplate when a row is selected in a Silver

    - by miketrash
    I'm using the MVVM pattern. I've bound my items and I want to only show the edit button when a row is selected in the datagrid. It appears to be possible with triggers in WPF but we don't have triggers in Silverlight. I tried a TemplatedParent binding but I'm not sure what the TemplatedParent is in this case. We don't have RelativeSource ancestor in Silverlight either. At this point I'm going to look at a solution using the code behind... <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn IsReadOnly="True" Header="Name" Width="300"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock x:Name="textBlock" Text="{Binding Name, Mode=OneWay}" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="4,4,0,4"/> <Button Margin="1,1,4,1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Padding="7,4" Content="Edit" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns>

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  • How to use Hibernate SchemaUpdate class with a JPA persistence.xml?

    - by John Rizzo
    I've a main method using SchemaUpdate to display at the console what tables to alter/create and it works fine in my Hibernate project: public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { //first we prepare the configuration Properties hibProps = new Properties(); hibProps.load(Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader().getResourceAsStream("jbbconfigs.properties")); Configuration cfg = new AnnotationConfiguration(); cfg.configure("/hibernate.cfg.xml").addProperties(hibProps); //We create the SchemaUpdate thanks to the configs SchemaUpdate schemaUpdate = new SchemaUpdate(cfg); //The update is executed in script mode only schemaUpdate.execute(true, false); ... I'd like to reuse this code in a JPA project, having no hibernate.cfg.xml file (and no .properties file), but a persistence.xml file (autodetected in the META-INF directory as specified by the JPA spec). I tried this too simple adaptation, Configuration cfg = new AnnotationConfiguration(); cfg.configure(); but it failed with that exception. Exception in thread "main" org.hibernate.HibernateException: /hibernate.cfg.xml not found Has anybody done that? Thanks.

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  • How to manage data access / preloading efficiently using web services in C# ?

    - by Amadeus45
    Hello all, Ok, this is very "generic" question. We currently have a SQL Server database for which we need to develop an application in ASP.NET with will contain all the business logic in C# Web Services. The thing is that, architecturally speaking, I'm not sure how to design the web service and the data management. There are many things to consider : We need have very rapid access to data. Right now, we have over a million "sales" and "purchases" record from which we need to often calculate and load the current stock for a given day according to a serie of parameter. I'm not sure how we should preload the data and keep the data in the Web Service. Doing a stock calculation within a SQL query will be very lengthy. They currently have a stock calculation application that preloads all sales and purchases for the day and afterwards calculate the stock on the code-side. We want to develop powerful reporting tools. We want to implement a "pivot table" but not sure how to implement it and have good performances. For the reasons above, I'm not sure how to design the data model. Anybody can give me any guidelines on how to start, or from their personnal experiences (what have you done in the past ?) I'm not sure if it's possible to make a bounty even though the question is new (I'd put 300 rep on it, since I really need something). If you know how, let me know. Thanks

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  • Accessing we.config from Sharepoint web part

    - by philj
    I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTime FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

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  • relative url in wcf service binding

    - by Jeremy
    I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

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  • Can't access resource from Generic.xaml within the Custom Control constructor.

    - by myermian
    I'm not sure why this is doing this, but I can't access the resource from within my constructor. XTabItem.cs using System; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Media; namespace MyStuff { public class XTabItem : TabItem { public static readonly DependencyProperty XTabItemNormalBackgroundProperty; /// <summary> /// Visual Property: Normal Background /// </summary> [Description("Determines the visibility of the close button."), Category("XTabItem Visual")] public Brush XTabItemNormalBackground { get { return (Brush)GetValue(XTabItemNormalBackgroundProperty); } set { SetValue(XTabItemNormalBackgroundProperty, value); } } static XTabItem() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(XTabItem), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(XTabItem))); XTabItemNormalBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("XTabItemNormalBackground", typeof(Brush), typeof(XTabItem), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); } public XTabItem() { //XTabItemNormalBackground = (Brush)this.TryFindResource("XTabItemNormalBackgroundBrush"); //THIS DOES NOT WORK?? } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); } } } Generic.xaml <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:MyStuff" xmlns:con="clr-namespace:MyStuff.Converters" > <SolidColorBrush x:Key="XTabItemNormalBackgroundBrush" Color="BlueViolet" /> <Style TargetType="{x:Type local:XTabItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type local:XTabItem}"> <!-- CONTENT TEMPLATE --> <Grid SnapsToDevicePixels="True"> <Border x:Name="_Border" Background="{Binding Path=XTabItemNormalBackground, RelativeSource={RelativeSource Mode=TemplatedParent}}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="1,1,1,0"> ... </Border> </Grid> </Style> </ResourceDictionary>

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • Fitting title for my position

    - by lithander
    In the last 2 years my company has developed a boxed and full-price computer game. All the software development has been done collaboratively by me and my co-developer. We know each other from university and got hired at the same day to equal conditions and we share the same responsibilites including the decisions of what technology to license and how to spend development resources and even how team-workflow is organized. But I struggle to find the correct wording for my position. Can I call myself a senior developer with only 3 years working-experience? Can I call myself lead programmer if I don't really have a team to "lead"? All these fancy names used in the industry (Technical Lead, Development Lead, Software Architect) seem to imply that you aren't actually coding anymore or have staff under you. On the other hand titles like "Programmer" or "Software Engineer" seem to imply that there's someone between you and the project management. That makes it hard to fill out a resume or even the badges you typically wear on conferences... people tend to judge you by your title and I'd like to avoid confusion where possible.

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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  • how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

    - by praksant
    Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

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