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  • Error while converting function from oracle to mssql

    - by sss
    Hi, I am migrating a function from oracle to mssql 2008.This function raises Select statements included within a function cannot return data to a client as error.How can i solve this problem? Original PLSQL Code CREATE OR REPLACE function f_birim_cevrim_katsayi (p_ID_MAMUL in number, p_ID_BIRIMDEN in number, p_ID_BIRIME in number) return number is v_katsayi number; begin v_katsayi:=0; if p_ID_BIRIMDEN!=p_ID_BIRIME then for c in ( select * from CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM where ID_MAMUL = p_ID_MAMUL and ( (ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIME) OR ( ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIME) ) and VALID = 1) loop if c.ID_BIRIM=p_ID_BIRIMDEN then v_katsayi:=c.MT_ORAN; else v_katsayi:=1/c.MT_ORAN; end if; end loop; else v_katsayi:=1; end if; return round(v_katsayi,10); exception when others then return 0; end; TSQL CODE If Exists ( SELECT name FROM sysobjects WHERE name = 'f_birim_cevrim_katsayi' AND type = 'FN') DROP FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi GO CREATE FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi ( @p_ID_MAMUL FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIMDEN FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIME FLOAT ) RETURNS float AS BEGIN DECLARE @adv_error INT DECLARE @v_katsayi FLOAT SELECT @v_katsayi = 0 IF @p_ID_BIRIMDEN != @p_ID_BIRIME BEGIN DECLARE cursor_for_inline_select1 CURSOR LOCAL FOR SELECT * FROM CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM WHERE ID_MAMUL = @p_ID_MAMUL AND ((ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIME) OR (ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIME)) AND VALID = 1 OPEN cursor_for_inline_select1 FETCH NEXT FROM cursor_for_inline_select1 WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS <> -1) BEGIN IF c.ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = c.MT_ORAN END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1/c.MT_ORAN END END CLOSE cursor_for_inline_select1 DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1 END DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) GOTO ExitLabel1 Exception1: BEGIN DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return 0 END ExitLabel1: return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) END GO

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  • Is it possible to cancel function override in parent class and use function from top level parent

    - by Anatoliy Gusarov
    class TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->bar(); } private function bar() { echo 'Bar'; } } class MidParent extends TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->midMethod(); parent::foo(); } public function midMethod() { echo 'Mid'; } public function generalMethod() { echo 'General'; } } Now the question is if I have a class, that extends MidParent because I need to call class Target extends MidParent { //How to override this method to return TopParent::foo(); ? protected function foo() { } } So I need to do this: $mid = new MidParent(); $mid->foo(); // MidBar $taget = new Target(); $target->generalMethod(); // General $target->foo(); // Bar UPDATE Top parent is ActiveRecord class, mid is my model object. I want to use model in yii ConsoleApplication. I use 'user' module in this model, and console app doesn't support this module. So I need to override method afterFind, where user module is called. So the Target class is the class that overrides some methods from model which uses some modules that console application doesn't support.

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  • Is it possible to get multiple forms to work with one ajax post function

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a system where there is one form for each friend you have and I used to have an ajax post function for each form, but I want to save code and was wondering if it was possible to get multiple forms to work with just one post function. If anyone has any advice on how to achieve this I would appreciate it. For example <div id="message"> <form id='submit' class='message-form' method='POST' > <input type='hidden' id='to' value='friend1' maxlength='255' > Subject<br><input type='text' id='subject' maxlength='50'><br> Message<br><textarea id='message2' cols='50' rows='15'></textarea> <input type='submit' id='submitmessage' class='responsebutton' value='Send'> </form> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".message-form").submit(function() { $("#submitmessage").attr({ disabled:true, value:\"Sending...\" }); var to = $('#to').attr('value'); var subject = $('#subject').attr('value'); var message = $('#message2').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "messageprocess.php", data: 'to='+ to + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message, success: function(response) { if(response == "OK") { $('.message-form').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Email has been sent!</h2>") .append("<p>Please wait...</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append(\"<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />\"); });

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  • PHP PDO Parameters from a function returned array

    - by noko
    I've got a function written that runs a query based on parameters passed to the function. I can't seem to figure out why doing the following returns a result: function test($function_returned_array) { $variable = 'Hello World'; $sql = 'SELECT `name`, `pid` FROM `products` WHERE `name` IN (?)'; $found = $this->db->get_array($sql, $variable); } While this doesn't return any results: function test2($function_returned_array) { $sql = 'SELECT `name`, `pid` FROM `products` WHERE `name` IN (?)'; $found = $this->db->get_array($sql, $function_returned_array[0]); } $function_returned_array[0] is also equal to 'Hello World'. Shouldn't they both return the same results? When I echo the values of $variable and $function_returned_array[0], they are both 'Hello World' Here's the relevant parts of my PDO wrapper: public function query(&$query, $params) { $sth = $this->_db->prepare($query); if(is_null($params)) { $sth->execute(); } else if(is_array($params)) { $sth->execute($params); } else { $sth->execute(array($params)); } $this->_rows = $sth->rowCount(); $this->_counter++; return $sth; } public function get_array(&$query, $params, $style = PDO::FETCH_ASSOC) { $q = $this->query($query, $params); return $q->fetchAll($style); } I'm using PHP 5.3.5. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Why my jquery function is not firing on Firefox

    - by Cristian Boariu
    I have some trouble with some jquery method (for some checkboxes I want them to fire on checked/unchecked so I can do something then). This method works perfectly on Chrome and IE but not on latest FF. jQuery(function () { jQuery(':checkbox').change(function () { var counter = jQuery('.count').text(); var thisCheck = jQuery(this); if (thisCheck.is(':checked')) { counter++; //apply green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').addClass('checked'); } else { counter--; //remove green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').removeClass('checked'); } jQuery('.count').html(counter); //enable export button when there are selected emails to be exported if (counter > 0) { jQuery(".exportButton").removeAttr("disabled", ""); } else { jQuery(".exportButton").attr("disabled", "disabled"); } }); }); Basically it's simply not firing...Even with Debug is not catching the first line (function declare nor other lines too). If I move this javascript(without function declare) inside jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { all works nice on Firefox too... Yes, I do use jQuery.noConflict(); before jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { Do you know why this happens?

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  • jQuery trigger function on change

    - by Michael Pasqualone
    I have the following two slider functions which work well and display like so: I have diskAmount and transferAmount stored in global vars, however what I am now trying to figure out is how do I get the sum of the two to initially show as the monthly fee, and then update when either of the two sliders are changed. So in my screenshot above the initial state will be $24.75, and the fee will update if the sliders change. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I get can the initial fee to show, but can't figure out how to get 1 function to call another function within jQuery. $(function() { $("#disk").slider({ value:3, min: 1, max: 80, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#diskamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * diskCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial diskamount state $("#diskamount").val($("#disk").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial diskamountUnit state diskAmount = $("#disk").slider("value") * diskCost; $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + diskAmount.toFixed(2)); }); $(function() { $("#data").slider({ value:25, min: 1, max: 200, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#dataamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * transferCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial dataamount state $("#dataamount").val($("#data").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial dataamountUnit state transferAmount = $("#data").slider("value") * transferCost; $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + transferAmount.toFixed(2)); });

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  • Assign a static function to a variable in PHP

    - by Felipe Almeida
    I would like to assign a static function to a variable so that I can send it around as a parameter. For example: class Foo{ private static function privateStaticFunction($arg1,$arg2){ //compute stuff on the args } public static function publicStaticFunction($foo,$bar){ //works $var = function(){ //do stuff }; //also works $var = function($someArg,$someArg2){ //do stuff }; //Fatal error: Undefined class constant 'privateStaticFunction' $var = self::privateStaticMethod; //same error $var = Foo::privateStaticFunction; //compiles, but errors when I try to run $var() somewhere else, as expected //Fatal error: Call to private method Foo::privateStaticMethod() from context '' $var = function(){ return Foo::privateStaticMethod(); }; } } I've tried a few more variations but none of them worked. I don't even expect this sort of functional hacking to work with PHP but hey, who knows? Is it possible to do that in PHP or will I need to come up with some hack using eval? P.S.: LawnGnome on ##php mentioned something about it being possible to do what I want using array('Foo','privateStaticMethod') but I didn't understand what he meant and I didn't press him further as he looked busy.

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  • Need Explanation of couchdb reduce function

    - by Alan
    From http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/Introduction_to_CouchDB_views The couchdb reduce function is defined as function (key, values, rereduce) { return sum(values); } key will be an array whose elements are arrays of the form [key,id] values will be an array of the values emitted for the respective elements in keys i.e. reduce([ [key1,id1], [key2,id2], [key3,id3] ], [value1,value2,value3], false) I am having trouble understanding when/why the array of keys would contain different key values. If the array of keys does contain different key values, how would I deal with it? As an example, assume that my database contains movements between accounts of the form. {"amount":100, "CreditAccount":"account_number", "DebitAccount":"account_number"} I want a view that gives the balance of an account. My map function does: emit( doc.CreditAccount, doc.amount ) emit( doc.DebitAccount, -doc.amount ) My reduce function does: return sum(values); I seem to get the expected results, however I can't reconcile this with the possibility that my reduce function gets different key values. Is my reduce function supposed to group key values first? What kind of result would I return in that case?

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  • get random password with puppet function

    - by ninja-2
    I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

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  • Same function on multiple div classes doesn't work

    - by Sebass van Boxel
    I'm doing something terribly wrong and just can't find the solution for it. Situation: I've got a number of products with a number of quotes per product. Those quote automatically scroll in a div. If the scroll reaches the last quote is scroll back to the first one. What works: The function basically works when it's applied on 1 div, but when applied on multiple div it doesn't scroll back to the first one or keeps scrolling endlessly. This is the function i've written for this: function quoteSlide(divname){ $total = ($(divname+" > div").size()) $width = $total * 160; $(divname).css('width', ($width)); console.log ($totalleft *-1); if ($width - 160 > $totalleft *-1){ $currentleft = $(divname).css('left'); $step = -160; $totalleft = parseInt($currentleft)+$step; }else{ $totalleft = 0; } $(divname).animate(     { left: $totalleft }, // what we are animating     'slow', // how fast we are animating     'swing', // the type of easing     function() { // the callback }); } It's being executed by something like: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); in combination with a setInterval so it keeps scrolling automatically. This is the jsFiddle where it goes wrong (So applied on more than 1 div) http://jsfiddle.net/FsrbZ/. This is the jsFiddle where everything goes okay. (applied on 1 div) When changing the following: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); }, 3400);? to quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); }, 3400);? it does work... but only on 1 quotecontainer.

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function

    - by Radu Vlad
    I have this functions that should return me the distance from point p to segment line v-w. The problem i have is after some time i receive the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function. I receive it in distToSegmentSquared directly,not even calling the function dist2().Is it any other dist2() anywhere in jquery?I found none... function sqr(x) { return x * x; } function dist2(v, w) { console.log(v); console.log(w); return sqr(v.x - w.x) + sqr(v.y - w.y); } function distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w) { var l2 = dist2(v, w); if (l2 == 0) return dist2(p, v); var t = ((p.x - v.x) * (w.x - v.x) + (p.y - v.y) * (w.y - v.y)) / l2; if (t < 0) return dist2(p, v); if (t > 1) return dist2(p, w); return dist2(p, {x: v.x + t * (w.x - v.x), y: v.y + t * (w.y - v.y)}); } function distToSegment(p, v, w) { return Math.sqrt(distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w)); } The values that are given in for that error are: p: Object x: 461 y: 333 v: Object x: 80 y: 120 w: Object x: 260 y: 120

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  • how to sum the amount of cells with the same number in a column - Microsoft Excel 2010

    - by jerlebrink
    My english isn't that good, I hope you understand what I wan't to accomplish I have a column (A) with different zip codes ( total of 3583 rows). I need a formula/function to go through each cell and the come up with sum of how many instances (column B) there are of the same zip code (column C).There are probably more than hundred different zip codes so I can't do it manually. Thanks in advance.

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  • ms excel find and replace @ symbol results in broken formula

    - by Loopo
    I'm trying to search and replace in excel, the column is formatted as 'Text'. Find: [@ replace with: @ Whenever this finds a match at the start of a cell i.e the cell contents start with [@ and tries to replace that with @ the result is an error 'This function is not valid' I guess that since the @ operator is for references, this is causing the cell to be interpreted differently (not as text anymore) How do I make this replacement work? Copy/paste into another program is not a good option because some of the cells contain line-breaks.

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  • Is there a way to sort digits within a cell?

    - by Iszi
    I'd like to know if there's an Excel Function, or a formula, that can be used to sort digits within a cell. For example, if the value of A1 is 6193254807 and B1 has our formula with parameters set to sort ascending then B1 should equal 0123456789 (leading zero included). Of course, if the parameters were set so that it would sort descending then B1 should equal 9876543210. Is there a way to do this, without wandering into VBScript, or macros, or something similarly exotic?

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  • excel 2007 enter new date

    - by Lalajee
    I’m try to create a excel template which will have three fields I like to update automatically when it’s open. Fields which this template will have Current Date: 02/07/2012 Sheet Number: 25 Between Date: 02/07/2012 to 02/08/2012 When I open this template after 03/08/2012 this sheet will have new data Current Date: 03/08/2012 Sheet Number: 26 Between Date: 03/08/2012 to 02/09/2012 For current date Private Sub Workbook_Open() ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range("A1").Value = Date End Sub Can this be done using excel function or do I need to use VB and also how do I update template automatically with new values to say next time use these dates.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • how do i know how many clients are calling my WCF service function

    - by ZhengZhiren
    i am writing a program to test WCF service performance in high concurrency circumstance. On client side, i start many threads to call a WCF service function which returns a long list of data object. On server side, in that function called by my client, i need to know the number of clients calling the function. For doing that, i set a counter variable. In the beginning of the function, i add the counter by 1, but how can i decrease it after the funtion has returned the result? int clientCount=0; public DataObject[] GetData() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); //can't run to here... } i have seen a way in c++. Create a new class named counter. In the constructor of the counter class, increase the variable. And decrease it in the destructor. In the function, make a counter object so that its constructor will be called. And after the function returns, its destructor will be called. Like this: class counter { public: counter(){++clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} ~counter(){--clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} }; ... myfunction() { counter c; //do something return something; } In c# i think i can do so with the following codes, but not for sure. public class Service1 : IService1 { static int clientCount = 0; private class ClientCounter : IDisposable { public ClientCounter() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); } public void Dispose() { Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); } } public DataObject[] GetData() { using (ClientCounter counter = new ClientCounter()) { List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); } } } i write a counter class implement the IDisposable interface. And put my function codes into a using block. But it seems that it doesn't work so good. No matter how many threads i start, the clientCount variable is up to 3. Any advise would be appreciated.

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  • jquery function call with parameters

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

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  • How to copy the memeory allocated in device function back to main memory

    - by xhe8
    I have a CUDA program containing a host function and a device function Execute(). In the host function, I allocate a global memory output which will then be passed to the device function and used to store the address of the global memory allocated within the device function. I want to access the in-kernel allocated memory in the host function. The following is the code: #include <stdio.h> typedef struct { int * p; int num; } Structure_A; \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output); int main(){ Structure_A *output; cudaMalloc((void***)&output,sizeof(Structure_A)*1); dim3 dimBlockExecute(1,1); dim3 dimGridExecute(1,1); Execute<<<dimGridExecute,dimBlockExecute>>>(output); Structure_A * output_cpu; int * p_cpu; cudaError_t err; output_cpu= (Structure_A*)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(output_cpu,output,sizeof(Structure_A),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error a: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } p_cpu=(int *)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error b: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } printf("output=(%d,%d)\n",output_cpu[0].num,p_cpu[0]); return 0; } \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output){ int thid=threadIdx.x; output[thid].p= (int*)malloc(thid+1); output[thid].num=(thid+1); output[thid].p[0]=5; } I can compile the program. But when I run it, I got a error showing that there is a invalid argument in the following memory copy function. "err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost);" CUDA version is 4.2. CUDA card: Tesla C2075 OS: x86_64 GNU/Linux

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  • how to serialize function depending on what instance of object calls it, if same instance call in a thread then do serialize else not

    - by LondonDreams
    I have a function which fetches and updates some record from db and I am trying to make sure each if the function is called by same instance of object(same Or different thread) then function should behave synchronized else its a call from different object instance function need not to be synchronized. I have tried it use a lock per client. That is, instead of synchronizing the method directly using explicit locking through lock objects using Map. function is like :- getAndUpdateMyHitCount(myObjId){ //go to db and get unique record by myObjId //fetch value , increment , save update } And this function may get call is same thread by different Or same object instance But as fetching and matching from Map is slow , Is there other optimized way to do this ? Found similar at this Question but dont feel that is optimized

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  • Binary serialization/de-serialization in C++ and C#

    - by 6pack kid
    Hello. I am working on a distributed application which has two components. One is written in standard C++ (not managed C++) and the other one is written in C#. Both are communicating via a message bus. I have a situation in which I need to pass objects from C++ to C# application and for this I need to serialize those objects in C++ and de-serialize them in C# (something like marshaling/un-marshaling in .NET). I need to perform this serialization in binary and not in XML (due to performance reasons). I have used Boost.Serialization to do this when both ends were implemented in C++ but now that I have a .NET application on one end, Boost.Serialization is not a viable solution. I am looking for a solution that allows me to perform (de)serialization across C++ and .NET boundary i.e., cross platform binary serialization. I know I can implement the (de)serialization code in a C++ dll and use P/Invoke in the .NET application, but I want to keep that as a last resort. Also, I want to know if I use some standard like gzip, will that be efficient? Are there any other alternatives to gzip? What are the pros/cons of them? Thanks

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