null pointer - Page 801

How to close all, or only some, tabs in Safari using AppleScript?

- by Form

I have made a very simple AppleScript to close all tabs in Safari. The problem is, it works, but not completely. The problem is that only a couple of tabs are closed. Here's the code: tell application "Safari" repeat with aWindow in windows repeat with aTab in tabs of aWindow if [some condition is encountered] then aTab close end if end repeat end repeat end tell I've also tried this script: tell application "Safari" repeat with i from 0 to the number of items in windows set aWindow to item i of windows repeat with j from 0 to the number of tabs in aWindow set aTab to item j of tabs of aWindow if [some condition is encountered] then aTab close end if end repeat end repeat end tell ... but it does not work either (same behavior). I tried that on my system (MacBook Pro jan 2008), as well as on a Mac Pro G5 under Tiger and the script fails on both, albeit with a much less descriptive error on Tiger. Running the script a few times closes a few tab each time until none is left, but always fails with the same error after closing a few tabs. Under Leopard I get an out of bounds error. Since I am using fast enumeration (not using "repeat from 0 to number of items in windows") I don't see how I can get an out of bounds error with this... My goal is to use the Cocoa Scripting Bridge to close tabs in Safari from my Objective-C Cocoa application but the Scripting Bridge fails in the same manner. The non-deletable tabs show as NULL in the Xcode debugger, while the other tabs are valid objects from which I can get values back (such as their title). In fact I tried with the Scripting Bridge first then told myself why not try this directly in AppleScript and I was surprised to see the same results. I must have a glaring omission or something in there... (seems like a bug in Safari AppleScript support to me... :S) I've used repeat loops and Obj-C 2.0 fast enumeration to iterate through collections before with zero problems, so I really don't see what's wrong here. Anyone can help? Thanks in advance!

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Getting HIERARCHY_REQUEST_ERR when using Javascript to recursively generate a nested list

- by Mark

I have a method that is trying to take in a list. This list can contain data and other lists. The end goal is to try to convert something like this ["a", "b", ["c", "d"]] into <ol> <li> <b>a</a> </li> <li> <b>b</a> </li> <ol> <li> <b>c</a> </li> <li> <b>d</a> </li> </ol> </ol> The code is: function $(tagName) { return document.createElement(tagName); } //returns an html element representing data //data should be an array or some sort of value function tagMaker(data) { tag = null; if(data instanceof Array) { //data is an array, represent using <ol> tag = $("ol"); for(i=0; i<data.length; i++) { //construct one <li> for each item in the array listItem = $("li"); //get the html element representing this particular item in the array child = tagMaker(data[i]); //<li>*html for child*</li> listItem.appendChild(child); //add this item to the list tag.appendChild(listItem); } } else { //data is not an array, represent using <b>data</b> tag = $("b"); tag.innerHTML = data.toString(); } return tag; } Calling tagMaker throws HIERARCHY_REQUEST_ERR: DOM Exception 3, rather than generating a helpful HTML element object which I was planning to append to document.body.

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CKEdtior not displaying

- by user1708468

I am trying to integrate CKEditor into a MVC application. As far as I can tell all I should really have to do is. Add the following to my master page. <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/jscript" src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> Then on my view itself. I have the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#news').ckeditor(); }); </script> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="title">Title:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("title")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("title", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="news">News:</label> <%=Html.TextArea("news")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("news", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="publishedDate">Publication Date:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("publishedDate") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("publishedDate", "*") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> Please bear in mind I am not trying to get this to actually DO anything postback wise. Just to actually render in the first place. Can someone point out exactly what it is I am doing wrong? Oh and if it helps any VS is also giving me the following warning: Warning 1 Error updating JScript IntelliSense: ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\ckeditor\ckeditor.js: 'getFirst()' is null or not an object @ 15:180 ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\Views\Shared\Admin.Master 1 1 ilaTraining

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Redirecting users in JSP from within a includes - java syntax error

- by Mark Hazlett

Hey everyone, So my setup for my web application is that I have a general header and footer and then I just include them in all my other pages so that all the common elements for all the pages are in a single page. The only problem I'm running into is when I want to redirect the user back to a login page if the "username" session has not already been created. The problem that I"m running into is that I have an if statement at the top of my header.jsp and then I have the else in the footer.jsp and it is giving me a java syntax error. Any ideas? Here is the code I'm referring to... <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <% if(session.getAttribute("username") != null) { %> <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1">  <link rel="stylesheet" href="../CSS/headerStyle.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <title>Insert title here</title> </head> <body> <div id="container"> <div id="header"> <div id="headerTitle">Title</div> </div> </div> <%} %> And then here is the footer <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="../CSS/headerStyle.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </head> <body> <div id="footer"></div> </body> </html> <% else { response.sendRedirect("../wa_login/login.jsp"); } %> However it is giving me an error on the else statement because the else doesn't have an if statement because it's in the header file.

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Can I use this Ajax script to communicate and exchange data between client and server?

- by lala

This block of code is for client.html (it is located in this www.client.com/client.html) - client side. The I have the code below that goes something like this: ajaxRequest.open("GET", "http://www.server.com/ajax.php", true); This is how I call the file ajax.php located in the server. Unfortunately I have no luck at all. It cannot connect to the server I'm calling. BTW, the ips /test site I've been using are all no restrictions, and is accessible to all. However, I tried to simulate by putting both client.html and ajax.php in same site and it works well. So my question is does this script works only if you are in same site? or does it work also in client-server scenario? What else do I have to do in order to make this work? //client.html <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript">  </script> <form name='myForm'> Name: <input type='text' onChange="ajaxFunction();" name='username' /> <br /> Time: <input type='text' name='time' /> </form> </body> </html> // ajax.php <?php echo date("H:i:s"); ?>

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Binding on a port with netpipes/netcat

- by mindas

I am trying to write a simple bash script that is listening on a port and responding with a trivial HTTP response. My specific issue is that I am not sure if the port is available and in case of bind failure I fall back to next port until bind succeeds. So far to me the easiest way to achieve this was something like: for (( i=$PORT_BASE; i < $(($PORT_BASE+$PORT_RANGE)); i++ )) do if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo trying to bind on $i fi /usr/bin/faucet $i --out --daemon echo test 2>/dev/null if [ $? -eq 0 ] ; then #success? port=$i if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo "bound on port $port" fi break fi done Here I am using faucet from netpipes Ubuntu package. The problem with this is that if I simply print "test" to the output, curl complains about non-standard HTTP response (error code 18). That's fair enough as I don't print HTTP-compatible response. If I replace echo test with echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest", curl still complains: user@server:$ faucet 10020 --out --daemon echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest" ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 curl: (56) Failure when receiving data from the peer I think the problem lies in how faucet is printing the response and handling the connection. For example if I do the server side in netcat, curl works fine: user@server:$ echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest\r\n" | nc -l 10020 ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 test user@client:$ I would be more than happy to replace faucet with netcat in my main script, but the problem is that I want to spawn independent server process to be able to run client from the same base shell. faucet has a very handy --daemon parameter as it forks to background and I can use $? (exit status code) to check if bind succeeded. If I was to use netcat for a similar purpose, I would have to fork it using & and $? would not work. Does anybody know why faucet isn't responding correctly in this particular case and/or can suggest a solution to this problem. I am not married neither to faucet nor netcat but would like the solution to be implemented using bash or it's utilities (as opposed to write something in yet another scripting language, such as Perl or Python).

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EBCDIC to ASCII conversion. Out of bound error. In C#.

- by mekrizzy

I tried creating a EBCDIC to ASCII convector in C# using this general conversion order(given below). Basically the program converted from ASCII to the equivalent integer and from there into EDCDIC using the order below. Now when I try compiling this in C# and try giving a EBCDIC string(got this from another file from another computer) it is showing 'Out of Bound' exception for some of the EBCDIC character. Why is this like this?? Is it about formating?? or C# ?? or windows? Extra: I tried just printing out all the ASCII and EBCDIC characters using a loop from 0..255 numbers but still its not showing many of the EBCDIC characters. Am I missing any standards? int[] eb2as = new int[256]{ 0, 1, 2, 3,156, 9,134,127,151,141,142, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19,157,133, 8,135, 24, 25,146,143, 28, 29, 30, 31, 128,129,130,131,132, 10, 23, 27,136,137,138,139,140, 5, 6, 7, 144,145, 22,147,148,149,150, 4,152,153,154,155, 20, 21,158, 26, 32,160,161,162,163,164,165,166,167,168, 91, 46, 60, 40, 43, 33, 38,169,170,171,172,173,174,175,176,177, 93, 36, 42, 41, 59, 94, 45, 47,178,179,180,181,182,183,184,185,124, 44, 37, 95, 62, 63, 186,187,188,189,190,191,192,193,194, 96, 58, 35, 64, 39, 61, 34, 195, 97, 98, 99,100,101,102,103,104,105,196,197,198,199,200,201, 202,106,107,108,109,110,111,112,113,114,203,204,205,206,207,208, 209,126,115,116,117,118,119,120,121,122,210,211,212,213,214,215, 216,217,218,219,220,221,222,223,224,225,226,227,228,229,230,231, 123, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, 73,232,233,234,235,236,237, 125, 74, 75, 76, 77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82,238,239,240,241,242,243, 92,159, 83, 84, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 90,244,245,246,247,248,249, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57,250,251,252,253,254,255 }; The whole code is as follows: public string convertFromEBCDICtoASCII(string inputEBCDICString, int initialPos, int endPos) { string inputSubString = inputEBCDICString.Substring(initialPos, endPos); int[] e2a = new int[256]{ 0, 1, 2, 3,156, 9,134,127,151,141,142, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19,157,133, 8,135, 24, 25,146,143, 28, 29, 30, 31, 128,129,130,131,132, 10, 23, 27,136,137,138,139,140, 5, 6, 7, 144,145, 22,147,148,149,150, 4,152,153,154,155, 20, 21,158, 26, 32,160,161,162,163,164,165,166,167,168, 91, 46, 60, 40, 43, 33, 38,169,170,171,172,173,174,175,176,177, 93, 36, 42, 41, 59, 94, 45, 47,178,179,180,181,182,183,184,185,124, 44, 37, 95, 62, 63, 186,187,188,189,190,191,192,193,194, 96, 58, 35, 64, 39, 61, 34, 195, 97, 98, 99,100,101,102,103,104,105,196,197,198,199,200,201, 202,106,107,108,109,110,111,112,113,114,203,204,205,206,207,208, 209,126,115,116,117,118,119,120,121,122,210,211,212,213,214,215, 216,217,218,219,220,221,222,223,224,225,226,227,228,229,230,231, 123, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, 73,232,233,234,235,236,237, 125, 74, 75, 76, 77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82,238,239,240,241,242,243, 92,159, 83, 84, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 90,244,245,246,247,248,249, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57,250,251,252,253,254,255 }; char chrItem = Convert.ToChar("0"); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i < inputSubString.Length; i++) { try { chrItem = Convert.ToChar(inputSubString.Substring(i, 1)); sb.Append(Convert.ToChar(e2a[(int)chrItem])); sb.Append((int)chrItem); sb.Append((int)00); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("//" + ex.Message); return string.Empty; } } string result = sb.ToString(); sb = null; return result; }

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DataGridView cells not editable when using an outside thread call

- by joslinm

Hi, I'm not able to edit my datagridview cells when a number of identical calls takes place on another thread. Here's the situation: Dataset table is created in the main window The program receives in files and processes them on a background thread in class TorrentBuilder : BackgroundWorker creating an array objects of another class Torrent My program receives those objects from the BW result and adds them into the dataset The above happens either on my main window thread or in another thread: I have a separate thread watching a folder for files to come in, and when they do come in, they proceed to call TorrentBuilder.RunWorkerAsynch() from that thread, receive the result, and call an outside class that adds the Torrent objects into the table. When the files are received by the latter thread, the datagridview isn't editable. All of the values come up properly into the datagridview, but when I click on a cell to edit it: I can write letters and everything, but when I click out of it, it immediately reverts back to its original value. If I restart the program, I can edit the same cells just fine. If the values are freshly added from the main window thread, I can edit the cells just fine. The outside thread is called from my main window thread, and sits there in the background. I don't believe it to be ReadOnly because I would have gotten an exception. Here's some code: From my main window class: private void dataGridView_DragDrop(object sender, DragEventArgs e) { ArrayList al = new ArrayList(); string[] files = (string[])e.Data.GetData(DataFormats.FileDrop); foreach (string file in files) { string extension = Path.GetExtension(file); if (Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".zip") || Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".rar")) { foreach (string unzipped in dh.UnzipFile(file)) al.Add(unzipped); } else if (Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".torrent")) { al.Add(file); } } dataGridViewProgressBar.Visible = true; tb.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(tb_DragDropCompleted); tb.ProgressChanged += new ProgressChangedEventHandler(tb_DragDropProgress); tb.RunWorkerAsync() } void tb_DragDropCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { data.AddTorrents((Torrent[])e.Result); builder.Dispose(); dh.MoveProcessedFiles(data); dataGridViewProgressBar.Visible = false; } From my outside Thread while (autocheck) { if (torrentFiles != null) { builder.RunWorkerAsync(torrentFiles); while (builder.IsBusy) Thread.Sleep(500); } } void builder_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { data.AddTorrents((Torrent[])e.Result); builder.Dispose(); dh.MoveProcessedFiles(xml); data.Save(); //Save just does an `AcceptChanges()` and saves to a XML file }

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Achieving C# "readonly" behavior in C++

- by Tommy Fisk

Hi guys, this is my first question on stack overflow, so be gentle. Let me first explain the exact behavior I would like to see. If you are familiar with C# then you know that declaring a variable as "readonly" allows a programmer to assign some value to that variable exactly once. Further attempts to modify the variable will result in an error. What I am after: I want to make sure that any and all single-ton classes I define can be predictably instantiated exactly once in my program (more details at the bottom). My approach to realizing my goal is to use extern to declare a global reference to the single-ton (which I will later instantiate at a time I choose. What I have sort of looks like this, namespace Global { extern Singleton& mainInstance; // not defined yet, but it will be later! } int main() { // now that the program has started, go ahead and create the singleton object Singleton& Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // invalid use of qualified name Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // doesn't work either :( } class Singleton { /* Some details ommited */ public: Singleton& GetInstance() { static Singleton instance; // exists once for the whole program return instance; } } However this does not really work, and I don't know where to go from here. Some details about what I'm up against: I'm concerned about threading as I am working on code that will deal with game logic while communicating with several third-party processes and other processes I will create. Eventually I would have to implement some kind of synchronization so multiple threads could access the information in the Singleton class without worry. Because I don't know what kinds of optimizations I might like to do, or exactly what threading entails (never done a real project using it), I was thinking that being able to predictably control when Singletons were instantiated would be a Good Thing. Imagine if Process A creates Process B, where B contains several Singletons distributed against multiple files and/or libraries. It could be a real nightmare if I can not reliably ensure the order these singleton objects are instantiated (because they could depend on each other, and calling methods on a NULL object is generally a Bad Thing). If I were in C# I would just use the readonly keyword, but is there any way I can implement this (compiler supported) behavior in C++? Is this even a good idea? Thanks for any feedback.

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Counting number of searches

- by shinjuo

I am trying to figure out how to get the total number of tests each search makes in this algorithm. I am not sure how I can pass that information back from this algorithm though. I need to count how many times while runs and then pass that number back into an array to be added together and determine the average number of test. main.c #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <time.h> #include <stdbool.h> #include "percentage.h" #include "sequentialSearch.h" #define searchAmount 100 int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int numbers[100]; int searches[searchAmount]; int i; int where; int searchSuccess; int searchUnsuccess; int percent; srand(time(NULL)); for (i = 0; i < 100; i++){ numbers[i] = rand() % 200; } for (i = 0; i < searchAmount; i++){ searches[i] = rand() % 200; } searchUnsuccess = 0; searchSuccess = 0; for(i = 0; i < searchAmount; i++){ if(seqSearch(numbers, 100, searches[i], &where)){ searchSuccess++; }else{ searchUnsuccess++; } } percent = percentRate(searchSuccess, searchAmount); printf("Total number of searches: %d\n", searchAmount); printf("Total successful searches: %d\n", searchSuccess); printf("Success Rate: %d%%\n", percent); system("PAUSE"); return 0; } sequentialSearch.h bool seqSearch (int list[], int last, int target, int* locn){ int looker; looker = 0; while(looker < last && target != list[looker]){ looker++; } *locn = looker; return(target == list[looker]); }

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Udp server sending only 0 bytes of data

- by mawia

Hi all, This is a simple Udp server.I am trying to transmit data to some clients,but unfortunetly it is unable to transmit data.Though send is running quite successfully but it is returning with a return value meaning it has send nothing.On the client they are receiving but again obviously,zero bytes. void* UdpServerStreamToClients(void *fileToServe) { int sockfd,n=0,k; struct sockaddr_in servaddr,cliaddr; socklen_t len; char dataToSend[1000]; sockfd=socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM,0); bzero(&servaddr,sizeof(servaddr)); servaddr.sin_family = AF_INET; servaddr.sin_addr.s_addr=htonl(INADDR_ANY); servaddr.sin_port=htons(32000); bind(sockfd,(struct sockaddr *)&servaddr,sizeof(servaddr)); FILE *fp; if((fp=fopen((char*)fileToServe,"r"))==NULL) { printf("can not open file "); perror("fopen"); exit(1); } int dataRead=1; while(dataRead) { len = sizeof(cliaddr); if((dataRead=fread(dataToSend,1,500,fp))<0) { perror("fread"); exit(1); } //sleep(2); for(list<clientInfo>::iterator it=clients.begin();it!=clients.end();it++) { cliaddr.sin_family = AF_INET; inet_aton(inet_ntoa(it->addr.sin_addr),&cliaddr.sin_addr); cliaddr.sin_port = htons(it->udp_port); n=sendto(sockfd,dataToSend,sizeof(dataToSend),0,(struct sockaddr *)&cliaddr,len); cout<<"number of bytes send by udp: "<< n << endl; printf("SEND this message %d : %s to %s :%d \n",n,dataToSend,inet_ntoa(cliaddr.sin_addr), ntohs(cliaddr.sin_port)); } } } I am checking the value of sizeof(dataTosend) and it is pretty much as expected ie thousand ie the size of buffer. Are you people seeing some possible flaw in it. All of the help in this regard will be appreciated. Thanks!

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making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

- by user3081123

I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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Defining a select list through controller and view model

- by Ibrar Hussain

I have a View Model that looks like this: public class SomeViewModel { public SomeViewModel(IEnumerable<SelectListItem> orderTemplatesListItems) { OrderTemplateListItems = orderTemplatesListItems; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> OrderTemplateListItems { get; set; } } I then have an Action in my Controller that does this: public ActionResult Index() { var items = _repository.GetTemplates(); var selectList = items.Select(i => new SelectListItem { Text = i.Name, Value = i.Id.ToString() }).ToList(); var viewModel = new SomeViewModel { OrderTemplateListItems = selectList }; return View(viewModel); } Lastly my view: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text"), "Please select an order template") The code works fine and my select list populates wonderfully. Next thing I need to do is set the selected value that will come from a Session["orderTemplateId"] which is set when the user selects a particular option from the list. Now after looking online the fourth parameter should allow me to set a selected value, so if I do this: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text", 56), "Please select an order template") 56 is the Id of the item that I want selected, but to no avail. I then thought why not do it in the Controller? As a final attempt I tried building up my select list items in my Controller and then passing the items into the View: public ActionResult Index() { var items = _repository.GetTemplates(); var orderTemplatesList = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (var item in items) { if (Session["orderTemplateId"] != null) { if (item.Id.ToString() == Session["orderTemplateId"].ToString()) { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString(), Selected = true }); } else { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString() }); } } else { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString() }); } } var viewModel = new SomeViewModel { OrderTemplateListItems = orderTemplatesList }; return View(viewModel); } Leaving my View like so: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text"), "Please select an order template") Nothing! Why isn't this working for me?

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JAVA: Can't get context parameters in Filter

- by DaTval

Hello, I have a filter and parameters in web.xml web.xml is like this: <filter> <description> </description> <display-name>AllClassFilter</display-name> <filter-name>AllClassFilter</filter-name> <filter-class>com.datval.homework.AllClassFilter</filter-class> <init-param> <param-name>DB_URL</param-name> <param-value>jdbc:derby:C:/Users/admin/workspace/homework03/homework/databases/StudentsDB;create=true</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>DB_DIALECT</param-name> <param-value>org.hibernate.dialect.DerbyDialect</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>DB_DRIVER</param-name> <param-value>org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver</param-value> </init-param> </filter> mapping is working well. But I can't get this parameters in my filter. public void init(FilterConfig config) throws ServletException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub debugMessage = config.getInitParameter("debugMessage"); ctx = config.getServletContext(); } public void doFilter(ServletRequest request, ServletResponse response, FilterChain chain) throws IOException, ServletException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // place your code here ctx.log("Start - " + debugMessage); String myDbUrl = ctx.getInitParameter("DB_URL"); String DB_DIALECT = ctx.getInitParameter("DB_DIALECT"); String DB_DRIVER = ctx.getInitParameter("DB_DRIVER"); Map<String,String> pr = new HashMap<String,String>(); pr.put("hibernate.connection.url", myDbUrl); pr.put("hibernate.dialect", DB_DIALECT); pr.put("hibernate.connection.driver_class", DB_DRIVER); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("students",pr); EntityManager em = emf.createEntityManager(); request.setAttribute("em", em); chain.doFilter(request, response); em.close(); ctx.log("end - " + debugMessage); } I have checked and myDbUrl is null. What I'm doing wrong? Any idea? Sorry about code, I will change it later :)

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Hot to get rid of memory allocations/deallocations in swig wrappers?

- by Dmitriy Matveev

I want to use swig for generation of read-only wrappers for a complex object. The object which I want to wrap will always be existent while I will read it. And also I will only use my wrappers at the time that object is existent, thus I don't need any memory management from SWIG. For following swig interface: %module test %immutable; %inline %{ struct Foo { int a; }; struct Bar { int b; Foo f; }; %} I will have a wrappers which will have a lot of garbage in generated interfaces and do useless work which will reduce performance in my case. Generated java wrapper for Bar class will be like this: public class Bar { private long swigCPtr; protected boolean swigCMemOwn; protected Bar(long cPtr, boolean cMemoryOwn) { swigCMemOwn = cMemoryOwn; swigCPtr = cPtr; } protected static long getCPtr(Bar obj) { return (obj == null) ? 0 : obj.swigCPtr; } protected void finalize() { delete(); } public synchronized void delete() { if (swigCPtr != 0) { if (swigCMemOwn) { swigCMemOwn = false; testJNI.delete_Bar(swigCPtr); } swigCPtr = 0; } } public int getB() { return testJNI.Bar_b_get(swigCPtr, this); } public Foo getF() { return new Foo(testJNI.Bar_f_get(swigCPtr, this), true); } public Bar() { this(testJNI.new_Bar(), true); } } I don't need 'swigCMemOwn' field in my wrapper since it always will be false. All code related to this field will also be useless. There are also unnecessary logic in native code: SWIGEXPORT jlong JNICALL Java_some_testJNI_Bar_1f_1get(JNIEnv *jenv, jclass jcls, jlong jarg1, jobject jarg1_) { jlong jresult = 0 ; struct Bar *arg1 = (struct Bar *) 0 ; Foo result; (void)jenv; (void)jcls; (void)jarg1_; arg1 = *(struct Bar **)&jarg1; result = ((arg1)->f); { Foo * resultptr = (Foo *) malloc(sizeof(Foo)); memmove(resultptr, &result, sizeof(Foo)); *(Foo **)&jresult = resultptr; } return jresult; } I don't need these calls to malloc and memmove. I want to force swig to resolve both of these problems, but don't know how. Is it possible?

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How to access the map returned by IParameterValues::getParameterValues()?

- by Hua

I declared a command and a commandParameter for this command. I specified the "values" of this commandParameter as a class implemented by myself. The implementation of this class is below, public class ParameterValues implements IParameterValues { @Override public Map<String, Double> getParameterValues() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Map<String, Double> values = new HashMap<String, Double>(2); values.put("testParam", 1.1239); values.put("AnotherTest", 4.1239); return values; } } The implementation of the handler of this command is blow, public class testHandler extends AbstractHandler implements IHandler { private static String PARAMETER_ID = "my.parameter1"; @Override public Object execute(ExecutionEvent event) throws ExecutionException { String value = event.getParameter(PARAMETER_ID); MessageDialog.openInformation(HandlerUtil.getActiveShell(event), "Test", "Parameter ID: " + PARAMETER_ID + "\nValue: " + value); return null; } } Now, I contribute the command to a menu, <menuContribution locationURI="menu:org.eclipse.ui.main.menu"> <menu id="my.edit" label="Edit"> <command commandId="myCommand.test" label="Test1"> <parameter name="my.parameter1" value="testParam"> </parameter> </command> Since I specified a "values" class for the commandParater, I expect when the menu is clicked, this code line "String value = event.getParameter(PARAMETER_ID);" in the handler class returns 1.1239 instead of "testParam". But, I still see that code line returns "testParam". What's the problem? How could I access the map returned by getParameterValues()? By the way, following menu declaration still works even I don't define "ppp" in the map. <menuContribution locationURI="menu:org.eclipse.ui.main.menu"> <menu id="my.edit" label="Edit"> <command commandId="myCommand.test" label="Test1"> <parameter name="my.parameter1" value="ppp"> </parameter> </command> Thanks!

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Inbreeding-immune database structure

- by Nick Savage

I have an application that requires a "simple" family tree. I would like to be able to perform queries that will give me data for an entire family given one id from a member in the family. I say simple because it does not need to take into account adoption or any other obscurities. The requirements for the application are as follows: Any two people will not be able to breed if they're from the same genetic line Needs to allow for the addition of new family lines (new people with no previous family) Need to be able to pull siblings, parents separately through queries I'm having trouble coming up with the proper structure for the database. So far I've come up with two solutions but they're not very reliable and will probably get out of hand quite quickly. Solution 1 involves placing a family_ids field on the people table and storing a list of unique family ids. Each time two people breed the lists are checked against each other to make sure no ids match and if everything checks out will merge the two lists and set that as the child's family_ids field. Example: Father (family_ids: (null)) breeds with Mother (family_ids: (213, 519)) -> Child (family_ids: (213, 519)) breeds with Random Person (family_ids: (813, 712, 122, 767)) -> Grandchild (family_ids: (213, 519, 813, 712, 122, 767)) And so on and so forth... The problem I see with this is the lists becoming unreasonably large as time goes on. Solution 2 uses cakephp's associations to declare: public $belongsTo = array( 'Father' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'father_id' ), 'Mother' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'mother_id' ) ); Now setting recursive to 2 will fetch the results of the mother and father, along with their mother and father, and so on and so forth all the way down the line. The problem with this route is that the data is in nested arrays and I'm unsure of how to efficiently work through the code. If anyone would be able to steer me in the direction of the most efficient way to handle what I want to achieve that would be tremendously helpful. Any and all help is greatly appreciated and I'll gladly answer any questions anyone has. Thanks a lot.

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What is the best way to reduce code and loop through a hierarchial commission script?

- by JM4

I have a script which currently "works" but is nearly 3600 lines of code and makes well over 50 database calls within a single script. From my experience, there is no way to really "loop" the script and minimize it because each call to the database is a subquery of the ones before based on referral ids. Perhaps I can give a very simple example of what I am trying to accomplish and see if anybody has experience with something similar. In my example, there are three tables: Table 1 - Sellers ID | Comm_level | Parent ----------------------------------- 1 | 4 | NULL 2 | 3 | 1 3 | 2 | 1 4 | 2 | 2 5 | 2 | 2 6 | 1 | 3 Where ID is the id of one of our sales agents, comm_level will determine what his commission percentage is for each product he sells, parent indicates the ID for whom recruited that particular agent. In the example above, 1 is the top agent, he recruited two agents, 2 and 3. 2 recruited two agents, 4 and 5. 3 recruited one agent, 6. NOTE: An agent can NEVER recruit anybody equal to or higher than their own level. Table 2 - Commissions Level | Item 1 | Item 2 | Item 3 ----------------------------------------------------- 4 | .5 | .4 | .3 3 | .45 | .35 | .25 2 | .4 | .3 | .2 1 | .35 | .25 | .15 This table lays out the commission percentages for each agent based on their actual comm_level (if an agent is at a level 4, he will receive 50% on every item 1 sold, 40% on every item 2, 30% on every item 3 and so on. Table 3 - Items Sold ID | Item --------------------- 4 | item_1 4 | item_2 1 | item_1 2 | item_3 6 | item_2 1 | item_3 This table pairs the actual item sold with the seller who sold the item. When generating the commission report, calculating individual values is very simple. Calculating their commission based on their sub_sellers however is very difficult. In this example, Seller ID 1 gets a piece of every single item sold. The commission percentages indicate individual sales or the height of their commission. For example: When seller ID 6 sold one of item_2 above, the tree for commissions will look like the following: -ID 6 - 25% of cost(item_1) -ID 3 - 5% of cost(item_1) - (30% is his comm - 25% comm of seller id 6) -ID 1 - 10% of cost(item_1) - (40% is his comm - 30% of seller id 3) This must be calculated for every agent in the system from the top down (hence the DB calls within while loops throughout my enormous script). Anybody have a good suggestion or samples they may have used in the past?

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.htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

- by 1001001

I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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JQuery Ajax Updating MySQL Database, But Not Running Success Function

- by myrmidon16

I am currently using the JQuery ajax function to call an exterior PHP file, in which I select and add data in a database. Once this is done, I run a success function in JavaScript. What's weird is that the database is updating successfully when ajax is called, however the success function is not running. Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.6.4.js"></script> </head> <body> <div onclick="addtask();" style="width:400px; height:200px; background:#000000;"></div> <script> function addtask() { var tid = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 3)) + 1; var tsk = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 10)) + 1; if(tsk !== 1) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "taskcheck.php", dataType: "json", data: {taskid:tid}, success: function(task) {alert(task.name);} }); } } </script> </body> </html> And the PHP file: session_start(); $connect = mysql_connect('x', 'x', 'x') or die('Not Connecting'); mysql_select_db('x') or die ('No Database Selected'); $task = $_REQUEST['taskid']; $uid = $_SESSION['user_id']; $q = "SELECT task_id, taskname FROM tasks WHERE task_id=" .$task. " LIMIT 1"; $gettask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $q = "INSERT INTO user_tasks (ut_id, user_id, task_id, taskstatus, taskactive) VALUES (null, " .$uid. ", '{$gettask['task_id']}', 0, 1)"; $puttask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $json = array( "name" => $gettask['taskname'] ); $output = json_encode($json); echo $output; Let me know if you have any questions or comments, thanks.

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I am having trouble using jquery to submit a form. It was working before

- by noah

When a user clicks a link it uses jquery ajax to submit a form to go to paypal. Not working for some reason. Really appreciate any help... LINK TO CLICK I put this in an href for onClick: javascript:go_paypal(); CODE TO EXECUTE ON CLICK function go_paypal() { data = 'req_paypal=1'; $.blockUI({ message: '<h1> Going to Paypal...</h1>',css:{background:'#000'} }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "index.php", data: data, success: function(data) { $("#paypal_form").html(data); $("#payPalForm").submit(); } , error: function() {$.unblockUI(); alert('Unable to communicate to server.'); } }); return false; } CODE TO GO ON SUBMIT if(isset($_POST['req_paypal']) && $_POST['req_paypal'] == 1 ) { $sql = 'INSERT INTO `transactions` (id,type,ip,time,ammount,status) VALUES (NULL,1,\''.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].'\',\''.time().'\',\''.$global['paypal_prod_amount'].'\',0) '; echo $sql; mysql_query($sql); $id = mysql_insert_id(); $html = ' <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post" id="payPalForm"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number" value="One Year of Imgur Pro"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="'.$global['paypal_email'].'"> <input type="hidden" name="custom" value="'.base64_encode($id).'"> <input type="hidden" name="currency_code" value="USD"> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="'.$global['paypal_return'].'"> <input name="item_name" type="hidden" id="item_name" value="One Year of Imgur Pro" > <input name="amount" type="hidden" id="amount" value="'.$global['paypal_prod_amount'].'" > </form> '; echo $html;exit; }

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iPad web app: Prevent input focus AFTER ajax call

- by Mike Barwick

So I've read around and can't for the life of me figure out of to solve my issue effectively. In short, I have a web app built for the iPad - which works as it should. However, I have an Ajax form which also submits as it should. But, after the callback and I clear/reset my form, the "iPad" automatically focuses on an input and opens the keyboard again. This is far from ideal. I managed to hack my way around it, but it's still not perfect. The code below is run on my ajax callback, which works - except there's still a flash of the keyboard quickly opening and closing. Note, my code won't work unless I use setTimeout. Also, from my understanding, document.activeElement.blur(); only works when there's a click event, so I triggered one via js. IN OTHER WORDS, HOW DO I PREVENT THE KEYBOARD FROM REOPENING AFTER AJAX CALL ON WEB APP? PS: Ajax call works fine and doesn't open the keyboard in Safari on the iPad, just web app mode. Here's my code: hideKeyboard: function () { // iOS web app only, iPad IS_IPAD = navigator.userAgent.match(/iPad/i) != null; if (IS_IPAD) { $(window).one('click', function () { document.activeElement.blur(); }); setTimeout(function () { $(window).trigger('click'); }, 500); } } Maybe it's related to how I'm clearing my forms, so here's that code. Note, all inputs have tabindex="-1" as well. clearForm: function () { // text, textarea, etc $('#campaign-form-wrap > form')[0].reset(); // checkboxes $('input[type="checkbox"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.checkbox').removeClass('checked'); // radio inputs $('input[type="radio"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.radio').removeClass('checked'); // selects $('form.custom .user-generated-field select').each(function () { var selection = $(this).find('option:first').text(), labelFor = $(this).attr('name'), label = $('[for="' + labelFor + '"]'); label.find('.selection-choice').html(selection); }); optin.hideKeyboard(); }

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JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

- by DaveyDaveDave

Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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Yii file upload issue

- by user1289853

Couple of months ago,I developed a simple app using YII,one of the feature was to upload file. The feature was working well in my dev machine,couple of days ago client found the file upload feature is not working in his server since deployment. And after that I test my dev machine that was not working too. My controller looks: public function actionEntry() { if (!Yii::app()->user->isGuest) { $model = new TrackForm; if (isset($_POST['TrackForm'])) { $entry = new Track; try { $entry->product_image = $_POST['TrackForm']['product_image']; $entry->product_image = CUploadedFile::getInstance($model, 'product_image'); if ($entry->save()) { if ($entry->product_image) { $entry->product_image->saveAs($entry->product_image->name, '/trackshirt/uploads'); } } $this->render('success', array('model' => $model)); // redirect to success page } } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } } else { $this->render('entry', array('model' => $model)); } } } Model is like below: <?php class Track extends CActiveRecord { public static function model($className=__CLASS__) { return parent::model($className); } public function tableName() { return 'product_details'; } } My view looks: <?php $form = $this->beginWidget('CActiveForm', array( 'id' => 'hide-form', 'enableClientValidation' => true, 'clientOptions' => array( 'validateOnSubmit' => true, ), 'htmlOptions' => array('enctype' => 'multipart/form-data'), )); ?> <p class="auto-style2"><strong>Administration - Add New Product</strong></p> <table align="center" style="width: 650px"><td class="auto-style3" style="width: 250px">Product Image</td> <td> <?php echo $form->activeFileField($model, 'product_image'); ?> </td> </tr> </table> <p class="auto-style1"> <div style="margin-leftL:-100px;"> <?php echo CHtml::submitButton('Submit New Product Form'); ?> </div> <?php $this->endWidget(); ?> Any idea where is the problem?I tried to debug it but every time it returns Null. Thanks.

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C# ApplicationContext usage

- by rd42

Apologies if my terminology is off, I'm new to C#. I'm trying to use an ApplicationContext file to store mysql conn values, like dbname, username, password. The class with mysql conn string is "using" the namespace for the ApplicationContext, but when I print out the connection string, the values are making it. A friend said, "I'm not initializing it" but couldn't stay to expand on what "it" was. and the "Console.WriteLine("1");" in ApplicationContext.cs never shows up. Do I need to create an ApplicationContext object and the call Initialize() on that object? Thanks for any help. ApplicationContext.cs: namespace NewApplication.Context { class ApplicationContext { public static string serverName; public static string username; public static string password; public static void Initialize() { //need to read through config here try { Console.WriteLine("1"); XmlDocument xDoc = new XmlDocument(); xDoc.Load(".\\Settings.xml"); XmlNodeList serverNodeList = xDoc.GetElementsByTagName("DatabaseServer"); XmlNodeList usernameNodeList = xDoc.GetElementsByTagName("UserName"); XmlNodeList passwordNodeList = xDoc.GetElementsByTagName("Password"); } catch (Exception ex) { // MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()); //TODO: Future write to log file username = "user"; password = "password"; serverName = "localhost"; } } } } MySQLManager.cs: note: dbname is the same as the username as you'll see in the code, I copied this from a friend who does that. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using MySql.Data; using MySql.Data.MySqlClient; using NewApplication.Context; namespace NewApplication.DAO { class MySQLManager { private static MySqlConnection conn; public static MySqlConnection getConnection() { if (conn == null || conn.State == System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) { string connStr = "server=" + ApplicationContext.serverName + ";user=" + ApplicationContext.username + ";database=" + ApplicationContext.username + ";port=3306;password=" + ApplicationContext.password + ";"; conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr); try { Console.WriteLine("Connecting to MySQL... "); Console.WriteLine("Connection string: " + connStr + "\n"); conn.Open(); // Perform databse operations // conn.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } return conn; } } } and, thanks for still reading, this is the code that uses the two previous files: class LogDAO { MySqlConnection conn; public LogDAO() { conn = MySQLManager.getConnection(); } Thank you, rd42

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