Search Results

Search found 23265 results on 931 pages for 'justin case'.

Page 794/931 | < Previous Page | 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798 799 800 801  | Next Page >

• Modeling Buyers & Sellers in a Rails Ecommerce App

  - by MikeH

  I'm building a Rails app that has Etsy.com style functionality. In other words, it's like a mall. There are many buyers and many sellers. I'm torn about how to model the sellers. Key facts: There won't be many sellers. Perhaps less than 20 sellers in total. There will be many buyers. Hopefully many thousands :) I already have a standard user model in place with account creation and roles. I've created a 'role' of 'seller', which the admin will manually apply to the proper users. Since we'll have very few sellers, this is not an issue. I'm considering two approaches: (1) Create a 'store' model, which will contain all the relevant store information. Products would :belong_to :store, rather than belonging to the seller. The relationship between the user and store models would be: user :has_one store. My main problem with this is that I've always found has_one associations to be a little funky, and I usually try to avoid them. The app is fairly complex, and I'm worried about running into a cascade of problems connected to the has_one association as I get further along into development. (2) Simply include the relevant 'store' information as part of the user model. But in this case, the store-related db columns would only apply to a very small percentage of users since very few users will also be sellers. I'm not sure if this is a valid concern or not. It's very possible that I'm thinking about this incorrectly. I appreciate any thoughts. Thanks.

  Read the article

• A better solution than element.Elements("Whatever").First()?

  - by codeka

  I have an XML file like this: <SiteConfig> <Sites> <Site Identifier="a" /> <Site Identifier="b" /> <Site Identifier="c" /> </Sites> </SiteConfig> The file is user-editable, so I want to provide reasonable error message in case I can't properly parse it. I could probably write a .xsd for it, but that seems kind of overkill for a simple file. So anyway, when querying for the list of <Site> nodes, there's a couple of ways I could do it: var doc = XDocument.Load(...); var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Element("SiteConfig").Element("SiteUrls").Elements("Sites") select siteNode; But the problem with this is that if the user has not included the <SiteUrls> node (say) it'll just throw a NullReferenceException which doesn't really say much to the user about what actually went wrong. Another possibility is just to use Elements() everywhere instead of Element(), but that doesn't always work out when coupled with calls to Attribute(), for example, in the following situation: var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Elements("SiteConfig") .Elements("SiteUrls") .Elements("Sites") where siteNode.Attribute("Identifier").Value == "a" select siteNode; (That is, there's no equivalent to Attributes("xxx").Value) Is there something built-in to the framework to handle this situation a little better? What I would prefer is a version of Element() (and of Attribute() while we're at it) that throws a descriptive exception (e.g. "Looking for element <xyz> under <abc> but no such element was found") instead of returning null. I could write my own version of Element() and Attribute() but it just seems to me like this is such a common scenario that I must be missing something...

  Read the article

• Calling a network State check from other activities

  - by Laurent

  I realize this question has been answered before but couldn't find an answer that deals with my specific case. I want to create a class called "InternetConnectionChecks" that will handle checking a network state and http timeouts. I'll call the methods twice in the app (once at the beginning to get data from a server, and once at the end to send user orders to the server). For good form I'd like to put all these methods in a single class rather than copy/paste at different points in my code. To check the network state, I'm using ConnectivityManager; thing is, getSystemService requires a class that extends Activity. package arbuckle.app; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.Service; import android.content.Context; import android.net.ConnectivityManager; import android.net.NetworkInfo; public class InternetConnectionChecks extends Activity { public boolean isNetworkAvailable(){ ConnectivityManager connectivityManager = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); NetworkInfo activeNetworkInfo = connectivityManager.getActiveNetworkInfo(); if ((activeNetworkInfo != null)&&(activeNetworkInfo.isConnected())){ return true; }else{ return false; } } } QUESTION: if I call the method isNetworkAvailable from another activity, am I: - going to hit up serious errors. - violating good coding form? *If this isn't the right way to do things, can you point me in the right direction to set up a separate class I can call on to check internet connection? Thanks everyone!

  Read the article

• Getting a stream back from a .Net remoting service that is accessible with IP v4 and v6

  - by jon.ediger

  My company has an existing .Net Remoting service that listens on a port, fronting interfaces used by external systems. This all works great with IP v4 based communications. However, this service now needs to support both IP v4 communications and IP v6 communications. I have found info that the system.runtime.remoting section of the app.config should include two channels as follows: <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp6" port="9000" bindTo="[::]" /> <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp4" port="9000" bindTo="0.0.0.0" /> The above config file changes to the System.Runtime.Remoting config section will get the remoting service responding to non-stream functions on both ip v4 and ip v6. The issue comes only when attempting to get a stream back, used to upload or download large files. In this case, instead of getting a usable stream back, the following ArgumentException is thrown instead: IPv4 address 0.0.0.0 and IPv6 address ::0 are unspecified addresses that cannot be used as a target address. Parameter name: hostNameOrAddress Is there a way to modify the app.config (in the system.runtime.remoting section, or another section) so that the service will return a stream mapped to a real ip so the client can actually upload/download files while maintaining the ability to use both IP v4 and IP v6?

  Read the article

• Render different view depending on the type of the data

  - by Miau

  Hi there So lets suppose we have an action in a controller that looks a bit like this: public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); ... //create new view model based on the data here return View(viewModel); } What I m trying to figure out is the best way to render a diferent view based on the type fo the data. the "_someService.GetData method returns an data that knows its out type (ie not only you can do typeof(data) but also you can do data.DataType and you ll get an enum value so I could achieve what I m trying to do doing something kinda like this public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); //I m mapping fields to the viewModel here var viewModel = GetViewModel(data); swtich(data.DataType) case DataType.TypeOne: return View("TypeOne", viewModel); break; ... } But this does not seem to be the nicest way, (I dont event know if it would work) Is this the way to go? Should I use some sort of RenderPartial Aproach? after all , waht will change in the view is mostly the order of the data (ie the rest of the view would be quite similar) Cheers

  Read the article

• How to style "form" field labels in Windows Phone 7?

  - by Jeremy Bell

  Is there any standards guidance on how to style field labels next to form fields in windows phone 7 silverlight applications? For example, let's say I have a StackPanel with the TextBlock label and a TextBox for data entry. Currently I am using the default TextBlock Margin included in the PhoneTextSubtleStyle ("12,0,12,0"), and using a Margin of "0,-12,0,0" to push the TextBox up closer to the label: <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" Text="Name" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextSubtleStyle}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding ItemName, Mode=TwoWay}" TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="433" Margin="0,-12,0,0" /> </StackPanel> Note that the TextBox seems to have some internal padding of 12 pixels to the left and right, so that the TextBlock label and the TextBox control visually line up perfectly on the left. The problem is, I see existing apps with widely varying conventions for field label styling. Some do not do the negative margin adjustment, like I have above. Some don't. Some appear to override the label TextBlock Margin so that it is indented an additional 12 pixels on the left (i.e. "24,0,12,0" instead of the default "12,0,12,0"). Some apps put the labels to the left of the fields themselves (I hate that). Is there some standard design guidance on field labels in Windows Phone 7? I read through the design template PDF and could only determine that the field labels should be upper case on the first word (preferably only one word labels), and should NOT have a colon at the end. I didn't see anything with regards to margins or alignment between the label and the field.

  Read the article

• What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

  - by priehl

  I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• how to delete a line from file using awk filtered by some string

  - by embedded

  I have a file delimited by space. I need to write an awk command that receives a host name argument and it should replace the host name if it already defined in the file. It must be a full match not partially - if the file contains this host name: localhost searching for "ho" will fail and it will be added to the end of the file. another option is a delete: again awk receives host name argument and it should remove it from the file if exists. This is what I have so far: (It needs some enhancements) if [ "$DELETE_FLAG" == "" ]; then # In this case the entry should be added or updated # if clause deals with updating an existing entry # END clause deals with adding a new entry awk -F"[ ]" "BEGIN { found = 0;} \ { \ if ($2 == $HOST_NAME) { \ print \"$IP_ADDRESS $HOST_NAME\"; \ found = 1; \ } else { \ print \$0; \ } \ } \ END { \ if (found == 0) { \ print \"$IP_ADDRESS $HOST_NAME\"; } \ } " \ /etc/hosts > /etc/temp_hosts else # Delete an existing entry awk -F'[ ]' '{if($2 != $HOST_NAME) { print $0} }' /etc/hosts > /etc/temp_hosts fi Thanks

  Read the article

• object references an unsaved transient instance

  - by developer

  Hi, I have 2 tables, user and userprofile, both with almost identical fields. user table references userprofile table by primary key ID. My requirement is that on click of a button I need to dump user table record to userprofile table. Now for a particular user table, if there is a corresponding userprofile entry, I am successfully able to dump the data, but if there is no record in userprofile table then I need to create a new record by dumping all the data. My problem is that I am able to update the data when the record is present in userprofile table, but in the case wherein I have to create a new record I get the below error "object references an unsaved transient instance - save the transient instance before flushing". `<class name="User"> <id name="ID" type="Int32"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Pid" class="UserProfile" /> </class>` UserProfile is another table and Pid above references the Primary key ID of UserProfile table.

  Read the article

• Retrieving friend's likes from the Facebook Graph API

  - by Joe Frank

  Howdy- I have been tooling around with the Facebook Graph API and successfully retrieved back a list of my likes, and a list of my friends (once I authenticated using OAuth). But what I really want to achieve is pulling back my friend's likes. When I try and do that, obviously using the same URL that I use to pull back my own likes but subbing the friend's user id for "me", I don't get anything back, unless they have installed the app as well. Then I get them no problem. To be clear, I can only see the likes of friends who have installed my application. So clearly I am running into a security/rights issue of some sort. I could see where this would be the case; you simply aren't allowed to see your friend's likes unless they have installed the same app. Fair enough, but then how is blekko.com doing it? I even tried using FQL without much luck. I suspect I am missing something totally obvious. Anyone had any luck with this? Maybe with the Javascript API or one of the other access methods? Thanks in advance for any guidance.

  Read the article

• Not Understanding Basics Of Dynamic DataBinding (bindPropety) In Flex

  - by Joshua

  I need to dynamically bind properties of components created at runtime. In this particular case please assume I need to use bindProperty. I don't quite understand why the following simplistic test is failing (see code). When I click the button, the label text does not change. I realize that there are simpler ways to go about this particular example using traditional non-dynamic binding, but I need to understand it in terms of using bindProperty. Can someone please help me understand what I'm missing? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" xmlns:ns1="Tools.*" minWidth="684" minHeight="484" xmlns:ns2="*" creationComplete="Init();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.binding.utils.*; public var Available:ArrayCollection=new ArrayCollection(); public function get Value():String { return (Available.getItemAt(0).toString()); } public function Init():void { Available.addItemAt('Before', 0); BindingUtils.bindProperty(Lab, 'text', this, 'Value'); } public function Test():void { Available.setItemAt('After', 0); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Label x="142" y="51" id="Lab"/> <mx:Button x="142" y="157" label="Button" click="Test();"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• How to strengthen Mysql database server Security?

  - by i need help

  If we were to use server1 for all files (file server), server2 for mysql database (database server). In order for websites in server1 to access to the database in server2, isn't it needed to connect to to ip address of second (mysql server) ? In this case, is remote mysql connection. However, I seen from some people comment on the security issue. remote access to MySQL is not very secure. When your remote computer first connects to your MySQL database, the password is encrypted before being transmitted over the Internet. But after that, all data is passed as unencrypted "plain text". If someone was able to view your connection data (such as a "hacker" capturing data from an unencrypted WiFi connection you're using), that person would be able to view part or all of your database. So I just wondering ways to secure it? Allow remote mysql access from server1 by allowing the static ip adress allow remote access from server 1 by setting port allowed to connect to 3306 change 3306 to other port? Any advice?

  Read the article

• Python: why can't descriptors be instance variables?

  - by Continuation

  Say I define this descriptor: class MyDescriptor(object): def __get__(self, instance, owner): return self._value def __set__(self, instance, value): self._value = value def __delete__(self, instance): del(self._value) And I use it in this: class MyClass1(object): value = MyDescriptor() >>> m1 = MyClass1() >>> m1.value = 1 >>> m2 = MyClass1() >>> m2.value = 2 >>> m1.value 2 So value is a class attribute and is shared by all instances. Now if I define this: class MyClass2(object) value = 1 >>> y1 = MyClass2() >>> y1.value=1 >>> y2 = MyClass2() >>> y2.value=2 >>> y1.value 1 In this case value is an instance attribute and is not shared by the instances. Why is it that when value is a descriptor it can only be a class attribute, but when value is a simple integer it becomes an instance attribute?

  Read the article

• What is the optimal way to animate a drawable within a view using the animator classes?

  - by littleFluffyKitty

  I have read about Property Animation and Hardware Acceleration but I am still uncertain what is the most efficient way to use the animator classes. (For the sake of this question I don't need to support devices before Honeycomb. So I want to use the animator classes.) For example, say I have a View. In this view I have a BitmapDrawable that I want to fade in. There are also many other elements within the view that won't change. What property or object would be best to use with the animator? The drawable? A paint that I am drawing the bitmap with in onDraw? Something else? How can this be done to be most efficient with hardware acceleration? Will this require calling invalidate for each step of the animation or is there a way to animate just the drawable and not cause the rest of the view to be redrawn completely for each step of the animation? I guess I imagine an optimal case would be the rest of the view not having to be completely redrawn in software, but rather hardware acceleration efficiently fading the drawable. Any suggestions or pointers to recommended approaches? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Does the Java Memory Model (JSR-133) imply that entering a monitor flushes the CPU data cache(s)?

  - by Durandal

  There is something that bugs me with the Java memory model (if i even understand everything correctly). If there are two threads A and B, there are no guarantees that B will ever see a value written by A, unless both A and B synchronize on the same monitor. For any system architecture that guarantees cache coherency between threads, there is no problem. But if the architecture does not support cache coherency in hardware, this essentially means that whenever a thread enters a monitor, all memory changes made before must be commited to main memory, and the cache must be invalidated. And it needs to be the entire data cache, not just a few lines, since the monitor has no information which variables in memory it guards. But that would surely impact performance of any application that needs to synchronize frequently (especially things like job queues with short running jobs). So can Java work reasonably well on architectures without hardware cache-coherency? If not, why doesn't the memory model make stronger guarantees about visibility? Wouldn't it be more efficient if the language would require information what is guarded by a monitor? As i see it the memory model gives us the worst of both worlds, the absolute need to synchronize, even if cache coherency is guaranteed in hardware, and on the other hand bad performance on incoherent architectures (full cache flushes). So shouldn't it be more strict (require information what is guarded by a monitor) or more lose and restrict potential platforms to cache-coherent architectures? As it is now, it doesn't make too much sense to me. Can somebody clear up why this specific memory model was choosen? EDIT: My use of strict and lose was a bad choice in retrospect. I used "strict" for the case where less guarantees are made and "lose" for the opposite. To avoid confusion, its probably better to speak in terms of stronger or weaker guarantees.

  Read the article

• Preview of code-only WPF controls in VS2010 - how?

  - by Christian

  Hi, I hope I am able to illustrate the problem using a lot of images. First of all, I was no real fan of XAML (Silverlight issues, crashes in Preview, and so on...) Now, with VS2010 the situation has become better. There are still a lot of things I like better in code, but I also want a preview in my VS. So, take a look at the following control: It is really simple, a todo details list. The first screenshot shows the code of the control, pretty straighforward: There is no XAML, so obviously no preview. Of course, I could encapsulate it in another control, like shown in the next screenshot: But, in that case I have an additional file I do not want or need. So I had the idea to move the init stuff inside the contructor of a XAML control. For simplicity, I used simple elements. But they do not show up in the preview... Finally, I know I could use the controls in other parts of my app when creating UIs. But I am using layout manager, PRISM and a lot of other stuff, so I just want an easy preview of some specific control I created (without having to have a XAML wrapper file for each control) Thanks for help, and sorry for the post structure, but I though with images it is better to understand... Chris

  Read the article

• Selenium : Handling Loading screens obscuring the web elements. (Java)

  - by Sheldon Cooper

  I'm writing an automated test case for a web page. Here's my scenario. I have to click and type on various web elements in an html form. But, sometimes while typing on a text field, an ajax loading image appears , fogging all elements i want to interact with. So, I'm using web-driver wait before clicking on the actual elements like below, WebdriverWait innerwait=new WebDriverWait(driver,30); innerwait.until(ExpectedConditions.elementToBeClickable(By.xpath(fieldID))); driver.findelement(By.xpath(fieldID)).click(); But the wait function returns the element even if it is fogged by another image and is not clickable. But the click() throws an exception as Element is not clickable at point (586.5, 278). Other element would receive the click: <div>Loading image</div> Do I have to check every time if the loading image appeared before interacting with any elements?.(I can't predict when the loading image will appear and fog all elements.) Is there any efficient way to handle this? Currently I'm using the following function to wait till the loading image disappears, public void wait_for_ajax_loading() throws Exception { try{ Thread.sleep(2000); if(selenium.isElementPresent("id=loadingPanel")) while(selenium.isElementPresent("id=loadingPanel")&&selenium.isVisible("id=loadingPanel"))//wait till the loading screen disappears { Thread.sleep(2000); System.out.println("Loading...."); }} catch(Exception e){ Logger.logPrint("Exception in wait_for_ajax_loading() "+e); Logger.failedReport(report, e); driver.quit(); System.exit(0); } } But I don't know exactly when to call the above function, calling it at a wrong time will fail. Is there any efficient way to check if an element is actually clickable? or the loading image is present? Thanks..

  Read the article

• The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

  - by Jed

  I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

  Read the article

• how do I create a custom route in rails where I pass the id of an existing Model?

  - by Angela

  I created the following route: map.todo "todo/today", :controller => "todo", :action => "show_date" Originally, the 'show_date' action and associated view would display all the activities associated for that day for all the Campaigns. This ended up being very slow on the database...it would generate roughly 30 records but was still slow. So, I'm thinking of creating a partial that would first list the campaigns separately. If someone clicked on a link associated with campaign_id = 1, I want it to go to the following route: todo/today/campaign/1 Then I would like to know how to know that the '1' is the campaign_id in the controller and then just do its thing. The reason I want a distinct URL is so that I can cache this list. I have to keep going back to this and it's slow. NOTE: It's possibly the problem actually is that I've written the queries in a slow way and sqlite isn't representative of how it will be in production, in which case this work-around is unnecessary, but right now, I need a way to get back to the whole list quickly.

  Read the article

• Provider not notified from cookbook_file

  - by wittyhandle

  I'm working on an ssl provider using Vagrant (1.0.5) and chef-solo (10.12.0) I have my provider, called ssl within a cookbook called gtm_cq, I define it as such in my cookbook's default recipe: gtm_cq_ssl "author" do # attributes will come later end I then have my cookbook_file like below that should notify my ssl provider's import action once it pushes the cert up to the server: cookbook_file "#{node[:cq][:ssl][:author_cert_location]}/foo.cer" do source "foo.cer" owner "crx" group "root" mode "0644" notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author") end When I run this, the foo.cer gets pushed up as expected, but the import action of my ssl provider is never called. The most I see of any reference is these couple of lines in the log (removed log headers): .. cookbook_file[/opt/cq5/author/foo.cer] sending import action to gtm_cq_ssl[author] (delayed) .. Processing gtm_cq_ssl[author] action import (gtm_cq::author line 34) There's a large very obvious log statement as well as the use of another cookbook_file for a test file to push something up to the server. No log statement, no test file pushed. I'm certain too that the foo.cer file is removed from the server before each test. I found that if I edit my notifies line like so with :immediately notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author"), :immediately It seems to work. And I suppose this is ok in my particular case, but it would seem something is not right if that's the only way I can call my provider. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Allow login from another site

  - by tunmise fasipe

  I have web application where I store users' password and username. If you logon to this site, you can login with the password and username to have access to your profile. There is another option that requires you to login to my site from your site and have your profile within your site. This is because you might already have a site that your clients know you with. This latter part is what I don't know to implement. I have these ideas: Have a fixed IFrame within your site to contain my site: but I am concerned about size/layout since different clients have different layout/size for their content section. I am thinking of how to maintain session too A webservice: I don't know how feasible this is since the Password and ID are on my server. You may have to send them back and forth. It means client would have to code with my API. But I am not just returning data, I have to show them a page that contains the profile details OpenID, Single-SignOn: Just guessing - but the authentication and data resides on my server. there is nothing to access on your side in this case Any other methods/better approach Examples: like login into facebook within my site and still be able to do post updates, receive notifications Facebook implement some of these with IFrame e.g. the Like button

  Read the article

• JavaScript array random index insertion and deletion

  - by Tomi

  I'm inserting some items into array with randomly created indexes, for example like this: var myArray = new Array(); myArray[123] = "foo"; myArray[456] = "bar"; myArray[789] = "baz"; ... In other words array indexes do not start with zero and there will be "numeric gaps" between them. My questions are: Will these numeric gaps be somehow allocated (and therefore take some memory) even when they do not have assigned values? When I delete myArray[456] from upper example, would items below this item be relocated? EDIT: Regarding my question/concern about relocation of items after insertion/deletion - I want to know what happens with the memory and not indexes. More information from wikipedia article: Linked lists have several advantages over dynamic arrays. Insertion of an element at a specific point of a list is a constant-time operation, whereas insertion in a dynamic array at random locations will require moving half of the elements on average, and all the elements in the worst case. While one can "delete" an element from an array in constant time by somehow marking its slot as "vacant", this causes fragmentation that impedes the performance of iteration.

  Read the article

• Class lookup structure array in C++

  - by wyatt

  I'm trying to create a structure array which links input strings to classes as follows: struct {string command; CommandPath cPath;} cPathLookup[] = { {"set an alarm", AlarmCommandPath}, {"send an email", EmailCommandPath}, {"", NULL} }; which will be used as follows: CommandPath *cPath = NULL; string input; getline(cin, input); for(int i = 0; cPathLookup[i] != ""; i++) { if(cPathLookup[i].command == input) cPath = new cPathLookup[i].cPath; } Obviously, this code is meaningless, but I think my intention is apparent - depending on input, I'd like cPath to be initialized as either a new AlarmCommandPath or a new EmailCommandPath. I could handle it with a function returning an instance depending on input, but a whole sequence of ifs just seems inelegant. I should also note that, in case it's not apparent and important, that AlarmCommandPath and EmailCommandPath are derived from CommandPath, and CommandPath is an abstract class. Thanks for any help you can offer. EDIT: I just noticed that, in spite of CommandPath being abstract, I have a declaration: CommandPath *cPath = NULL; in working code. Why does that compile?

  Read the article

• PHP: Check if 0?

  - by tarnfeld

  Hi, I am using a class which returns me the value of a particular row and cell of an excel spreadsheet. To build up an array of one column I am counting the rows and then looping through that number with a for() loop and then using the $array[] = $value to set the incrementing array object's value. This works great if none of the values in a cell are 0. The class returns me a number 0 so it's nothing to do with the class, I think it's the way I am looping through the rows and then assigning them to the array... I want to carry through the 0 value because I am creating graphs with the data afterwards, here is the code I have. // Get Rainfall $rainfall = array(); for($i=1;$i<=$count;$i++) { if($data->val($i,2) != 'Rainfall') // Check if not the column title { $rainfall[] = $data->val($i,2); } } For your info $data is the excel spreadsheet object and the method $data->val(row,col) is what returns me the value. In this case I am getting data from column 2. Screenshot of spreadsheet http://cl.ly/1Dmy Thanks! All help is very much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Mixing stored procedures and ORM

  - by Jason

  The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798 799 800 801  | Next Page >