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  • SMTP Server setting on Windows 2008 R2

    - by user223298
    I am very very new to this and just trying to configure SMTP virtual server. I have followed a few threads to get it all running, but the mails are not being delivered. What I have done so far - 1) Install SMTP server. 2) SMTP server Properties General Tab - IP address is set to 'All Unassigned'. Access Tab - Authentication is anonymous access. Everything else is left to Default settings. Delivery Tab - Outbound security is anonymous access. In Advance section, entered the domain name in the FQDN field, and localhost in Smart host field. 3) Created an Inbound Rule for SMTP service to allow connections to Port 25. When I try to telnet, everything works up until the point the mail has to be send. Now, the sender's domain is different to the receiver's domain. Not sure if settings have to be changed to allow that? I had set the Relay restrictions on SMTP server, but because I couldn't send the mails, I thought I might as well make it work without the relay first. The error I see while sending the mail is 451 Timeout waiting for client input. I used to get some other error before when I had Relay restrictions on. Can anyone please point me in the right direction? Please let me know if you need more information. Thanks.

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  • Executing a git command using remote powershell results in a NativeCommmandError

    - by user204777
    I am getting an error while executing a remote PowerShell script. From my local machine I am running a PowerShell script that uses Invoke-Command to cd into a directory on a remote Amazon Windows Server instance, and a subsequent Invoke-Command to execute script that lives on that server instance. The script on the server is trying to git clone a repository from GitHub. I can successfully do things in the server script like "ls" or even "git --version". However git clone, git pull, etc. result in the following error: Cloning into 'MyRepo'... + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (Cloning into 'MyRepo'...:String) [], RemoteException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : NativeCommandError This is my first time using PowerShell or a Windows Server. Can anyone provide some direction on this problem. The client script: $s = new-pssession -computername $server -credential $user invoke-command -session $s -scriptblock { cd C:\Repos; ls } invoke-command -session $s -scriptblock { param ($repo, $branch) & '.\clone.ps1' -repository $repo -branch $branch} -ArgumentList $repository, $branch exit-pssession The server script: param([string]$repository = "repository", [string]$branch = "branch") git --version start-process -FilePath git -ArgumentList ("clone", "-b $branch https://github.com/MyGithub/$repository.git") -Wait I've changed the server script to use start process and it is no longer throwing the exception. It creates the new repository directory and the .git directory but doesn't write any of the files from the github repository. This smells like a permissions issue. Once again invoking the script manually (remote desktop into the amazon box and execute it from powershell) works like a charm.

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  • Best way to say "sync all system clocks to this server, when and ONLY when I say so?" Mixed setup of Windows+Linux servers.

    - by twblamer
    Title pretty much explains it. Let's say there's 100 servers, various versions of Windows and Linux, and one Windows server is the "master clock." I did look at this question: How do I synchronize clocks between Linux and Windows? This hints that ntp can do what I want if I run "ntpd -q" on a client (?). If I install ntp I also need to guarantee that it will only sync the times when I force it to. Even better if I have a log that tells me every time a sync was performed. I'm doing benchmark runs and I need to be able to say something like this: "Clocks were synced on all the benchmark systems at 09:42:01am on the master. A benchmark run was then initiated and allowed to run for six hours. None of the system clocks were altered during this time interval." I understand there is subsequent clock drift, but for now that's the way we're doing things and I'm doing it with a manual process. I'd rather at least automate the one-time sync.

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  • Downloading Emails locally with Thunderbird

    - by r_honey
    I am using Gmail (web interface) for sometime now, and have well over 20 labels and some thousand mails there archived to different labels in Gmail. Now I want to have a local copy of all my mails and following points are important in the context: The Primary mail access mechanism would continue to be Gmail web for me. I just want a backup of my mail account locally. Ideally the mails should download locally in folders named after Gmail labels (I know this is possible via IMAP but probably not by POP) After all my mails are available locally, I will delete most of them in Gmail to free up space and because I want to archive them. The mails should continue to exist locally and should not be deleted when I delete when from Gmail web interface. I would be syncing my gmail account locally let's say every month. So, the new mails that I have sent/received during this period should come over to my local mailbox in the folders named after Gmail labels. I do understand that Gmail maintains a single copy of email having 2 different labels and such email would get duplicated locally in the 2 folders and I am okay with that. Essentially you can see I just want to archive my mails from the Gmail server to a local backup and then sync (one way from Gmail to locally) new mails at regular intervals. For some points above, POP seems to be the option while IMAP seems for the others. I am really confused and need help in deciding which of POP or IMAP would suit me best. I have currently chosen Thunderbird to be my local email client but would not have a problem switching to Outlook or anything else as long as I get my desired archiving functionality.

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  • Fedora 17 transparent Ethernet Bridge not forwarding IP traffic

    - by mcdoomington
    I am running on Fedora 17 with the latest ebtables and have been trying to setup a transparent bridge - using the following script, I send a ping through the bridged host and only see the requests on the bridge (among other traffic from eth0), BUT, arps and arp replies are making it through. My host is setup - Client 192.168.1.10 <-- eth0 -- eth2 192.168.1.20 Ethernet script: #!/bin/sh brctl addbr br0; brctl stp br0 on; brctl addif br0 eth0; brctl addif br0 eth2; (ifdown eth0 1>/dev/null 2>&1;); (ifdown eth2 1>/dev/null 2>&1;); ifconfig eth0 0.0.0.0 up; ifconfig eth2 0.0.0.0 up; echo "1" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward; ebtables -P INPUT DROP ebtables -P FORWARD DROP ebtables -P OUTPUT DROP ebtables -A FORWARD -p ipv4 -j ACCEPT ebtables -A FORWARD -p arp -j ACCEPT Any assistance would be great!

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  • How do I tunnel an HTTPS proxy through a virtual machine (VMWare)

    - by Kyle
    I have a personal setup at home using VMWare Workstation. I also have a set of Virtual Private Machines that run Squid, and therefore provide me HTTPS proxy tunnels. Using Proxifier, I can tunnel all traffic for given applications through these tunnels. However, I also have a few virtual machines for dev/staging/experimentation/etc. I generally just use NAT to provide Internet access to the machines, and if I need to use these proxies, I can just setup Proxifier (or a Linux equivalent) to pipe the traffic through them. No problem. But... I got to thinking: Wouldn't it be great if I could assign these proxy tunnels to a virtual machine, so that when I start up the VM, it has instant-on access through the tunnel and not my local connection? (EDIT: Of course, it would USE my local connection, but it would tunnel traffic through the proxy.) To be more clear: I want a solution that binds the proxy to a VM, so that when I start the VM, I don't have to use a proxy client to connect to the tunnel - I am already piping all traffic from that VM through that proxy. I did a bit of searching, and the closest thing I could find was this: How to route public static IP to a virtual machine on a vmware ESXi host? Which wasn't all that applicable. The proxies are protected by user/pass but do not filter by IP. Again, they are HTTPS proxies setup through Squid. Any ideas on how to make this happen? Thanks a ton.

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  • Mail server DNS failed to resolved by Mac clients

    - by Concordus Applications
    We have two internal DNS servers. One is located on a linux server box and the other is the router's DNS management. We set the linux box as primary DNS via DHCP and the router as secondary. We have a few Mac clients that are accessing our internal mail server (hostnamed "mail" internally). When using IMAP or SMTP against the mail server internally, the mac boxes will sometimes fail to locate the server. If I use NSLOOKUP I can see that "mail" is pointed to the correct IP address and is being resolved via the correct DNS server, but if I ping "mail" it fails. ~ (bash)$ nslookup mail Server: 254.254.254.206 Address: 254.254.254.206#53 Name: mail.example.com Address: 254.254.254.205 Note: I replaced our actual internal IP address with 254.254.254.* If I wait a few minutes (3-5 minutes), somehow it resolves itself and sends successfully. This happens multiple times a day. The /etc/hosts file on the mac boxes is the default config. ## # Host Database # # localhost is used to configure the loopback interface # when the system is booting. Do not change this entry. ## 127.0.0.1 localhost 255.255.255.255 broadcasthost ::1 localhost fe80::1%lo0 localhost Is there something about Mac clients I should know to prevent this failed DNS resolution? Client boxes are: OSX 10.7.4, 8GB RAM, i5 MacBooks Server is: Ubuntu 12.04 Server

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  • Softfail / Failure Notice on SMTP

    - by pascal1954
    Hey, i'm searching for an answer for about 24 hours now and I still can't find any really useful help... The problem appears as the following: I'm running a debian server with Plesk 9.5.3 and qmail. Since a few weeks I'm not able to send mails to some particular servers (like web.de, aol.com). Hence I get failure notices like "Sorry, I wasn't able to establish an SMTP connection." But when I try to send mails to gmail.com - it works! Gmail only reports a softfail in the mail header like so: Received: from h1600XXX.?none? (DOMAIN2.TLD [XX.XXX.XX.XX]) Received-SPF: softfail (google.com: best guess record for domain of transitioning [email protected] does not designate 85.XXX.XX.XX as permitted sender) client-ip=85.XXX.XX.XX This sounds like a dns problem for me, but I can't get an answer for that... What makes me wondering is: h1600XXX is correct, but it should look like h1600XXX.stratoserver.net, not ?none? DOMAIN2.TLD (first line) is different from DOMAIN1 (second line). Both are hosted on this machine, but is this correct? DOMAIN1 is the one I send this mail from. Hopefully someone could help me! If you need more specific information, let me know. Thanks in advance!!! Best regards

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  • How do I remove a printer connection without the user's intervention?

    - by 1.618
    Here's the situation: We're replacing 11 printers with newer models, and we'll be installing them on our print server and sharing them out. The plan is to share the new printers under different names than the ones they're replacing, and un-share the old ones. So I need to come up with a way to remove the client connections to old printers automatically. Clients are mostly Windows 7 with a few XP. My first idea was to call prnmngr.vbs from the login script to remove each old printer explicitly by name. The problem is that some users don't log out when they're done for the day, so I can't count on their login script running before they next need to print. I could remotely run prnmngr.vbs using SCCM, but if it's not 'impersonating' the user, I don't think it will remove their printers. Any ideas? Could I lookup how to access WMI using c# code and write a "trojan" to remove specific printers without requiring the user to do anything? (I'm only half joking). I'm open to any suggestion! Thanks!

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  • How to set up vpn tunnel (ipsec) connection

    - by Alfwed
    I'm working with a client who wants to set up a vpn tunnel between their network and ours. They're in charge of the tunnel and to give us the access they are asking me my public IP and my LAN IP. This is what i've got when i do an ifconfig on the server i will use to connect to the vpn $ ifconfig eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr d4:ae:52:cd:xx:xx inet adr:62.210.xxx.xxx Bcast:62.210.xxx.xxx Masque:255.255.255.0 adr inet6: fe80::d6ae:52ff:xxxx:xx/64 Scope:Lien UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 Packets reçus:55255032 erreurs:0 :779628 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:5419527 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 lg file transmission:1000 Octets reçus:5598164393 (5.5 GB) Octets transmis:1034297288 (1.0 GB) Interruption:16 Mémoire:c0000000-c0012800 lo Link encap:Boucle locale inet adr:127.0.0.1 Masque:255.0.0.0 adr inet6: ::1/128 Scope:Hôte UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 Packets reçus:45923382 erreurs:0 :0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:45923382 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 lg file transmission:0 The inet adr:62.210.xxx.xxx is my public IP but it seems like i dont have any LAN IP. Can the connection work without LAN IP or should I create a private network somehow?

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  • What is wrong with my home network? (Routing and connection issues)

    - by David
    I have a corporate laptop that was provided to me by a client and I'm having some rather odd difficulties with it when I put the laptop on my home network. When I first brought the machine home it behaved like any other laptop. Once it was connected to the network it was assigned an IP address and I could remote into it just fine using the machine name. Lately though, whenever I put this laptop on my network I am not able to ping or RDP into the machine as the host name doesn't properly resolve. Additionally I'm able to see the device and it's assigned IP address clearly in my router firmware. This gets even more strange as now when I try to ping it's IP address listed in my router, I see that it's actually trying to ping my own machine (screenshot of this very odd event below). This has actually driven me crazy to the point that I have actually replaced my router (it was behaving oddly in other ways), and I'm continuing to have these problems. The above ping capture is from the new router. As far as network goes I am now currently using an NetGear R7000 Nighthawk and I haven't customized any of the networking settings in the router just yet (installed yesterday). I would appreciate any advice possible and would be happy to provide further diagnostic information. Networking isn't my strong suit, so I'm not even sure where to begin unraveling this thing.

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  • NginxHttpAuthBasicModule with Sinatra & Passenger

    - by scainey
    I'm serving static pages from a Sinatra application using Nginx. I've implemented Basic Authentication for one page on the site using NginxHttpAuthBasicModule, the authentication succeeds but Nginx doesn't resolve the link. Error log gives - 2010/03/22 12:15:19 [error] 7143#0: *2902 open() "/home/me/live/mysite_home/public /mypage" failed (2: No such file or directory), client: 82.71.18.122, server: mysite.com, request: "GET /mypage HTTP/1.1", host: "mysite.com" The actual file is found at: /home/me/live/mysite_home/live/mypage.erb The configuration file is: server { listen 80; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } server { listen 443; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; ssl on; ssl_certificate /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.crt; ssl_certificate_key /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.key; keepalive_timeout 70; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } Not sure if this is a Sinatra, Passenger or Nginx thing, or if I'm just missing something.

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  • Accessing CIFS shares from an OS X machine incredibly slow

    - by Aron Rotteveel
    This is a longshot, because this issue seems over-reported and unanswered on the internet (see references below), but it is about time this issue is permanently solved. The facts: Server: Windows Server 2008, acting as a file server Client: OS X Lion 10.7.3. Method of connecting: directly via IP through Finder: smb://192.168.1.100/share The problem: The initial connection attempt takes about a minute. After the connection is made, it takes one more minute to show the directories in Finder. After navigating to any other directory, it takes several seconds/minutes to parse the directory, seemingly based on the size of the contents. Actually, my entire Finder has this problem after connecting. When using Finder to show my desktop, it can literally take up to a minute to load. Obviously, this is not right. I have no clue how to fix this and would appreciate any help I can get. I am unsure about other relevant information I can provide, but if there is any, please let me know so I can update the post. I seem to be not the only one having this problem: Most importantly, an apple.stackexchange.com entry. Unsolved and unanswered. Several users on the Apple support forums. Users on EduGeek.

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  • Private subnet for VM server host-only network

    - by Derek Pressnall
    At my current job, we distribute a product based on a Linux server with multiple VMs defined (using KVM / libvirt). We are planning to expose limited ports to the customer's network, and use iptables to direct inbound traffic to the appropriate internal VM. My question: is there a class of private subnets that I can use for the internal host-only network that is least likely to conflict with a client IP subnet? Specifically, if I choose a /24 out of any of the RFC-1918 defined private subnets (such as 192.168.x.x), there is a chance of conflicting with a customer-used range. I noticed that several current VM implementations default to 192.168.122.x -- is this due to an RFC that I'm not familiar with, and therefore this is a safe range to use (that most network admins would avoid)? Or did the various VM vendors just pick that range randomly? I guess I'm looking for an IP range that is more private than the existing private (RFC1918) addresses. The only other thought I had was to use one of the "Test Net" IP ranges reserved for documentation purposes (RFC 5737). Note, that I'm not worried about a customer's network blocking these IPs, as this is only internal to our server (packets get NATted before leaving the box). However this does seem more unorthodox than just sticking with the default 192.168.122.x/24 subnet.

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  • Intermittent 403 errors when using allow to limit access to url with both explicit IP and SetEnvIf

    - by rbieber
    We are running Apache 2.2.22 on a Solaris 10 environment. We have a specific URL that we want to limit access to by IP. We recently implemented a CDN and now have the added complexity that the IP's that a request are shown to be coming from are actually the CDN servers and not the ultimate end user. In the case that we need to back the CDN out, we want to handle the case where either the CDN is forwarding the request, or the ultimate client is sending the request directly. The CDN sends the end user IP address in an HTTP header (for this scenario that header is called "User-IP"). Here is the configuration that we have put in place: SetEnvIf User-IP (\d+\.\d+\.\d+\.\d+) REAL_USER_IP=$1 SetEnvIf REAL_USER_IP "(10\.1\.2\.3|192\.168\..+)" access_allowed=1 <Location /uri/> Order deny,allow Allow from 10.1.2.3 192.168. allow from env=access_allowed Deny from all </Location> This seems to work fine for a time, however at some point the web server starts serving 403 errors to the end user - so for some reason it is restricting access. The odd thing is that a bounce of the web server seems to resolve the issue, but only for a time - then the behavior comes back. It might be worthwhile to note as well that this URL is delegated to a JBoss server via mod_jk. The denial of access is, however; confirmed to be at the Apache layer and the issue only seems to happen after the server has been running for some time.

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  • Help - since adding an elastic load balancer to my EC2 web application I cannot connect with the MySQL database (not in AWS)

    - by undefined
    I have a web application that uses an EC2 instance to receive uploaded images, resize and store on S3 and update my MySQL database with the image record. This database is hosted outside Amazon Web Services and so obviously involves communication between the EC2 instance and the database. Images are posted to the upload server from a Flash client which receives the IP address of the upload server when it is loaded and so sends images to 1.12.23.34/resize_script.php This has worked great .. until i started to try and include a load balancer. Since the ELBs do not use an IP address but a DNS address I am now passing this to Flash. Now when I upload images I get the following response from the server - Could not connect to MySQL: Lost connection to MySQL server at 'reading initial communication packet', system error: 111 What might be causing the lost connection to MySQL server. Is there any additional steps I need to take to allow my upload servers to be load balanced? I have set the host property of my MySQL privileges for this user to % any pointers greatly appreciated thanks.

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  • SSH very slow when connecting from external [closed]

    - by wnstnsmth
    Possible Duplicate: ssh delay when connecting We have a CentOS server that we use for internal testing purposes, which has sshd enabled. When I (as a developer) am at the company, I use ssh [email protected] to connect to it - and it works flawlessly. Now, in order to work from home, accessing the server via the company's static IP, we set up another port for ssh, 2020. So I execute ssh -p 2020 [email protected] and am immediately granted for a password. After entering the password, it takes up to 30 seconds until I can access the server. Same is with SFTP (i.e. uploading files takes about 30 seconds until it begins to transfer). As you can imagine, if you have to regularly upload files to a webserver via SFTP, this is very tedious. So I looked at similar questions and thus edited the sshd_config file on the server, setting UseDNS to "no" and GSSAPIAuthentication to "no" (this one also in ssh_config on the client) - it did not work.. Please have a look at the -vvv output when externally accessing the server: ssh -p 2020 -vvv [email protected] PasteBin: ssh What could it be? Do you need more info?

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  • Best practice ACLs to prepare for auditors?

    - by Nic
    An auditor will be visiting our office soon, and they will require read-only access to our data. I have already created a domain user account and placed them into a group called "Auditors". We have a single fileserver (Windows Server 2008) with about ten shared folders. All of the shares are set up to allow full access to authenticated users, and access restrictions are implemented with NTFS ACL's. Most folders allow full access to the "Domain Users" group, but the auditor won't need to make any changes. It takes several hours to update NTFS ACL's since we have about one million files. Here are the options that I am currently considering. Create a "staff" group to assign read/write instead of "Domain Users" at the share level Create a "staff" group to assign read/write instead of "Domain Users" at the NTFS level Deny access to the "Auditors" group at the share level Deny access to the "Auditors" group at the NTFS level Accept the status quo and trust the auditor. I will probably need to configure similar users in the future, as some of our contractors require a domain account but shouldn't be able to modify our client data. Is there a best practice for this?

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  • How to ensure local file is up-to-date or ahead (dropbox sync) before truecrypt auto-mount it?

    - by user620965
    There are a lot tutorials out there that states that dropbox build-in encryption is not secure enought. That tutorials recommands to sync a truecrypt container file to have all files in it securely encrypted. This setup is know to be limited. You can NOT have that truecrypt container file mounted on the same time on more than one location - if you have inserted changes to the contents of the container in more then one location at a time then this setup produces a conflict on the container file in the dropbox system - resulting in one container file for each location. In my case that issue is not relevant - i do not use my data on more than one location at a time. I want to use the auto-mount feature of truecrypt on startup of windows 7 to have a zero configuration environment - and start working right away. But i want to ensure that the local truecrypt container file is up-to-date before truecrypt mounts it automatically - imagine you updated the contents of the container on your primary location and your secondary location was off for a long time. In that case it can take "a long time" till dropbox sync is complete (e.g. depending on your internet connection and the size of the container file). There is a option in truecrypt that ensures that truecrypt do not update the timestamp of the container file - which speeds up the sync, because dropbox client is doing a differential sync then instead of a time consuming full-sync. That is an improvement to that setup, but this do not fix my issue. The question is how to make the auto-mount function wait for the container file to be up-to-date (updated by dropbox)? In contrast: if the file was changed local, but remote file (in the dropbox cloud system) is still old (not jet updated by the sync process / or process is progress), should not make truecrypt to wait for the sync. Suggestions?

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  • SSH access to VM on windows 8 hyper-v

    - by samw
    I'm currently attending University and prefer a Linux environment to do much of my work, but all I have is a ThinkPad running Windows 8 Pro. Cygwin is nice, but it leaves me missing things like apt-get. My latest solution is to run an Ubuntu 12.04 VM with Windows 8's Client Hyper-V and use Cygwin for SSH access. I've looked everywhere online trying to set this up, but I haven't found much help. I've done this before using VirtualBox, so I figured this would be possible as well. Could anyone provide advice for setting up this environment? I'm completely uninitiated to Linux networking, virtual networking, and... pretty much all networking configuration, so this has been quite a challenge for me. What I've done so far: Created an external virtual switch to my wireless NIC. With this, I could successfully SSH to the VM with the leased IP address. But without a static IP, I would soon get disconnected. Created an internal virtual switch and attempt to "share" my main internet connection. (I was following the description on this page) Thank you all in advance!

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  • TinyMCE with AJAX (Update Panel) never has a value.

    - by sah302
    I wanted to use a Rich Text Editor for a text area inside an update panel. I found this post: http://www.queness.com/post/212/10-jquery-and-non-jquery-javascript-rich-text-editors via this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1207382/need-asp-net-mvc-rich-text-editor Decided to go with TinyMCE as I used it before in non AJAX situations, and it says in that list it is AJAX compatible. Alright I do the good ol' tinyMCE.init({ //settings here }); Test it out and it disappears after doing a update panel update. I figure out from a question on here that it should be in the page_load function so it gets run even on async postbacks. Alright do that and the panel stays. However, upon trying to submit the value from my textarea, the text of it always comes back as empty because my form validator always says "You must enter a description" even when I enter text into it. This happens the first time the page loads and after async postbacks have been done to the page. Alright I find this http://www.dallasjclark.com/using-tinymce-with-ajax/ and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/699615/cant-post-twice-from-the-same-ajax-tinymce-textarea. I try to add this code into my page load function right after the tinyMCE.init. Doing this breaks all my jquery being called also in the page_load after it, and it still has the same problem. I am still pretty beginner to client side scripting stuff, so maybe I need to put the code in a different spot than page_load? Not sure the posts I linked weren't very clue on where to put that code. My Javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> var redirectUrl = '<%= redirectUrl %>'; function pageLoad() { tinyMCE.init({ mode: "exact", elements: "ctl00_mainContent_tbDescription", theme: "advanced", plugins: "table,advhr,advimage,iespell,insertdatetime,preview,searchreplace,print,contextmenu,paste,fullscreen", theme_advanced_buttons1_add_before: "preview,separator", theme_advanced_buttons1: "bold,italic,underline,separator,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright, justifyfull,bullist,numlist,undo,redo,link,unlink,separator,styleselect,formatselect", theme_advanced_buttons2: "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,separator,removeformat,cleanup,charmap,search,replace,separator,iespell,code,fullscreen", theme_advanced_buttons2_add_before: "", theme_advanced_buttons3: "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location: "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align: "left", extended_valid_elements: "a[name|href|target|title|onclick],img[class|src|border=0|alt|title|hspace|vspace|width|height|align|onmouseover|onmouseout|name],hr[class|width|size|noshade],font[face|size|color|style],span[class|align|style]", paste_auto_cleanup_on_paste: true, paste_convert_headers_to_strong: true, button_tile_map: true }); tinyMCE.triggerSave(false, true); tiny_mce_editor = tinyMCE.get('ctl00_mainContent_tbDescription'); var newData = tiny_mce_editor.getContent(); tinyMCE.execCommand('mceRemoveControl', false, 'your_textarea_name'); //QJqueryUI dialog stuff }</script> Now my current code doesn't have the tinyMCE.execCommand("mceAddControl",true,'content'); which that one question indicated should also be added. I did try adding it but, again, wasn't sure where to put it and just putting it in the page_load seemed to have no effect. Textbox control: <asp:TextBox ID="tbDescription" runat="server" TextMode="MultiLine" Width="500px" Height="175px"></asp:TextBox><br /> How can I get these values so that the code behind can actually get what is typed in the textarea and my validator won't come up as saying it's empty? Even after async postbacks, since I have multiple buttons on the form that update it prior to actual submission. Thanks! Edit: For further clarification I have form validation on the back-end like so: If tbDescription.Text = "" Or tbDescription.Text Is Nothing Then lblDescriptionError.Text = "You must enter a description." isError = True Else lblDescriptionError.Text = "" End If And this error will always cause the error message to be dispalyed. Edit: Alright I am getting desperate here, I have spent hours on this. I finally found what I thought to be a winner on experts exchange which states the following (there was a part about encoding the value in xml, but I skipped that): For anyone who wants to use tinyMCE with AJAX.Net: Append begin/end handlers to the AJAX Request object. These will remove the tinyMCE control before sending the data (begin), and it will recreate the tinyMCE control (end): Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().add_beginRequest(function(sender, args) { var edID = "<%=this.ClientID%>_rte_tmce"; // the id of your textbox/textarea. var ed = tinyMCE.getInstanceById(edID); if (ed) { tinyMCE.execCommand('mceFocus', false, edID); tinyMCE.execCommand('mceRemoveControl', false, edID); } }); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().add_endRequest(function(sender, args) { var edID = "<%=this.ClientID%>_rte_tmce"; var ed = tinyMCE.getInstanceById(edID); if (ed) { tinyMCE.execCommand('mceAddControl', false, edID); } }); When the user changes/blurs from the tinyMCE control, we want to ensure that the textarea/textbox gets updated properly: ed.onChange.add(function(ed, l) { tinyMCE.triggerSave(true, true); }); Now I have tried this code putting it in its own script tag, putting the begin and end requests into their own script tags and putting the ed.onChange in the page_load, putting everything in the page_load, and putting all 3 in it's own script tag. In all cases it never worked, and even sometimes broke the jquery that is also in my page_load... (and yes I changed the above code to fit my page) Can anyone get this to work or offer a solution?

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  • What does Ruby have that Python doesn't, and vice versa?

    - by Lennart Regebro
    There is a lot of discussions of Python vs Ruby, and I all find them completely unhelpful, because they all turn around why feature X sucks in language Y, or that claim language Y doesn't have X, although in fact it does. I also know exactly why I prefer Python, but that's also subjective, and wouldn't help anybody choosing, as they might not have the same tastes in development as I do. It would therefore be interesting to list the differences, objectively. So no "Python's lambdas sucks". Instead explain what Ruby's lambdas can do that Python's can't. No subjectivity. Example code is good! Don't have several differences in one answer, please. And vote up the ones you know are correct, and down those you know are incorrect (or are subjective). Also, differences in syntax is not interesting. We know Python does with indentation what Ruby does with brackets and ends, and that @ is called self in Python. UPDATE: This is now a community wiki, so we can add the big differences here. Ruby has a class reference in the class body In Ruby you have a reference to the class (self) already in the class body. In Python you don't have a reference to the class until after the class construction is finished. An example: class Kaka puts self end self in this case is the class, and this code would print out "Kaka". There is no way to print out the class name or in other ways access the class from the class definition body in Python. All classes are mutable in Ruby This lets you develop extensions to core classes. Here's an example of a rails extension: class String def starts_with?(other) head = self[0, other.length] head == other end end Ruby has Perl-like scripting features Ruby has first class regexps, $-variables, the awk/perl line by line input loop and other features that make it more suited to writing small shell scripts that munge text files or act as glue code for other programs. Ruby has first class continuations Thanks to the callcc statement. In Python you can create continuations by various techniques, but there is no support built in to the language. Ruby has blocks With the "do" statement you can create a multi-line anonymous function in Ruby, which will be passed in as an argument into the method in front of do, and called from there. In Python you would instead do this either by passing a method or with generators. Ruby: amethod { |here| many=lines+of+code goes(here) } Python: def function(here): many=lines+of+code goes(here) amethod(function) Interestingly, the convenience statement in Ruby for calling a block is called "yield", which in Python will create a generator. Ruby: def themethod yield 5 end themethod do |foo| puts foo end Python: def themethod(): yield 5 for foo in themethod: print foo Although the principles are different, the result is strikingly similar. Python has built-in generators (which are used like Ruby blocks, as noted above) Python has support for generators in the language. In Ruby you could use the generator module that uses continuations to create a generator from a block. Or, you could just use a block/proc/lambda! Moreover, in Ruby 1.9 Fibers are, and can be used as, generators. docs.python.org has this generator example: def reverse(data): for index in range(len(data)-1, -1, -1): yield data[index] Contrast this with the above block examples. Python has flexible name space handling In Ruby, when you import a file with require, all the things defined in that file will end up in your global namespace. This causes namespace pollution. The solution to that is Rubys modules. But if you create a namespace with a module, then you have to use that namespace to access the contained classes. In Python, the file is a module, and you can import its contained names with from themodule import *, thereby polluting the namespace if you want. But you can also import just selected names with from themodule import aname, another or you can simply import themodule and then access the names with themodule.aname. If you want more levels in your namespace you can have packages, which are directories with modules and an __init__.py file. Python has docstrings Docstrings are strings that are attached to modules, functions and methods and can be introspected at runtime. This helps for creating such things as the help command and automatic documentation. def frobnicate(bar): """frobnicate takes a bar and frobnicates it >>> bar = Bar() >>> bar.is_frobnicated() False >>> frobnicate(bar) >>> bar.is_frobnicated() True """ Python has more libraries Python has a vast amount of available modules and bindings for libraries. Python has multiple inheritance Ruby does not ("on purpose" -- see Ruby's website, see here how it's done in Ruby). It does reuse the module concept as a sort of abstract classes. Python has list/dict comprehensions Python: res = [x*x for x in range(1, 10)] Ruby: res = (0..9).map { |x| x * x } Python: >>> (x*x for x in range(10)) <generator object <genexpr> at 0xb7c1ccd4> >>> list(_) [0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81] Ruby: p = proc { |x| x * x } (0..9).map(&p) Python: >>> {x:str(y*y) for x,y in {1:2, 3:4}.items()} {1: '4', 3: '16'} Ruby: >> Hash[{1=>2, 3=>4}.map{|x,y| [x,(y*y).to_s]}] => {1=>"4", 3=>"16"} Python has decorators Things similar to decorators can be created in Ruby, and it can also be argued that they aren't as necessary as in Python.

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  • Embedding mercurial revision information in Visual Studio c# projects automatically

    - by Mark Booth
    Original Problem In building our projects, I want the mercurial id of each repository to be embedded within the product(s) of that repository (the library, application or test application). I find it makes it so much easier to debug an application ebing run by custiomers 8 timezones away if you know precisely what went into building the particular version of the application they are using. As such, every project (application or library) in our systems implement a way of getting at the associated revision information. I also find it very useful to be able to see if an application has been compiled with clean (un-modified) changesets from the repository. 'Hg id' usefully appends a + to the changeset id when there are uncommitted changes in a repository, so this allows is to easily see if people are running a clean or a modified version of the code. My current solution is detailed below, and fulfills the basic requirements, but there are a number of problems with it. Current Solution At the moment, to each and every Visual Studio solution, I add the following "Pre-build event command line" commands: cd $(ProjectDir) HgID I also add an HgID.bat file to the Project directory: @echo off type HgId.pre > HgId.cs For /F "delims=" %%a in ('hg id') Do <nul >>HgID.cs set /p = @"%%a" echo ; >> HgId.cs echo } >> HgId.cs echo } >> HgId.cs along with an HgId.pre file, which is defined as: namespace My.Namespace { /// <summary> Auto generated Mercurial ID class. </summary> internal class HgID { /// <summary> Mercurial version ID [+ is modified] [Named branch]</summary> public const string Version = When I build my application, the pre-build event is triggered on all libraries, creating a new HgId.cs file (which is not kept under revision control) and causing the library to be re-compiled with with the new 'hg id' string in 'Version'. Problems with the current solution The main problem is that since the HgId.cs is re-created at each pre-build, every time we need to compile anything, all projects in the current solution are re-compiled. Since we want to be able to easily debug into our libraries, we usually keep many libraries referenced in our main application solution. This can result in build times which are significantly longer than I would like. Ideally I would like the libraries to compile only if the contents of the HgId.cs file has actually changed, as opposed to having been re-created with exactly the same contents. The second problem with this method is it's dependence on specific behaviour of the windows shell. I've already had to modify the batch file several times, since the original worked under XP but not Vista, the next version worked under Vista but not XP and finally I managed to make it work with both. Whether it will work with Windows 7 however is anyones guess and as time goes on, I see it more likely that contractors will expect to be able to build our apps on their Windows 7 boxen. Finally, I have an aesthetic problem with this solution, batch files and bodged together template files feel like the wrong way to do this. My actual questions How would you solve/how are you solving the problem I'm trying to solve? What better options are out there than what I'm currently doing? Rejected Solutions to these problems Before I implemented the current solution, I looked at Mercurials Keyword extension, since it seemed like the obvious solution. However the more I looked at it and read peoples opinions, the more that I came to the conclusion that it wasn't the right thing to do. I also remember the problems that keyword substitution has caused me in projects at previous companies (just the thought of ever having to use Source Safe again fills me with a feeling of dread *8'). Also, I don't particularly want to have to enable Mercurial extensions to get the build to complete. I want the solution to be self contained, so that it isn't easy for the application to be accidentally compiled without the embedded version information just because an extension isn't enabled or the right helper software hasn't been installed. I also thought of writing this in a better scripting language, one where I would only write HgId.cs file if the content had actually changed, but all of the options I could think of would require my co-workers, contractors and possibly customers to have to install software they might not otherwise want (for example cygwin). Any other options people can think of would be appreciated. Update Partial solution Having played around with it for a while, I've managed to get the HgId.bat file to only overwrite the HgId.cs file if it changes: @echo off type HgId.pre > HgId.cst For /F "delims=" %%a in ('hg id') Do <nul >>HgId.cst set /p = @"%%a" echo ; >> HgId.cst echo } >> HgId.cst echo } >> HgId.cst fc HgId.cs HgId.cst >NUL if %errorlevel%==0 goto :ok copy HgId.cst HgId.cs :ok del HgId.cst Problems with this solution Even though HgId.cs is no longer being re-created every time, Visual Studio still insists on compiling everything every time. I've tried looking for solutions and tried checking "Only build startup projects and dependencies on Run" in Tools|Options|Projects and Solutions|Build and Run but it makes no difference. The second problem also remains, and now I have no way to test if it will work with Vista, since that contractor is no longer with us. If anyone can test this batch file on a Windows 7 and/or Vista box, I would appreciate hearing how it went. Finally, my aesthetic problem with this solution, is even strnger than it was before, since the batch file is more complex and this there is now more to go wrong. If you can think of any better solution, I would love to hear about them.

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  • compile time if && return string reference optimization

    - by Truncheon
    Hi. I'm writing a series classes that inherit from a base class using virtual. They are INT, FLOAT and STRING objects that I want to use in a scripting language. I'm trying to implement weak typing, but I don't want STRING objects to return copies of themselves when used in the following way (instead I would prefer to have a reference returned which can be used in copying): a = "hello "; b = "world"; c = a + b; I have written the following code as a mock example: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> std::string dummy("<int object cannot return string reference>"); struct BaseImpl { virtual bool is_string() = 0; virtual int get_int() = 0; virtual std::string get_string_copy() = 0; virtual std::string const& get_string_ref() = 0; }; struct INT : BaseImpl { int value; INT(int i = 0) : value(i) { std::cout << "constructor called\n"; } INT(BaseImpl& that) : value(that.get_int()) { std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } bool is_string() { return false; } int get_int() { return value; } std::string get_string_copy() { char buf[33]; sprintf(buf, "%i", value); return buf; } std::string const& get_string_ref() { return dummy; } }; struct STRING : BaseImpl { std::string value; STRING(std::string s = "") : value(s) { std::cout << "constructor called\n"; } STRING(BaseImpl& that) { if (that.is_string()) value = that.get_string_ref(); else value = that.get_string_copy(); std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } bool is_string() { return true; } int get_int() { return atoi(value.c_str()); } std::string get_string_copy() { return value; } std::string const& get_string_ref() { return value; } }; struct Base { BaseImpl* impl; Base(BaseImpl* p = 0) : impl(p) {} ~Base() { delete impl; } }; int main() { Base b1(new INT(1)); Base b2(new STRING("Hello world")); Base b3(new INT(*b1.impl)); Base b4(new STRING(*b2.impl)); std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; return 0; } It was necessary to add an if check in the STRING class to determine whether its safe to request a reference instead of a copy: Script code: a = "test"; b = a; c = 1; d = "" + c; /* not safe to request reference by standard */ C++ code: STRING(BaseImpl& that) { if (that.is_string()) value = that.get_string_ref(); else value = that.get_string_copy(); std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } If was hoping there's a way of moving that if check into compile time, rather than run time.

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  • how to avoid temporaries when copying weakly typed object

    - by Truncheon
    Hi. I'm writing a series classes that inherit from a base class using virtual. They are INT, FLOAT and STRING objects that I want to use in a scripting language. I'm trying to implement weak typing, but I don't want STRING objects to return copies of themselves when used in the following way (instead I would prefer to have a reference returned which can be used in copying): a = "hello "; b = "world"; c = a + b; I have written the following code as a mock example: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> std::string dummy("<int object cannot return string reference>"); struct BaseImpl { virtual bool is_string() = 0; virtual int get_int() = 0; virtual std::string get_string_copy() = 0; virtual std::string const& get_string_ref() = 0; }; struct INT : BaseImpl { int value; INT(int i = 0) : value(i) { std::cout << "constructor called\n"; } INT(BaseImpl& that) : value(that.get_int()) { std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } bool is_string() { return false; } int get_int() { return value; } std::string get_string_copy() { char buf[33]; sprintf(buf, "%i", value); return buf; } std::string const& get_string_ref() { return dummy; } }; struct STRING : BaseImpl { std::string value; STRING(std::string s = "") : value(s) { std::cout << "constructor called\n"; } STRING(BaseImpl& that) { if (that.is_string()) value = that.get_string_ref(); else value = that.get_string_copy(); std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } bool is_string() { return true; } int get_int() { return atoi(value.c_str()); } std::string get_string_copy() { return value; } std::string const& get_string_ref() { return value; } }; struct Base { BaseImpl* impl; Base(BaseImpl* p = 0) : impl(p) {} ~Base() { delete impl; } }; int main() { Base b1(new INT(1)); Base b2(new STRING("Hello world")); Base b3(new INT(*b1.impl)); Base b4(new STRING(*b2.impl)); std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; return 0; } It was necessary to add an if check in the STRING class to determine whether its safe to request a reference instead of a copy: Script code: a = "test"; b = a; c = 1; d = "" + c; /* not safe to request reference by standard */ C++ code: STRING(BaseImpl& that) { if (that.is_string()) value = that.get_string_ref(); else value = that.get_string_copy(); std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } If was hoping there's a way of moving that if check into compile time, rather than run time.

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