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• Java generic Comparable where subclasses can't compare to eachother

  - by dege

  public abstract class MyAbs implements Comparable<MyAbs> This would work but then I would be able to compare class A and B with each other if they both extend MyAbs. What I want to accomplish however is the exact opposite. So does anyone know a way to get the generic type to be the own class? Seemed like such a simple thing at first... Edit: To explain it a little further with an example. Say you have an abstract class animals, then you extend it with Dogs and ants. I wouldn't want to compare ants with Dogs but I however would want to compare one dog with another. The dog might have a variable saying what color it is and that is what I want to use in the compareTo method. However when it comes to ants I would rather want to compare ant's size than their color. Hope that clears it up. Could possibly be a design flaw however.

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• Ignoring build number when referencing dll

  - by brickner

  I have one solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C#) that produces a delayed signed dll, that I dotfuscate and sign. EDIT: This is how I version the dll: [assembly: AssemblyVersion("0.7.0.*")] [assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("0.7.0.0")] I have another solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C++/CLI) that references the signed dll and produces a signed dll (actually, delayed signed and signed in a post build because of a flaw in the C++ build system). The problem is that the reference to the dll contains a specific version number, which includes even the build number (I want to have a build number). Every time I build the referenced dll, I have to change the project settings file (.vcxproj) so it reference the new version dll. Since I work with source control, this is very inconvenient (different computers might have different build numbers since each computer build its own referenced dll - the referenced dll is not in the source control). If I don't change the reference, I get a warning: warning MSB3245: Could not resolve this reference. Could not locate the assembly... And many errors like this: error C3083: 'Foo': the symbol to the left of a '::' must be a type These are resolved once I change the reference. How do I make the reference ignore the build number or even the entire version number?

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• Difficulty with projectile's tracking code

  - by RCIX

  I wrote some code for a projectile class in my game that makes it track targets if it can: if (_target != null && !_target.IsDead) { Vector2 currentDirectionVector = this.Body.LinearVelocity; currentDirectionVector.Normalize(); float currentDirection = (float)Math.Atan2(currentDirectionVector.Y, currentDirectionVector.X); Vector2 targetDirectionVector = this._target.Position - this.Position; targetDirectionVector.Normalize(); float targetDirection = (float)Math.Atan2(targetDirectionVector.Y, targetDirectionVector.X); float targetDirectionDelta = targetDirection - currentDirection; if (MathFunctions.IsInRange(targetDirectionDelta, -(Info.TrackingRate * deltaTime), Info.TrackingRate * deltaTime)) { Body.LinearVelocity = targetDirectionVector * Info.FiringVelocity; } else if (targetDirectionDelta > 0) { float newDirection = currentDirection + Info.TrackingRate * deltaTime; Body.LinearVelocity = new Vector2( (float)Math.Cos(newDirection), (float)Math.Sin(newDirection)) * Info.FiringVelocity; } else if (targetDirectionDelta < 0) { float newDirection = currentDirection - Info.TrackingRate * deltaTime; Body.LinearVelocity = new Vector2( (float)Math.Cos(newDirection), (float)Math.Sin(newDirection)) * Info.FiringVelocity; } } This works sometimes, but depending on the relative angle to the target projectiles turn away from the target instead. I'm stumped; can someone point out the flaw in my code?

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• How do I bind an iTunes style source list to an NSTableView using Core Data?

  - by Austin

  I have an iTunes style interface in my application: Source list (NSOutlineView) on the left that contains different libraries and playlists with an NSTableView on the right side of the interface displaying information for "Presentations". Similar to iTunes, I am showing the same type of information in the table view whether a library or playlist is selected (title, author, date created, etc). I currently have an NSArrayController connected to my NSTableView and was setting the fetch predicate based on what was selected in the source list. This works fine when selecting a library because I can just set the fetch predicate to filter by the "type" field in my Presentation Core Data entity. When I try to adjust the fetch predicate for the playlist however, it doesn't look like there is any way to set the fetch predicate because I've got a table in between Playlists and Presentations to keep up with the order within the Playlist. According to the Apple docs, these type of predicates are not doable with Core Data (it basically doesn't multiple inner joins). Below is the relevant portion of my Data Model. Is my data model setup incorrectly? Should I drop the NSArrayController and handle connecting the NSTableView up by hand? I'm trying to figure out if there is a simple fix, or really a design flaw.

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• Help with MySQL Query using CASE statement

  - by hairdresser-101

  I am trying to group a number of customers together based on their "Head Office" or "Parent" location. THis works ok except for a flaw which I didn't forsee when I was developing my system... For customers that did not have a "Parent" (standalone business) I defaulted the parent_id to 0. Therefore, my data would look like this: id parent_id customer 1 0 CustName#1 2 4 CustName#2 - Melbourne 3 4 CustName#2 - Sydney 4 0 CustName#2 (Head Office) What I want to do is Group my results together so that I have one row for CustName#1 and one row for CustName#2 BUT my problem is that there is no parent record for parent_id=0 and these rows are being excluded when using an inner join. I've tried using a case statement but that is not working either (parents are still being ignored) Any help would be greatly appreciated. Here is my query (My CASE is basically trying to get the business_name from the customer table based on the parent_id EXCEPT when the parent_id = 0, THEN just use the customer_name that is listed in the job_summary table): SELECT js.month_of_year, (CASE js.parent_id WHEN 0 THEN js.customer_name ELSE c.business_name END) as customer, SUM(js.jobs), SUM(js.total_cost), sum(js.total_sell) FROM JOB_SUMMARY js INNER JOIN customer c on js.parent_id=c.id group by js.month_of_year, (CASE c.parent_id WHEN 0 THEN js.customer_name ELSE c.business_name END) ORDER BY `customer` ASC

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• How can I improve this search usability?

  - by Craig Whitley

  This is the first real programming attempt of mine, and theres some major flaws. It's a learning project, and I'm currently re-writing the entire thing as my php is is really messy. I really want to get an idea on how I can improve the actual usability and accesibility of the site at the same time though - so I know how to implement it correctly. The website is basically a comparison website for gameserver hosting. As I mentioned, its a learning project and I don't actually expect any revenue from it. At the moment theres only test data in it, so in the game input box select either 'Battlefied Bad Company 2' or 'Call of Duty 4: Modern Warfare' and ignore the actual search results. http://www.laglessfrag.com I wasn't really sure how to work the search functionality. Basically when you click a game in the drop down box, it sends an ajax request and finds all the locations available to that specific game in the database. After selecting the country theres another ajax to find all the citys available to the game in that country - which gives me the two unique identifiers I need to create the search results. One major and fundamental flaw is that without javascript enabled, the site ceases to function. I'll overcome that in the next re-write, but without the ajax functionality stopping the user 'going wrong' - how can I implement a search that requires two fields without creating extra steps in new pages after form submissions? I'm also no designer so my whole layout and css is a bit rubbish, but this was mainly a learning project as I'm interested in applications / programming rather than design. It's also slow as its on shared hosting, but if I can get it to work correctly then I'm not impartial to chucking a bit of money at it for faster hosting and maybe a bit of advertising and seeing where it goes (if anywhere!). Any info appreciated.

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• Auto-resolving a hostname in WCF Metadata Publishing

  - by Mike C

  I am running a self-hosted WCF service. In the service configuration, I am using localhost in my BaseAddresses that I hook my endpoints to. When trying to connect to an endpoint using the WCF test client, I have no problem connecting to the endpoint and getting the metadata using the machine's name. The problem that I run into is that the client that is generated from metadata uses localhost in the endpoint URLs it wants to connect to. I'm assuming that this is because localhost is the endpoint URL published by metadata. As a result, any calls to the methods on the service will fail since localhost on the calling machine isn't running the service. What I would like to figure out is if it is possible for the service metadata to publish the proper URL to a client depending on the client who is calling it. For example, if I was requesting the service metadata from a machine on the same network as the server the endpoint should be net.tcp://MYSERVER:1234/MyEndpoint. If I was requesting it from a machine outside the network, the URL should be net.tcp://MYSERVER.mydomain.com:1234/MyEndpoint. And obviously if the client was on the same machine, THEN the URL could be net.tcp://localhost:1234/MyEndpoint. Is this just a flaw in the default IMetadataExchange contract? Is there some reason the metadata needs to publish the information in a non-contextual way? Is there another way I should be configuring my BaseAddresses in order to get the functionality I want? Thanks, Mike

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• How to replace custom IDs in the order of their appearance with a shell script?

  - by Péter Török

  I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some identifiers are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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• Need some help with a MySQL subquery count

  - by Ferdy

  I'm running into my own limits of MySQL query skills, so I hope some SQL guru can help out on this one. The situation is as follow: I have images that can be tagged. As you might expect this is stored in three tables: Image Tag Tag_map (maps images to tags) I have a SQL query that calculates the related tags based on a tag id. The query basically checks what other tags were used for images for images using that tag. Example: Image1 tagged as "Bear" Image2 tagged as "Bear" and "Canada" If I throw "Bear" (or its tag id) at the query, it will return "Canada". This works fine. Here's the query: SELECT tag.name, tag.id, COUNT(tag_map.id) as cnt FROM tag_map,tag WHERE tag_map.tag_id = tag.id AND tag.id != '185' AND tag_map.image_id IN (SELECT tag_map.image_id FROM tag_map INNER JOIN tag ON tag_map.tag_id = tag.id WHERE tag.id = '185') GROUP BY tag_map.id LIMIT 0,100 The part I'm stuck with is the count. For each related tag returned, I want to know how many images are in that tag. Currently it always returns 1, even if there are for example 3. I've tried counting different columns all resulting in the same output, so I guess there is a flaw in my thinking.

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• FQL query using stream table doesn't accept app access token

  - by tougher

  I've searched stackoverflow all day long to find an answer without luck, so here we go. I'm trying to fetch data from the stream table like this: FQL: SELECT post_id, message, created_time FROM stream WHERE source_id = 131559313586863 URL: http:// graph.facebook.com/fql?q=SELECT+post_id%2C+message%2C+created_time+FROM+stream+WHERE+source_id+%3D+131559313586863&access_token=10669xxxxx74470|PF-7GSdBx0Nxxxxxkdi1KwSQG-w But I get a 400 Bad Request as response with the error message: "An access token is required to request this resource.". I'm fetching an application access token with this url: https:// graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=FACEBOOK_APP_ID&client_secret=FACEBOOK_APP_SECRET&grant_type=client_credentials Facebook state in this blog post that "You will need to pass a valid app or user access token to access this functionality.". Functionality refers to /feed and /posts (the stream table). Futhermore this wiki tells the same story about using the stream table, "From June 3 2011 a token is required to query this table. You can use any application or user token to make the query.". Does anyone see my hopefully obvious flaw? Please note: The profile in the FQL query is public. I need this to run userless though a cronjob. No user interaction is possible. The request works if I replace the app access token with my own user token from https:// developers.facebook.com/tools/explorer Sorry for breaking the URL's. I need more reputation to post more than 2 links :-/

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• Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

  - by Chris Lawlor

  Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

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• How to replace pairs of strings in two files to identical IDs?

  - by Péter Török

  Sorry if the title is not very intelligible, I couldn't come up with anything better. Hopefully my explanation is clear enough: I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some strings are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. [Update] There are about 40 distinct pairs of such identifiers.[/Update] I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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• iPhone NSTimer OpenGL problem

  - by Toby Wilson

  I've got a problem that only seems to occur on the device, not in the simulator. My app's animation is started and stopped using these methods: NSTimer* animationTimer; -(void)startAnimation { if(animationTimer = nil) animationTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0f/60.0f target:self selector:@selector(drawView) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } -(void)stopAnimation { [animationTimer invalidate]; animationTimer = nil; } In the simulator this works fine and drawView starts being called at 60fps. On the device (testing on iPod Touch), the scheduleTimerWithTimeInterval method doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, [animationTimer invalidate] causes EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I've spotted an obvious but minor flaw; adding if(animationTimer != nil) to the stopAnimation method will prevent the crash, but doesn't solve the problem of the animation timer not being properly initialised. Edit: The above doesn't prevent a crash. animationTimer != nil yet calling invalidate causes EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Should also add, this problem doesn't occur all the time on the device. Maybe 40% of the time.

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• SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

  - by Brandi

  I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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• Printing to different printers using mozilla.

  - by Nick-ACNB

  I am currently creating a web application that will be deployed in an intranet environment. I chose firefox to be the browser that will run it. However, in the application I am building, I need to be able to print to different printers quickly since they use different paper size depending on what client is coming. To avoid many time-wasting mistakes that could occur, for instance someone choosing the wrong printer and wasting paper. Also, the time used to find the right printer for the job and then pressing print is considered too long in the current context. Is there any solution to this problem? I understand the potential security flaw behind this, but please be aware that this is solely an intranet project and that I can reduce the browser's security to the lowest since they don't access internet. I know there could be something doable behind IE (ActiveX or VBScript) but I am using firefox. Also, I guess there could also be something rather tricky that when you press print on the browser, it saves what needs to be printed to a DB and then there is an exe app that runs and fetch that DB every set ammount of time and print to the right printer. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. I doubt I am the only one to ever face this issue! :) Thank you very much.

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• Which text margin does SWT Table use when drawing text?

  - by Zordid

  I got a relatively easy question - but I cannot find anything anywhere to answer it. I use a simple SWT table widget in my application that displays only text in the cells. I got an incremental search feature and want to highlight text snippets in all cells if they match. So when typing "a", all "a"s should be highlighted. To get this, I add an SWT.EraseItem listener to interfere with the background drawing. If the current cell's text contains the search string, I find the positions and calculate relative x-coordinates within the text using event.gc.stringExtent - easy. With that I just draw rectangles "behind" the occurrences. Now, there's a flaw in this. The table does not draw the text without a margin, so my x coordinate does not really match - it is slightly off by a few pixels! But how many?? Where do I retrieve the cell's text margins that table's own drawing will use? No clue. Cannot find anything. :-( Bonus question: the table's draw method also shortens text and adds "..." if it does not fit into the cell. Hmm. My occurrence finder takes the TableItem's text and thus also tries to mark occurrences that are actually not visible because they are consumed by the "...". How do I get the shortened text and not the "real" text within the EraseItem draw handler? Thanks!

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• Storing date/times as UTC in database

  - by James

  I am storing date/times in the database as UTC and computing them inside my application back to local time based on the specific timezone. Say for example I have the following date/time: 01/04/2010 00:00 Say it is for a country e.g. UK which observes DST (Daylight Savings Time) and at this particular time we are in daylight savings. When I convert this date to UTC and store it in the database it is actually stored as: 31/03/2010 23:00 As the date would be adjusted -1 hours for DST. This works fine when your observing DST at time of submission. However, what happens when the clock is adjusted back? When I pull that date from the database and convert it to local time that particular datetime would be seen as 31/03/2009 23:00 when in reality it was processed as 01/04/2010 00:00. Correct me if I am wrong but isn't this a bit of a flaw when storing times as UTC? Example of Timezone conversion Basically what I am doing is storing the date/times of when information is being submitted to my system in order to allow users to do a range report. Here is how I am storing the date/times: public DateTime LocalDateTime(string timeZoneId) { var tzi = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(timeZoneId); return TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTimeFromUtc(DateTime.UtcNow, tzi).ToLocalTime(); } Storing as UTC: var localDateTime = LocalDateTime("AUS Eastern Standard Time"); WriteToDB(localDateTime.ToUniversalTime());

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• What characters are NOT escaped with a mysqli prepared statement?

  - by barfoon

  Hey everyone, I'm trying to harden some of my PHP code and use mysqli prepared statements to better validate user input and prevent injection attacks. I switched away from mysqli_real_escape_string as it does not escape % and _. However, when I create my query as a mysqli prepared statement, the same flaw is still present. The query pulls a users salt value based on their username. I'd do something similar for passwords and other lookups. Code: $db = new sitedatalayer(); if ($stmt = $db->_conn->prepare("SELECT `salt` FROM admins WHERE `username` LIKE ? LIMIT 1")) { $stmt->bind_param('s', $username); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($salt); while ($stmt->fetch()) { printf("%s\n", $salt); } $stmt->close(); } else return false; Am I composing the statement correctly? If I am what other characters need to be examined? What other flaws are there? What is best practice for doing these types of selects? Thanks,

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• Run Javascript on the body of a Gmail message

  - by saturn

  I want to display LaTeX math in the gmail messages that I receive, so that for example $\mathbb P^2$ would show as a nice formula. Now, there are several Javascripts available (for example, this one, or MathJax which would do the job, I just need to call them at the right time to manipulate the gmail message. I know that this is possible to do in "basic HTML" and "print" views. Is it possible to do in the standard Gmail view? I tried to insert a call to the javascript right before the "canvas_frame" iframe, but that did not work. My suspicion is that manipulating a Gmail message by any Javascript would be a major security flaw (think of all the malicious links one could insert) and that Google does everything to prevent this. And so the answer to my question is probably 'no'. Am I right in this? Of course, it would be very easy for Google to implement viewing of LaTeX and MathML math simply by using MathJax on their servers. I made the corresponding Gmail Lab request, but no answer, and no interest from Google apparently. So, again: is this possible to do without Google's cooperation, on the client side?

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• Open-sourcing a web site with active users?

  - by Lars Yencken

  I currently run several research-related web-sites with active users, and these sites use some personally identifying information about these users (their email address, IP address, and query history). Ideally I'd release the code to these sites as open source, so that other people could easily run similar sites, and more importantly scrutinise and replicate my work, but I haven't been comfortable doing so, since I'm unsure of the security implications. For example, I wouldn't want my users' details to be accessed or distributed by a third party who found some flaw in my site, something which might be easy to do with full source access. I've tried going half-way by refactoring the (Django) site into more independent modules, and releasing those, but this is very time consuming, and in practice I've never gotten around to releasing enough that a third party can replicate the site(s) easily. I also feel that maybe I'm kidding myself, and that this process is really no different to releasing the full source. What would you recommend in cases like this? Would you open-source the site and take the risk? As an alternative, would you advertise the source as "available upon request" to other researchers, so that you at least know who has the code? Or would you just apologise to them and keep it closed in order to protect users?

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• How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

  - by Jacob Adams

  I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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• Routing redirection decision

  - by programming late night

  I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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• Web development tool that can comprehend the concept of more than one language in a file at once

  - by thecoshman

  I currently use notepad++ on windows or gedit on ubuntu. Both of them work great with code highlighting and hinting etc. But both of them suffer from a huge flaw. I am yet to find a code editor that can handle this concept: <?php // ooh, look I am doing some php ?><a onclick="alert('hay, some javascript in here now!')"> This link is HTML?!</a> <?PHP echo("NOW we have some php as well!"); ?> At the moment, I just have to settle for the one language. I want something that can think of a that text as a default as HTML, but notice when sections are PHP. I want those sections of PHP to have there own code hinting and highlighting. Even more, lets say in an 'if else' I exit PHP, write some HTML then back into PHP, I want it to work out how the braces ( '{' and '}' ) should match up and let me know if I have missed one. I want the sections of in-line JavaScript to be picked up as such. I want all of these languages to get checked for syntax! Damn it, I want to tool that understands more than one language at once!

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• Java Function Analysis

  - by khan

  Okay..I am a total Python guy and have very rarely worked with Java and its methods. The condition is that I have a got a Java function that I have to explain to my instructor and I have got no clue about how to do so..so if one of you can read this properly, kindly help me out in breaking it down and explaining it. Also, i need to find out any flaw in its operation (i.e. usage of loops, etc.) if there is any. Finally, what is the difference between 'string' and 'string[]' types? public static void search(String findfrom, String[] thething){ if(thething.length > 5){ System.err.println("The thing is quite long"); } else{ int[] rescount = new int[thething.length]; for(int i = 0; i < thething.length; i++){ String[] characs = findfrom.split("[ \"\'\t\n\b\f\r]", 0); for(int j = 0; j < characs.length; j++){ if(characs[j].compareTo(thething[i]) == 0){ rescount[i]++; } } } for (int j = 0; j < thething.length; j++) { System.out.println(thething[j] + ": " + rescount[j]); } } }

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• Can I write a .NETCF Partial Class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl?

  - by eidylon

  Okay... I'm writing a .NET CF (VBNET 2008 3.5 SP1) application, which has one master form, and it dynamically loads specific UserControls based on menu click, in a sort of framework idea. There are certain methods and properties these controls all need to work within the app. Right now I am doing this as an Interface, but this is aggravating as all get up, because some of the methods are optional, and yet I MUST implement them by the nature of interfaces. I would prefer to use inheritance, so that I can have certain code be inherited with overridability, but if I write a class which inherits System.Windows.Forms.UserControl and then inherit my control from that, it squiggles, and tells me that UserControls MUST inherit directly from System.Windows.Forms.UserControl. (Talk about a design flaw!) So next I thought, well, let me use a partial class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl, but when I do that, even though it all seems to compile fine, none of my new properties/methods show up on my controls. Is there any way I can use partial classes to 'extend' System.Windows.Forms.UserControl? For example, can anyone give me a code sample of a partial class which simply adds a MyCount As Integer readonly property to the System.Windows.Forms.UserControl class? If I can just see how to get this going, I can take it from there and add the rest of my functionality. Thanks in advance! I've been searching google, but can't find anything that seems to work for UserControl extension on .NET CF. And the Interface method is driving me crazy as even a small change means updating ALL the controls whether they need to 'override' the method or not.

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